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Thyroxine Poisoning

CLINICAL RECOGNITION

 

A massive L-Thyroxine (T4) overdose may be accidentally and unintentionally ingested, most commonly by children and adolescents. It may occur intentionally in young and older adults in an attempt to lose weight, with suicidal intentions, or for undeclared purposes.  In some localities thyroxine may be obtained at drugstores without prescription (mostly in the generic form). In some reports thyroxine preparations by a pharmacist had an erroneous LT4 dosage. Thyroid hormone pills used to treat hypothyroid dogs typically contains a much higher dose of thyroid hormone and if mistakenly taken by humans can lead to thyroxine poisoning.

 

Ingested thyroxine, which is itself probably of modest physiologic significance, is rapidly partially converted to triiodothyronine (T3), the active form of thyroid hormone. Both thyroxine and triiodothyronine levels in serum rise within 1-2 hours of ingestion. Agents that inhibit T4>T3 conversion provide one approach to treatment. In children and adolescents, the clinical course is often very mild. Patients in this age range may ingest a full flask of LT4 with 90-100 tablets (100 or 150 mcg/tablet). Rarely, the overdose is discovered immediately and the patient is brought to the hospital 6-12 hours after the ingestion. At this time, the common clinical signs and symptoms include nervousness, insomnia, mild tremor of hands, tachycardia, mild elevation of body temperature, blood pressure elevation, and loose stools.  Rarely more serious late effects occur, including coma, convulsions, and acute psychosis. Cardiac effects aside from tachycardia are seldom seen in young adults but may occur in middle age and older adults, with reported arrhythmias and acute myocardial infarction. However, only one fatality has been reported. Interestingly the onset of symptoms and signs (Table 1) may be delayed for up to 3 to 10 days and does not correlate closely with plasma levels of serum total T4 and total T3. Medical consensus has indicated that serious symptoms are less frequent in children even though children usually have higher mean plasma levels of T4 and T3 than adults for the same overdose of LT4 ingested. One-time ingestion of up to 3 mg thyroxine rarely causes symptoms in adult or children. As already mentioned serious complications are not common, but they can appear days after ingestion, and therefore the patients should be closely monitored.

 

TABLE 1: SYMPTOMS AND SIGNS AFTER INGESTION OF LT4

Severe toxicity is quite rare in children.

Common-effects:

Nervousness

Insomnia

Mild elevation of temperature

Blood pressure elevation

Loose stools

Rare symptoms:

Comma

Convulsions

Acute psychosis

Thyroid storm

Tachycardia, arrhythmias

 

DIAGNOSIS and DIFFERENTIAL

 

Elevated levels of total and free T4 and T3 have been described with suppressed serum TSH levels and otherwise typically a normal biochemical profile (Table 2). The half-life of serum T4 may be shortened. In one study the half-life of LT4 was 5.7 days which is slightly shorter than the usual half-life of L-thyroxine. In one report total serum T3 levels reached the normal range five days after ingestion of 9.9 mg of LT4 (99 tablets of 100 mcg), although free T4 levels were still elevated. In many cases, there is a progressive rise in both serum total T4 and total T3 levels in the first 24 hours following the overdose, caused by continued absorption of the ingested LT4.

 

Table 2: Biochemical Changes After Ingestion of LT4

Elevated serum total T4 and T3

Suppressed serum TSH

Elevated Free T4 and Free T3

Normal biochemical profile

 

THERAPY

 

Therapeutic recommendations are made based only in the review of the available literature concerning a relatively large number of patients, most of them children. Acute levothyroxine overdose is much more common in children compared to adolescents and adults. Therapeutic options are related to the time elapsed after the ingestion of a large number of tablets of L-thyroxine and the actual beginning of emergency therapy (Table 3). Acute massive doses of L-thyroxine typically have a mild clinical course that can be controlled by activated charcoal, or possibly cholestyramine, propranolol, dexamethasone, and supporting measures, with close medical evaluation. Rarely critical cardiac conditions, coma, seizures will follow massive doses of L-Thyroxine.

 

If more than a few hours of ingestion of LT-4 tablets have elapsed, most probably the tablets have travelled from the gastric cavity to duodenum. Moreover, gastric lavage is difficult to conduct in small children. One way to confirm the presence of LT-4 tablets in the gastric cavity is endoscopy, easily conducted in many hospitals and emergency rooms. LT-4 tablets are dissolved by the gastric juice, but there are no data about the rate of dissolution of a large number of tablets of LT-4. Most probably LT-4 would not be entirely dissolved by the gastric juice and may not be absorbed in the duodenum (normally about 10-15%) but would be absorbed in the jejuno-ileum (normally about 53% of absorption of LT4).

 

Emetics both local (Ipecac) or central agents (apomorphine) should be avoided.

 

Administration of activated charcoal is a common practice in many drug overdoses and is an agent that can prevent absorption of several drugs from the gastro-intestinal system. However, in many reports repeated doses of activated charcoal were ineffective in accelerating the elimination of levothyroxine, probably due to high uptake in the duodenum and jejuno-ileum.

 

Hemoperfusion using activated charcoal is a rather complicated procedure but has been reported to be highly effective in decreasing total serum levels. It should be reserved for adult patients with severe intoxication by very large doses of thyroxine and the same applies to plasmapheresis which has been seldom used.  

 

Cholestyramine, an ion-exchange resin (Questran ®), can be administered in the usual dose of 4 grams every 8 hours orally. This drug binds thyroxine and enhances its elimination.

 

Glucocorticoids (Dexamethasone 4 mg orally) decrease the conversion of LT4 to T3, the active hormone. Sodium Ipodate (oral cholecystographic agent) has also been used for blocking the conversion of LT4 to T3, but it is no longer generally available.

 

Beta-blockers such as propranolol, are useful to ameliorate the metabolic effects of thyroid hormone, mostly on the cardiac system (controlling tachycardia, preventing arrhythmias). Seizures may be treated with phenytoin and phenobarbital. Propylthiouracil (PTU) might be used for blocking the conversion of T4 to T3 but may have very limited usefulness in the presence of a large load of LT4.  

Hemodialysis has been used in severe cases, but it is probably of limited value since both T3 and T4 are highly protein-bound.

 

TABLE 3: TREATMENT OF INGESTION OF A MASSIVE DOSE OF L-THYROXINE

Gastric lavage (within hours of ingestion).

Emetic agents (not advised)

Propranolol (10-40 mg 3 times daily)

Activated Charcoal (1g/kg p.o.)

Dexamethasone (4 mg p.o. daily)

Sodium ipodate, if available

Cholestyramine (4g every 8h p.o.)

Propylthiouracil (PTU) (May inhibit conversion of T4>T3)

Activated charcoal hemoperfusion

Plasmapheresis (seldom necessary)

Hemodialysis (probably of limited value)

Thyroid storm: demands treatment in an Intensive Care Unit.

 

FOLLOW-UP

 

Patients should be monitored for several days to be sure that serum T4 and T3 levels are falling

 

GUIDELINES

 

None applicable.

 

REFERENCES

 

Shilo L, Kovatz S, Hadari R, Weiss E, Nabriski D, Shenkman L. Massive thyroid hormone overdose: kinetics, clinical manifestations and management, Israel med Ass J 2002; 4:209-299. http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/12001709

 

Kreisner E, Lutzky M, Gross JL. Charcoal hemoperfusion in the treatment of levothyroxine intoxication. Thyroid 2010, 20:209-212. http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/20151829 De Luis

 

DA, Duenas A, Abad L, Aller R. Light symptoms following a high dose intentional L-Thyroxine ingestion treated with cholestyramine. Horm Res 2002; 67:61-62. http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/12006723

 

De Groot LJ, Bartalena L. Thyroid Storm. In: De Groot LJ, Chrousos G, Dungan K, Feingold KR, Grossman A, Hershman JM, Koch C, Korbonits M, McLachlan R, New M, Purnell J, Rebar R, Singer F, Vinik A, editors. Endotext [Internet]. South Dartmouth (MA): MDText.com, Inc.; 2000-.

2015 Apr 12. PMID: 25905165

Cellular Action of Thyroid Hormone

ABSTRACT

Thyroid hormones (THs) regulate growth, development, metabolism. This chapter aims to provide a comprehensive overview of the molecular and cellular mechanism(s) for intracellular signaling by TH. At the cellular level, THs bind to thyroid hormone receptors (TRs) that are members of the nuclear hormone receptor family.  TRs act as ligand-activated transcription factors that bind to their cognate thyroid hormone response elements (TREs) in the promoters of target genes. TRs regulate gene transcription by employing TR-interacting protein complexes containing coactivators (CoAs) or  corepressors (CoRs). Coactivator and corepressor complexes include histone modifying enzymes known as histone acetyltransferases (HATs) or histone deacetylases  (HDACs), respectively, that induce epigenetic changes in the chromatin structure of target gene promoters to enhance or repress the transcriptional efficiency of RNA polymerase on TH-responsive genes. TRs also can mediate transcriptional effects indirectly by binding to other transcription factors or activating cell signaling cascades.  Additionally, emerging evidence suggests that THs may bind to cell membrane proteins other than TRs to activate cell signaling pathways. The important role of TH on metabolism, has  spawned interest the pharmacological use of TH and its analogs/metabolites for the treatment of metabolic diseases such as hypercholestronemia, hypertriglycerimia obesity, and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD).

 

INTRODUCTION

The thyroid hormones (THs, thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)) have important effects on development, growth, and metabolism (1-3). Some of the most prominent effects of TH occur during fetal development and early childhood. In humans, the early developmental role of TH is illustrated by the distinctive clinical features of cretinism observed in iodine-deficient areas. In childhood, lack of TH can cause delayed growth. However, in this latter case, many of the effects of TH may be metabolic rather than developmental, as growth is restored rapidly after the institution of TH treatment. In adults, the primary effects of THs are manifested by alterations in metabolism. These effects include changes in oxygen consumption, protein, carbohydrate, lipid, and vitamin metabolism. The clinical features of hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism emphasize the pleiotropic effects of these hormones on many different pathways and target organs.

 

At the clinical level, identification of quantitative markers of TH action has been difficult (4). At the extreme ends of the clinical spectrum, which extends from hypothyroidism to hyperthyroidism, the diagnosis of a thyroid abnormality is usually apparent. Clinical suspicion of a thyroid abnormality can be confirmed using laboratory tests for THs and thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). However, more subtle forms of thyroid dysfunction, such as subclinical hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism, pose a greater challenge. Although the level of circulating TSH provides a sensitive and quantitative indicator of TH action at the level of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis, there are few reliable peripheral or intracellular markers of TH action (5,6). The effect of TH on basal metabolism has been re-evaluated using measurements of resting energy expenditure (REE). In hypothyroid patients taking varying levels of TH replacement, there is a strong inverse correlation between REE and the TSH level (6). Nevertheless, TSH remains the most sensitive and useful clinical indicator of TH action. As discussed below, tissue-selective metabolism of THs, and variable tissue sensitivity to their effects, underscores the need to develop additional markers of TH activity in peripheral tissues.

 

Since the initial description of TH effects on metabolic rate more than 100 years ago (7), many theories have been proposed to explain its mechanism of hormone action. The proposed models include: uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation, stimulation of energy expenditure by the activation of Na+-K+ ATPase activity, and direct modulation of TH transporters and enzymes in the plasma membrane and mitochondria (8). Recently, there has been increasing evidence for non-genomic actions (see later under non-genomic actions of TH) (8); however, the major effects of TH occur via nuclear receptors that mediate changes in gene expression.

 

In 1966, Tata proposed that TH increased gene expression with attendant increases in protein synthesis and enzyme activity (9). In 1972, high affinity nuclear binding sites for TH were documented (Kd approximately 10-10 M for T3) (10,11). The receptor-binding affinity of various THs and analogues correlated with their biologic potencies, consistent with the view that most biologic effects are mediated via the nuclear receptor (11– 14). Over the past 25 years, there has been a dramatic surge of new information on TH action resulting from the cloning of the TH receptors (15,16), the identification of regulatory DNA elements in TH responsive genes (1-3), the generation of TR isoform knockout mice (17,18), and the discovery and phenotype characterization of patients with mutations in TRα and TRβ (5,19,20). In this chapter, we will focus on our current understanding of nuclear TH receptor action.

BINDING OF THs TO NUCLEAR RECEPTORS

In many respects, T4can be regarded as a prohormone for the more potent hormone, T3. Most of the TH bound to receptors is in the form of T3, either secreted into the circulation by the thyroid gland or derived from T4to T3 conversion by 5' monodeiodinases (see Chapter 3C). There are three distinct deiodinases- type I, type II, and type III (21,22). The distribution and regulation of these enzymes can have important effects on TH action. For example, Type II deiodinase has high affinity for T4(Kd in the nanomolar range) and is found primarily in the pituitary gland, brain, and brown fat where conversion of T4to T3 modulates the intracellular concentration of T3. Thus, tissues that contain type II deiodinase can respond differently to a given circulating concentration of T4(by intracellular conversion to T3) than organs that only can respond to T3(23,24). Additionally, it appears that both type 1 and type II deiodinase regulate the circulating T4and T3levels (25). Recently, MCT8, OATP-1, and System L amino acid transporters have been identified as TH transporters which regulate T4and T3uptake into cells (26,27). Mutations in the former have been involved in a number of syndromes of x-linked mental retardation and neurologic deterioration (27,28).

 

T3binds to its receptors with approximately 10 fold higher affinity than T4. The dissociation constants for liver nuclear receptors measured in vitro are 2 x 10-9M for T4and 2 x 10-10M for T3(1,2). Nuclear receptors are approximately 75% saturated with TH in brain and pituitary and 50% saturated with TH in liver and kidney. It is notable that the extent of TH receptor occupancy varies in different tissues, providing a mechanism for alterations in circulating TH levels to alter receptor activity. In contrast to the related steroid hormone receptors, TRs are mostly nuclear both in the absence and presence of TH (1,2,30). In fact, TH receptors are tightly associated with chromatin (1-3,30), consistent with their proposed role as DNA-binding proteins that regulate gene expression.

CLONING, STRUCTURE, AND EXPRESSION OF TH RECEPTORS

Cloning of TRs

TH receptors (TRs) were first cloned in 1986 and belong to the nuclear hormone receptor superfamily that includes the glucocorticoid, estrogen, progesterone, androgen, aldosterone, vitamin D, retinoic acid (RARs), retinoid X (RXRs) and "orphan" (unknown ligand and/or DNA target) receptors (1,2,15,16,30-33). TRs are the cellular homologs of v-erbA, a viral oncogene product involved in chick erythroblastosis. TRs are encoded at two genomic loci (α and β) located on human chromosomes 17 and 3, respectively and their gene products result in two major isoforms, TRα and TRβ .

Structure of TRs

Like other members of the nuclear receptor superfamily, the TRs have a central DNA-binding domain (DBD) and a carboxy-terminal ligand-binding domain (LBD) (Figure 3d-1). The two major TR isoforms have high amino acid sequence homology in their respective DBDs and LBDs. Dimerization domains also are found in both DBDs and LBDs. The amino-terminal regions are more variable between TRα and TRβ (1-3), and contain ligand-independent activation domains. In contrast, multiple sub-regions are located in the LBD for ligand-dependent transcriptional activation and basal repression of target genes.

Figure 1. Functional domains of the TH receptor (TR). The TH receptor (TR) is depicted schematically. The zinc finger DNA-binding domain (DBD) is denoted along with the carboxy terminal ligand-binding domain (LBD). Other functional domains and interaction sites are indicated.

The DNA-binding domains of the nuclear receptors are comprised of two distinct zinc fingers that are separated by a 15-17 amino acid linker sequence. The crystal structure of the DNA-binding domains of the TH receptor and its heterodimeric partner, RXR has been determined. The two heterodimer partners interact with a direct repeat of the receptor binding site in a head-to-tail manner (34-37).

 

A small stretch of amino acids at the base of the first finger (referred to as the P-box) dictates the DNA sequence specificity of the receptor (35-39). The P-box sequence of the TH receptor is shared by other receptors that bind to similar or identical DNA recognition sites (AGGTCA). The underlined amino acids in the P-box (EGCKG) of the TH receptor are also found in the retinoic acid receptors, the retinoic acid X receptors, the rev-erbA protein, the vitamin D receptor, and NGFI-B. Of note, the steroid hormone receptors have a different P box sequence and bind as homodimers to a different consensus DNA half-site sequence (AGAACA). The region between the DBD and LBD is called the hinge region and contains the nuclear localization signal, typically a basic amino acid‑rich sequence, first described in viral nuclear proteins.

 

X‑ray crystallographic studies of the liganded rat TRα-1 show that TH is embedded in a hydrophobic "pocket" lined by discontinuous stretches of amino acid sequences within the LBD. Additionally, there are several hydrophobic interfaces within the LBD that contribute to the TR homo- and heterodimerization with RXR (39). There are twelve amphipathic helices in the LBD and specific helices among them provide the critical contact surfaces for protein-protein interactions with co-activators and co-repressors (helices 3,5,6,12 and 3,4,5,6, respectively) (40-43). Ligand-binding to TR causes a major conformational change in the LBD, particularly in helix 12. This, in turn, facilitates TR discrimination between co-activators and co-repressors (see below).

Splicing variants of TRs

The carboxy-terminal hormone-binding domain of the TRα gene is alternatively-spliced to generate several protein products (Figure 3d-2, below). One variant, referred to as α-2, is identical to TRα-1 through the first 370 amino acids, but then its sequence diverges completely, owing to splicing of alternate exons (44-47). Another splicing variant, referred to as TRvII or α-3, is similar to α-2 except that it lacks the first 39 amino acids found in the unique region of α-2 (45). α -2 cannot bind TH because of the replacement of critical amino acids at the extreme carboxy-terminal end of the protein due to alternative splicing (48), and thus cannot mediate ligand-dependent gene transcription (49– 51). The amino acid replacements in α-2 also alter its dimerization properties and reduce DNA-binding affinity (52-55). The α-2 splicing variant is highly expressed in many tissues such as brain, testis, kidney, and brown fat, but its function remains poorly understood (56). The α-2 isoform has been proposed to be an endogenous inhibitor of TH receptor function as it inhibits TRα and β activity in transient gene expression assays (44,54). The mechanism by which α-2 antagonizes TR action is controversial. Some studies indicate that α-2 competes for active receptor complexes at DNA target sites (57,58). Other studies indicate that α-2 inhibits TR activity independent of DNA-binding (59). It is likely that the inhibitory effects of α-2 involve more than one mechanism. Amino acid substitutions in the carboxy-terminal region of α-2 also prevent its interactions with transcriptional corepressors (see below) (55), and may provide an explanation as to why α-2 is not a more potent inhibitor of TR activity. Additionally, the phosphorylation state of α-2 may modulate its inhibitory activity (60). Given the foregoing features, the TRα-1 and α-2 system represents one of the few examples in mammals whereby multiple mRNAs generated by alternative splicing encode proteins that are antagonistic to each other.

Figure 2. TH receptor isoforms. The TH receptors (TR) β and α are expressed from separate genes. Each TR gene can be expressed as distinct isoforms, reflecting the use of alternate promoters and exons. The central zinc finger DNA-binding region is indicated and unique domains are shown by distinct patterns of shading. The TRβ-2 isoform, which is expressed predominantly in the pituitary and hypothalamus, contains a unique amino-terminus. The TRα-2 isoform contains unique carboxy-terminal sequences that eliminate hormone binding. The DNA- and T3-binding properties and transcriptional activity of the various isoforms are shown at the right.

A receptor-like molecule, Rev-erbA, is, surprisingly, encoded on the opposite strand of the TRα gene locus (61, 62). Rev-erbA mRNA contains a 269-nucleotide stretch which is complementary to the α-2 mRNA due to its transcription from the DNA strand opposite of that used to generate TRα-1 and α-2. This protein also is a member of the nuclear hormone receptor superfamily, and is highly expressed in adipocytes and muscle cells. Rev-erbA, contains a DBD that is homologous to the TR DBD. However, Rev-erbA does not bind TH and its putative LBD has minimal homology with other nuclear hormone receptors. Since no cognate ligand has been identified for Rev-erbA, it is categorized as an "orphan nuclear receptor. " It can act as a transcriptional repressor for nuclear hormone receptors and other transcription factors (63-65). Since Rev-erbA shares an exonic segment of the bidirectionally transcribed TRα gene, it is possible that it modulates the expression or splicing of TRα-1 and α-2 (66, 67) as parallel increases in rev-erbA mRNA and TRα-1 mRNA expression occur relative to α2 mRNA expression.

 

The major variant of the TRβ gene, TRβ-2, has a different amino-terminus than TRβ 1 (Figure 3d-2, above) (68). The distinct amino-terminal region of the TRβ-2 is due to transcription from a tissue-specific promoter. The function of the amino-terminus of the TH receptor is not known, but it likely plays a role in transcriptional control (69,70). The TRβ-1 and TRβ-2 isoforms function similarly in most transient gene expression assays (69, 71), although differences in the transcriptional activities of the TRβ 1 and TRβ 2 isoforms have been noted with respect to certain target genes (69-72). It is likely that tissue-restricted expression of the TRβ-2 isoform contributes to unique patterns of TR expression, which in turn, may modulate target gene regulation.

 

Recently, short isoforms of TRα and TRβ have been described (73, 74). The novel TRα isoforms arise from translational start sites in the 7th intron and yield shortened TRα 1 and α 2 isoforms that have dominant negative activity on WT TR. Novel short TRβ isoforms arise from alternative splicing of TRβ. It is possible that these isoforms may modulate T3-responsiveness in a tissue- and/or developmental stage-specific manner.

Tissue- and development-specific expression of TRs

Most studies of TR isoform expression have employed mRNA analyses rather than protein measurement (30). In general, the α and β receptor isoforms are distributed widely and exhibit overlapping patterns of expression (30,75). TRα 1 mRNA is expressed in skeletal and cardiac muscle whereas TRβ-1 mRNA is predominant in liver, kidney, and brain. Α-2 mRNA is most prevalent in brain and testis. In contrast, TRβ-2 mRNA has the most tissue-restricted expression, and is present in the anterior pituitary gland, hypothalamus, and cochlea (75-79).

 

The TRs also are expressed in specific stages during development, and are subject to regulation by hormones and other factors (78, 79). For instance, TRα-1 mRNA is expressed early whereas TRβ 1 mRNA is expressed later during embryonic brain development. In the rat pituitary gland, TH decreases TRβ 2, TRα-1, and α-2 mRNAs while slightly increasing TRβ-1 mRNA. However, in most other tissues, TH decreases TRα-1 and α-2, but not TRβ-1 mRNA. Isoform-specific knockout mice of each of the TR isoforms display distinct phenotypes (17,18). However, lack of significant TR isoform-specific gene expression was observed in cDNA microarrays of hepatic genes in TR isoform knockout mice (80). Given the apparent redundancy in TR isoform function, it is possible the different KO phenotypes may be due to absolute TR expression levels in critical tissues and developmental stages.

TRANSCRIPTIONAL REGULATION BY TRS

TH receptors bind to TH response elements (TREs) in specific target genes (Figure 3d-3, below). After binding TH, the receptor induces changes in gene expression by either increasing or decreasing the transcriptional activity of target genes. Examples of the target genes that are positively- and negatively-regulated by TH are summarized in Table 1. cDNA microarrays have been employed to study TH regulation of hepatic genes in mice, and led to the identification of a large number of novel target genes (both positively- and negatively-regulated) (81,82). These studies demonstrated that TH affected gene expression in a wide range of cellular pathways and functions, including gluconeogenesis, lipogenesis, insulin signaling, adenylate cyclase signaling, cell proliferation, and apoptosis. Although many of the TH-responsive genes were regulated directly by TRs, others were probably regulated indirectly through intermediate genes. Indirect regulation of TH-mediated transcription is suggested when the time course for induction is slow (hours) and when it is blocked by protein synthesis inhibitors. Although TH acts mainly at the level of transcription, it also can affect mRNA stability, translational efficiency, and miRNA regulation (83,84). Thus, TH acts at multiple levels to alter protein expression.

Figure 3. Mechanism of TH action via its nuclear receptor. TH is transported across plasma membrane and likely diffuses through nuclear membrane to bind to its receptor. The TH receptor (open circle) is localized almost exclusively in the nucleus where it associated with DNA as a homodimer or as a heterodimer with RXR (stippled box). The hormone-activated receptor binds to TH response elements (TREs) to alter rates of gene transcription and consequently levels of mRNA.

Table 1. Examples of Genes Positively-regulated by T3.

       
     1. Fatty acid synthetase
     2. Growth hormone
     3. Lysozyme silencer
     4. Malic enzyme
     5. Moloney leukemia virus enhancer
     6. Myelin basic protein
     7. Myosin heavy chain α
     8.Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
     9. RC3
   10. Spot 14 lipogenic enzyme
   11. Type I 5'-deiodinase
   12. Uncoupling protein

 

Table 2. Examples of Genes Negatively-regulated by T3.

 
 
     1. Epidermal growth factor receptor
     2. Myosin heavy chain β
     3. Prolactin
     4. Thyroid-stimulating hormone α
     5. Thyroid-stimulating hormone β
     6.Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
     7. Type II 5’-deiodinase
 

 

 

 

TR binding to TH response elements (TREs)

 

Detailed analyses of thyroid response elements (TREs) have led to the identification of a canonical TRE half-site sequence (1, 2,85) (Figure 3d-4). The TRE half-site is generally considered to be a hexamer (AGGTCA), but TR binding is optimal with a more extended binding site (37,88,89). Specifically, the sequence TAAGGTCA is optimal for TR binding and T3-responsiveness. However, inspection of TREs from many different target genes reveals there is a relatively low degree of sequence conservation among these elements. This finding suggests the possibility that naturally-occurring TREs may have diverged from an ideal consensus element during evolution as a means to modulate the degree of TH responsiveness.

 

TR interactions with DNA are quite different from those observed with steroid receptors, which bind to palindromic DNA sequences as homodimers. Although TR also can bind to certain TREs in vitroas a homodimer, it binds preferentially to most TREs as a heterodimer with the retinoid X receptors (RXRs) (1-3,30). The TR-RXR heterodimer binds to half-sites that are arranged in several different configurations. These include palindromic arrangements (head-to-head), direct repeats (head-to-tail), and inverted repeats (tail-to-tail). Most naturally occurring TREs are direct repeats (Figure 3d-4), typically separated by four nucleotides. The ability of TR dimers to bind to TRE’s in different configurations suggests a flexible protein structure, or the possibility that distinct protein surfaces are involved in the formation of dimers (34,39,90). Taken together, the specificity and affinity for the TR-RXR heterodimer is primarily determined by sequences within the half-site, the length of the spacer region between the half sites, and the sequence context within the spacer region.

Figure 4. Consensus thyroid response element (TRE). Studies of TRE’s in many different promoters has allowed the derivation of a "consensus" TRE comprised of a direct repeat of the hexameric sequence, AGGTCA, spaced by four nucleotides (n). Of note, there is considerable diversity in the sequences of half-sites, orientation of half-sites, and bases that form the spacers between half-sites (see text).

Although TR can interact with a wide variety of other nuclear receptors and transcriptional adaptor proteins (see below), the RXR proteins (α, β, and g) represent its most important heterodimeric partners (1-3). The RXR proteins enhance TR binding to DNA and reduce the rate of receptor dissociation from DNA (91). RXR binds to the 5’ sequence and TR binds to the 3’ sequence of TREs in which half-sites are arranged as direct repeats (92, 93). The DNA-binding domains interact with the major grooves of the half-sites on the same face of the DNA (34,92,93). The carboxy-terminal end of the TR DNA-binding domain forms an α -helical structure that interacts with the spacer region in the DNA minor groove between the TRE half-sites. Although protein-protein contacts between the RXR and TR DNA-binding domains are important for dimerization, the major sub-regions involved in dimerization reside in the carboxy-terminii of the receptors (34). The dimerization surface of the TR appears to involve residues that lie along the surfaces of helices 10 and 11. T3binding enhances the formation of TR-RXR heterodimers (94). On the other hand, T3dissociates TR-TR homodimers (95). These findings raise the possibility that T3binding might induce disruption of TR homodimers and induce the formation of TR-RXR heterodimers. The RXRs bind a stereoisomer of all trans retinoic acid, 9-cis retinoic acid (96,97). which variably alters transcriptional activity depending on the nature of the TH responsive gene (1,2). Additional studies are required to clarify the functional roles of RXRs and their ligands in TH action and interaction with other transcription factors.  Recently, Hollenberg and colleagues recentlyanalyzed the hepatic TRβcistrome of hyper- and hypothyroid mice using Chip-seq technology (98).  They found that the majority of TRβ-1 binding sites were not in the proximal promoter region but in other portions of target genes. Interestingly, by comparing the TR binding sites with previous Chip-seq data for RXRa, they found that some target genes may be regulated by TR homodimers rather TR/RXR heterodimers. Additionally, T3increased TRβ-1 binding to DNA sites that, in turn, was correlated with T3-induced gene expression. DR-4 and DR-0 motifs were significantly enriched at the DNA binding sites where T3increased or decreased in TRβ1 binding, and were associated with positive and negative transcriptional regulation by T3. Interestingly, in another study using Chip-chip methodology (99), some TH-regulated genes were identified that had little TR binding, despite the presence of putative TREs suggesting that other mechanisms such as receptor cross-talk, non-genomic effects, or indirect signaling mechanisms (see below) may be involved in regulating these genes.

TRs can have cross-talk with other nuclear hormone receptors owing to their common abilities to heterodimerize with RXRs.  TR crosstalk with peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor (PPAR) and LXR signaling via heterodimerization with RXR is a prominent example.   PPARg regulates the expression of its target genes by binding to the PPAR response element (direct repeat 1; DR1) as a heterodimer with RXR. Recently, it was shown that TRβ1 competes with PPARg for binding to DR1 as a heterodimer with RXR in vitroand in vivoto repress the transcriptional activity of PPARg (100). Since  PPARg plays a key role in lipid metabolism, carcinogenesis, and cardiovascular diseases (101.102), this mode of TR may exert some of its effects by crosstalk with PPARs. Recently, cell-based studies indicate that TRβ inhibits the activity of LXR-α transcription activity of the CYP7A1 promoter which shares a common DR-4 element with TR (103).  These studies show that TR cross-talk with other nuclear hormone receptor-mediated signaling expands TR effects beyond those target genes directly regulated by TRs (104).

 

Basal repression/Transcriptional corepressors

After binding to DNA, TR alters transcriptional activity by interacting directly or indirectly with a complex array of transcriptional cofactors. These proteins include corepressors (CoRs), coactivators (CoAs), integrators like CREB-binding protein (CBP), and general transcription factors (GTFs) (reviewed in 1-3, 31). Many of these factors have been identified by protein-protein interaction assays such as the yeast two-hybrid and glutathione-s-transferase pull down assays.

In the absence of TH, TR represses basal transcription in proportion to the amount of receptor and the affinity of receptor binding sites in positively-regulated target genes.This phenomenon also is referred to as transcriptional silencing (105-108). (Figure 3d-5, below). The addition of TH reverses basal repression and increases transcriptional activation above basal levels seen in the absence of receptor. Our understanding of the molecular mechanism for basal repression of transcription by unliganded receptor was advanced significantly by the discovery of a family of repressor proteins that bind selectively to unliganded TRs and RARs. This corepressor family includes silencing mediator for retinoid and TH receptors (SMRT) and nuclear receptor corepressor (NCoR) (105,109,110). These corepressors are 270 kD proteins that contain three transferable repression domains and two carboxy-terminal α -helical interaction domains. They are able to mediate basal repression by TR and RAR, as well as orphan members of the nuclear hormone receptor family such as rev-erbAα and chicken ovalbumin upstream transcription factor (COUP-TF). They have little or no interaction with steroid hormone receptors and therefore do not mediate basal repression by these receptors. Another protein, small ubiquitous nuclear co-repressor (SUN-CoR) enhances basal repression by TR and rev-erbA (31). This 16kD protein may form part of a co-repressor complex as it interacts with NCoR.

 

Within the interaction domains of NCoR and SMRT are consensus LXXI/HIXXXI/L sequences which resemble the LXXLL sequences that enable co-activators to interact with nuclear hormone receptors (40-42) (see below). Interestingly, these motifs allow both corepressors and co-activators to interact with similar amino acid residues on helices 3, 5, and 6 which are part of the ligand-binding pocket of TR. Differences in the length and specific sequences of the co-repressor and co-activator interaction sites coupled with the conformational changes in the LBD upon ligand binding, determine whether corepressor or coactivator binds to TR.

 

Recently, it has been shown that corepressors can form a complex with other repressors such as Sin 3 and histone deacetylases that are mammalian homologs of well-characterized yeast transcriptional repressors RPD1 and RPD3 (1-3,31). Thus, local histone deacetylation likely plays a critical role in the basal repression by unliganded TR/corepressor complex by maintaining local chromatin structure in a state that decreases basal transcription. Upon T3binding, TR undergoes a conformational change that dissociates CoRs and recruits an array of coactivators (CoAs). Thus, hormone binding relieves repression and stimulates transcription by altering receptor binding to distinct classes of cofactors. Additionally, DNA-methylation may play a role in basal repression as methyl-CpG-binding proteins can associate with a co-repressor complex containing Sin3 and histone deacetylases (111,112). This repression was relieved by the deacetylase inhibitor, trichostatin A. These findings suggest that two repression processes, DNA methylation and histone deacetylation, may be linked via methyl-CpG-binding proteins.

 

The fact that TR alters the level of gene transcription in both the absence and presence of T3has important implications for TH physiology. At low hormone concentrations, such as hypothyroidism, the unliganded receptor is predicted to repress transcription rather than function as an inactive, passive receptor. In some respects, this model is borne out by targeted inactivation of the TRα and TRβ genes. The phenotype of these double knockout mice are, for the most part, much less pronounced than the clinical features of congenital hypothyroidism (113,114). Thus, basal repression of transcription may explain why absence of receptor has less deleterious effects than absence of hormone (80,113,114).

Figure 5. TH receptor-mediated transcriptional silencing and activation. (A) Positively regulated genes. In the absence of hormone, the unliganded TH receptor represses or "silences" transcription in a process that involves TR interactions with a corepressor complex. Binding of T3 releases corepressors, relieving silencing and inducing the recruitment of coactivators that mediate transcriptional stimulation. (B) Negatively regulated genes. In the absence of hormone, the unliganded receptor activates transcription in a process that involves corepressors. Addition of TH dissociates corepressors and recruits coactivators. In the case of negatively regulated genes, this T3-mediated exchange of corepressors and coactivators inhibits transcription.

Figure 6. Role of corepressors and coactivators in the control of T3-regulated genes. In the absence of T3, the RXR-TR heterodimer recruits corepressors (CoR), which in turn, assemble additional components of a repressor complex that includes histone deacetylase (HDAC). Deacetylation of histones induce transcriptional repression. In the presence of T3, the corepressor complex dissociates and coactivators (CoA) bind to TR. The coactivator complex can include steroid receptor co-activators (SRCs)/p160, CREB-binding protein (CBP), p300/CBP associated factor (P/CAF), and proteins with histone acetyltransferase (HAT) activity. Vitamin D receptor interacting protein/TR associated protein (DRIP/TRAP) complex can also interact with liganded TR, and may cycle with SRC/p160 complex. The general transcription factors (GTFs) are also indicated.

Transcriptional activation/Coactivators

A large and growing number of co-factors have been shown to interact with liganded nuclear hormone receptors and enhance their transcriptional activation. These include: steroid receptor coactivator 1 (SRC1); SRC2/transcriptional intermediary factor 2 (TIF2) / glucocorticoid receptor interacting protein 1 (GRIP1); SRC3/ amplified in breast cancer 1 (AIB1)/ receptor associated coactivator 3 (RAC3)/ p300/CBP cointegrator associated protein (p/CIP)/ nuclear receptor coactivator (ACTR)/ thyroid receptor activator molecule 1 (TRAM 1); peroxisome proliferator activated protein binding protein (PBP); TR accesory proteins (TRAPs) /vitamin D receptor interacting proteins (DRIPs); p300/CBP associated factor (p/CAF), and cAMP response element binding protein (CREB) binding protein (CBP)/ p300. among others (reviewed elsewhere (1-3,31).

 

At present, the precise roles of all these putative coactivators are not known; however, it appears that there are at least two major complexes involved in ligand-dependent transcriptional activation: the steroid receptor co-activator (SRC) complex and the vitamin D receptor interacting protein/TR associated protein (DRIP/TRAP complex) (Fig. 3d-6). SRCs (SRC-1,SRC-2, and SRC-3) are 160 kD proteins that associate with nuclear hormone receptors, including TRs, and enhance their ligand-dependent transcription (115-117). SRCs also interact with the CREB-binding protein (CBP), the co-activator for cAMP-stimulated transcription as well as the related protein, p300, which interacts with the viral co-activator E1A (118-121). Recent studies also have shown that CBP/p300 can interact with PCAF (p300/CBP-associated factor), the mammalian homolog of a yeast transcriptional activator, general control nonrepressed protein 5, GCN5. Like GCN5, PCAF has intrinisic histone acetyltransferase activity (HAT) activity. Both PCAF and CBP interact with TBP associated factors (TAFs) and RNA pol II. Thus, PCAF and CBP possess dual functional roles both as adaptors of nuclear receptors to the basal transcriptional machinery as well as enzymes that can alter chromatin structure by histone acetyl transferase (HAT) activity. SRC‑1 and CBP may coordinate with TRs to synergize further the actions of TH, and also allow for the convergence of plasma membrane and nuclear hormone receptor signaling pathways in the cell.

 

The DRIP/TRAP complex also interacts with liganded VDRs and TRs (122-125). However, none of the subunits are members of the SRC family or their associated proteins. Instead, several DRIP/TRAP components are mammalian homologs of the yeast Mediator complex, which associates with RNA Pol II. Thus, TR recruits DRIP/TRAP complex which, in turn, may recruit or stabilize RNA Pol II holoenzyme via their shared subunits. It is noteworthy that DRIP/TRAP complex does not appear to have intrinisic HAT activity. Recent chromatin immunoprecipitation assays of proteins bound to hormone response elements (HREs), suggest that there may be a sequential, possibly cyclical recruitment, of co-activator complexes to hormone response elements by liganded nuclear hormone receptors (126-129). Studies of co-activator recruitment to TH-regulated genes showed distinct temporal patterns of recruitment. Last, other co-factors such as SW1/Snf and BRG-1 may be involved in early chromatin remodeling before the co-activator complexes are recruited to the TREs (130,131).

Negative regulation by TRs

In contrast to positively-regulated target genes, negatively-regulated genes can be stimulated in the absence of TH and repressed by TH (Figure 3d-5, above). Regulation of TRH and the TSH α  and β -subunit genes have been studied most extensively as models of negatively-regulated genes. From a physiological perspective, negative-regulation of these genes represents a critical aspect of feedback control of the TH axis. The T3-responsive regions of these negatively- regulated genes have been localized to the proximal promoter regions (132-134). However, TR binding to putative TREs in these promoters is relatively weak in comparison to the binding sites in positively-regulated genes.

 

There are several different potential mechanisms for negative regulation by TH. Negative regulation may involve receptor interference with the actions of other transcription factors or with the basal transcription apparatus (135,136). For instance, TR can inhibit the activity of AP-1, a heterodimeric transcription factor composed of Jun and Fos. T3-mediated repression of the prolactin promoter has been proposed to occur by preventing AP-1 binding (137). The TR also interacts with other classes of transcription factors, including NF-1, Oct-1, Sp-1, p53, Pit-1, CTCF, and GATA (138-144). By binding to these, or other positive transcription factors, the TH receptor may be able to inhibit gene expression by protein-protein interactions. Negative regulation may also occur by TR directly binding to DNA. A negative TRE from the TSHβ gene resides in an exon downstream of the start site of transcription (134) raising the possibility that it occludes the formation of a transcription complex. (Figure 3d-6, above) Additionally, liganded TRs may potentially recruit positive cofactors off DNA (squelching), which in turn, could lead to decreased transcription of target genes.

 

Transcriptional CoRs and CoAs, or even novel co-factors, may be involved in the control of negatively regulated genes. In contrast to the basal repression by unliganded TR in the case of positively regulated genes, CoRs cause basal activation of the TSH and TRH genes (132-134,145,146). CoAs also play an apparently paradoxical role in T3-dependent repression of negatively regulated genes (146,147). Moreover, both SRC-1 knockout mice and knockin mice which express a TRβ mutant with a mutation in the helix 12 region (that interacts with CoAs) have defective negative regulation of TSH (148,149).  Interestingly, histone acetylation can be increased in the T3- mediated negative regulation of TSHawhereas it is decreased in regulation of TSHβ and TRH (150,151).

 

Epigenetic modifications by TRs

Transcriptional regulation by TRs is a multistep process involving: (1) association of TRs with regulatory sites in the genome (usually within the targe gene promoters) in the context of chromatin, (2) ligand-dependent recruitment and function of coregulators to modify chromatin and thereby regulating RNA Pol II recruitment to the target genes, and (3)co-valent modifications of histones to alter chromatin structure, recruit RNA pol II complex, and to mediate transcription. In particular, the site-specific acetylation of histone tails induces local relaxation of chromatin, which enhances the binding of some transcriptional regulators and facilitates the recruitment and functioning of the general transcriptional machinery. Recent studies have demonstarted that thyroid hormone-positively regulated target genes may have distinct patterns of coactivator recruitment and histone acetylation that may enable highly specific regulation (129). However the epigenetic changes associated with negetively regulated gene seems to be much more complex. For instance, histone acetylation of H3K9 and H3K18 sites, two modifications usually associated with transcriptional activation, occur in negative regulation of TSHapromoter. T3also caused the release of a corepressor complex composed of histone deacetylase 3 (HDAC3), transducin b-like protein 1, and nuclear receptor coprepressor (NCoR)/ silencing mediator for retinoic and thyroid hormone receptor from TSHapromoter in chromatin immunoprecipitation assays. These findings demonstrate the critical role of NCoR/HDAC3 complex in negative regulation of TSHagene expression and show that similar complexes and overlapping epigenetic modifications can participate in both negative and positive transcriptional regulation (150).  Of note, histone deacetylation has been observed in T3-mediated negative regulation of several target genes (150-152).  Moreover, abberant histone modification at the TRH and TSHagenes has been implicated in the inappropriate TSH secretion observed in resistance to thyroid hormone (RTH) syndrome (150,151)). Other coregulators may be involved in T3-mediated regulation as RIP140, a coregulator that can decrease transcription by some nuclear hormone receptors, mediated T3repression of Crabp1 gene via chromatin remodeling during adipocyte differentiation (153). Interestingly, the use of HDAC inhibitors to counteract the effects of basal repression of target genes have restored some transcriptional activity in hypothyroidism associated with RTH syndrome and hypothyroidism (154,155). Although nuclear CoRs play a prominent role in T3 nuclear action (156,157), NCoR-independent signaling may account for basal repression by unliganded TRs for a significant number of target genes (158).

Another mechanism for T3-mediated epigenetic signaling is regulation of small non-coding microRNAs. MicroRNAs act as negative regulators of gene expression by inhibiting the translation or promoting the degradation of target mRNAs. Since individual microRNAs often regulate the expression of multiple target genes with related functions, modulating the expression of a single microRNA can, in principle, influence an entire gene network and thereby modify complex disease phenotypes (159). Thyroid hormone have been shown to regulate the levels of microRNA pair miR-206/miR-133b in human skeletal muscles (160), miR 208a in heart (161), miR21 and miR181d in liver (162,163).  These miRNAs regulate important cellular events by TH such as differentiation, contractility, and metabolism.  MicroRNAs thus are a novel mechanism for thyroid hormone signaling which may regulate mRNA levels of target genes in which TRs are not recruited to their promoters or directly affect their transcription (164).   Last, it recently has been reported that miRNA 27a can modulate the expression of target gene, b-MHC in cardiac myocytes by decreasing TRb mRNA expression (165) and multiple miRNAs may also regulate TRb expression in papillary thyroid cancer (166) suggesting direction regulation of TR expression may be another mechanism for modulating target gene expression by TH.

 

Novel indirect pathways for TH action

It has been assumed that early transcriptional activation of target genes are mediated by direct transcriptional effects by TRs owing to their abilities to bind to TREs and recruit co-activators (167,168). Previous studies have suggested that TH may have non-genomic signaling activation that may result in rapid transcriptional changes (3, see below). However, several groups have shown that TH can activate SIRT-1 activity by a TR-dependent process, that in turn, can lead to deacetylation and activation of transcription factors such as PGC1a and FoxO1a.  These findings raise the possibility that TRs can activate some target genes without TREs through activating other transcription factors (169).  On the other hand, TRs can interact with SIRT-1 directly so it is possible that it can recruite deacetylase activity that can act on transcription factors as well as modulate transcription through histone modification (170-72).

 

Thyroid Hormone Receptors and Carcinogenesis

There are many reports providing evidence that reduced TR expression and/or alterations in TH levels are common events in human cancer (173, 174). These alterations include loss of heterozygosity, gene rearrangements, promoter methylation, aberrant splicing and point mutations (173,175). Tumors, including lung, breast, head and neck, melanoma, renal, uterine, ovarian and testicular tumors, present high frequencies of somatic deletions and mutations in  both TR alpha/beta loci (176-178). Aberrant TRs have also been found in more than 70% of human hepatocellular carcinomas The tendency for TR expression to disappear as malignancies progress suggests that TR can act as a tumor suppressor in human cancers; therefore, loss of expression and/or function of this receptor could result in cell transformation and tumor development (179). In fact, TR overexpression in hepatoma cell lines shows repression of various tumor promoting genes such as PTTG1 (180),  and activation of  anti-tumorogenic TGF-beta. However certain mutant TRs like TRbPV/PVmey even enhance tumor growth by non-genomicaly activating beta-catenin and PI3K pathways (181,182). Last, it recently has been reported that miRNAs can downregulate the expression of dio 1 in renal cell carcinoma, and TRbin papillary thyroid, carcinoma.  Clarifying the molecular mechanisms by which TRs influence tumor progression and elucidating the epigenetic modifications ofT3target genes in cancers would perhaps lead to a better understanding of the treatment regime in humans.

 

 

Recently, targeted gene inactivation or knockout (KO) of TR isoforms, and “knockin” of mutant TRs to their native TR genomic locii have provided new information on the mechanisms of TH action (16,17). The ability to disrupt TR genes by targeted mutagenesis has been particularly challenging given there is more than one gene encoding TRs, multiple splicing variants (TRα-1, α-2, TRβ-1, TRβ-2), and an additional transcript (Rev-erbA) derived from the opposite strand of the TRα gene (12,16,17). Two TRα knockout mouse lines have been generated that display different phenotypes (175, 176). It is likely this difference is due to the different sites in the TRα gene locus used for homologous recombination to generate the knockout mice. The TRα gene is complex as it encodes TRα-1, α-2 (which cannot bind T3), and rev-erbA (generated from the opposite strand encoding TRα) (12, 16, 17). KO mice in which both TRα-1 and α-2 were deleted (TRα -/-) had a more severe phenotype with hypothyroidism, intestinal malformation, growth retardation, and early death shortly after weaning (175). T3injection prevented the early death of pups. KO mice that lacked only TRα-1 (TRα-1-/-) had a milder phenotype with decreased body temperature and prolonged QT intervals on electrocardiograms (183). The phenotypic effects of the loss of TRα 1 are relatively mild (184-185). Unexpectedly, there is no evidence of resistance to TH, as occurs with the TRβknockout. Disruption of the TRα-1 causes lower heart rates (19% reduced) and prolonged QRS and QT durations. These cardiac effects persist after hormone replacement. No changes were found in the levels of known TH-responsive genes in the heart (e.g., sarcoplasmic Ca2+ ATPase, Na+-K+ATPase, β-adrenergic receptors). The bradycardic effect of the TRα-1 knockout may result from alterations in the sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous systems or it could result from an intrinsic defect in cardiac myocytes. The TRα-1-deficient mice also have a 0.5 oC reduction in body temperature that is independent of TH levels. The mice have normal amounts of brown adipose tissue.

 

Samarut and co-workers have reported generation of short TRα isoforms from intronic transcriptional start sites which have dominant negative activity on TR function (73), and it is likely these short TRα isoforms are responsible for the more severe phenotype of the TRα -/-mice. In this connection, TRα KO mice which did not express either TRα-1 and α-2 (TRαo/o), had a milder phenotype than TRα -/-mice which expressed only the short TRα isoforms (186). Interestingly, TH stimulation of some target genes was increased, perhaps due to the absence of α-2 which inhibits normal TR-mediated transcription (57,58).

 

Targeted disruption of the TRβ locus created a mouse deficient in both TRβ-1 and TRβ-2 (16,17). These mice had elevated circulating TSH and T4levels, thyroid hyperplasia, as well as hearing defects (187,188). These findings are similar to the index patients with resistance to TH who were later shown to have homozygous deletion of TRβ (4,152). Thus, the mouse model appears to faithfully reproduce some of the features seen in humans with resistance to TH who are lack TRβ or express a dominant negative mutant TRβ (189). TRβ-2-selective knockout mice also have been generated and exhibited elevated levels of TH and TSH suggesting TRβ-2 plays the major role in regulating TSH (190). TRβ-2-selective knockout mice also have abnormal color discrimination and suggest TRβ-2 may play a role in cone development of the retina (191).

 

The relatively mild phenotypes of the TRα-1 and TRβ KO mice suggest the two isoforms have redundant roles in the transcriptional regulation of many target genes. In this connection, microarray studies of TRα and TRβ KO mice showed similar gene regulation profiles in the absence and presence of T3in liver (82).  Recently, a study employing TRα or TRbreceptor over-expressing cell lines also showed that both these receptor isoforms mostly share a common gene repertoire but with varying degrees of induction or repression of target genes (192).

When both TR isoforms were abolished, the resultant double knockout mice (TRα 1-/-TRβ-/-) were surprisingly viable (113, 114). Thus, the absence of TRs is compatible with life. These mice had markedly elevated T4, T3, and TSH as well as large goiters. They also showed decreased growth, fertility, heart rate as well as bone density and development. Interestingly comparison of cDNA microarrays of double KO and hypothyroid mice showed only partial overlap of their gene regulation profiles, confirming the observation that the absence of receptor can give a different phenotype than lack of hormone. It is likely that basal transcription occurs even in the absence of receptor whereas basal repression of target genes occurs in the absence of hormone.  When the phenotypes of TRa, TRb, and double KO are compared, it is apparent that each isoform may have isoform-specific function, perhaps in part due to different expression patterns of the isoforms as well as gene-specific actions by each isoform (114).

 

Cheng and colleagues have generated a “knock-in” mouse model in which a mutant TRβ from a patient with RTH (PV) was introduced into the endogenous TRβ gene locus (193). These mice have a phenotype similar to patients with RTH, as the heterozygous mice showed elevated serum T4and TSH, mild goiter, hypercholesterolemia, impaired weight gain, and abnormal bone development. Homozygous mice had markedly elevated serum T4and TSH, and a much more severe phenotype than heterozygous mice. Wondisford and colleagues also have generated a “knock-in” mouse that expresses mutant TRβ (194). These mice had abnormal cerebellar development and function, and learning deficits. These latter studies suggest that expression of mutant TRβ under the control of endogenous TRβ promoter produces many of the clinical features of RTH in mice. This same group also recently developed a knock-in of a mutant TRβ that cannot bind DNA. This model should be useful in distinguishing signaling and developmental patterns due to protein-protein interactions of TRs (as well as non-genomic pathways) from those that require TR binding to TREs of target genes (195). Knockin mice harboring a TRamutant at the same site as the TRβPVmutant gene decreased white adipose tissue (WAT) and liver mass (196). In contrast, TRβPV markedly induced hepatosteatosis and mass of liver but had little effect on white adipose tissue. The expression of lipogenic genes was decreased in white adipose tissue and liver of TRaPVmice whereas it was increased in liver and normal in TRβPVmice. A recent study showed that the phenotype of impaired adipogenesis can be restored by crossing with mice expressing a mutant Ncor1 allele (Ncor1(ΔID) mice) that cannot recruit the TR (197). These findings support the notion that the phenotypes in the TRaPVmutant mice, and perhaps some patients with RTH with mutant TRa, may be due to aberrant repression of target gene (18, 198, 199).

NONGENOMIC PATHWAYS REGULATED BY TH

 

There is increasing evidence for non-genomic effects by TH (3) in addition to the transcriptional effects mediated by nuclear TRs. There is continuous shuttling of a small amount of TRs between the cytoplasm and nucleus (200), so non-genomic effects may be mediated by cytoplasmic TRs (see below). Recently, a TRavariant from alternative translation was shown to be palmitoylated and associated with the plasma membrane (201). TH binding to this receptor led to increased intracellular calcium, nitrous oxide, and cyclic guanine monophosphate (cGMP), which in turn activated PKGII, Src, ERK, and Akt signaling pathways.  Another recent study suggests that non-DNA-binding TRs that cannot stimulate transcription may have “non-canonical” thyroid hormone signaling to regulate important physiological effects such as serum glucose and triglyceride  levels, body temperature, and heart rate. (202).  However, it appears that many non-genomic effects by TH are  likely mediated by cellular binding proteins other than TRs. Evidence supporting this notion comes from the rapid time course of some TH effects (thus precluding transcription and protein synthesis), utilization of membrane-signaling pathways such as kinases or calmodulin, lack of dependence on the presence of nuclear TRs, and structure-activity correlations by TH analogs that are different than those observed for nuclear TRs (3). Several non-nuclear sites for TH binding have been identified in various cell systems although their functional significances are not well characterized. Some of these include: plasma membrane associated T3transporters, actin, calcium ATPase, adenylate cyclase, and glucose transporters; an endoplasmic reticulum associated protein, prolyl hydroxylase; and monomeric pyruvate kinase  (3, 203-207). A useful guideline that describes transcriptional and non-transcriptional signaling via TR and non-TR mechanisms recently has been published (208)

 

TH also has profound effects on mitochondrial activity and cellular energy state. A 43 kD protein has been described in mitochondria which also could bind to TREs and could be recognized by antibodies against the TRα ligand-binding domain (209). Recently, it has been shown that TRβ can interact with the p85 subunit of PI3K and activate the PI3K-Akt/PKB signaling cascade; thus, the small subpopulation of cytosolic TRβmay be involved in cell signaling (210). This PI3K activation by T3leads to both direct and indirect effects on the transcription of several genes involved in glucose metabolism (210, 211,) and provides a mechanism for cross-talk between TH and cell signaling pathways.

 

Recently, integrin α-Vβ-3, has been identified as a plasma membrane TH-binding site (212). Previously, T4, but not T3, was shown to promote actin polymerization and integrin interaction with laminin in neural cells (213). Additionally, both T4 and T3activated mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) activity, and led, among other events, to phosphorylation of TRβ (210). Using a chick chorioallantoic membrane (CAM) system, Davis et al. showed that both T4 and T3stimulated angiogenesis (214). Since integrin α-Vβ-3 is involved in angiogenesis, T4and T3binding to it was examined, and T4was found to bind to integrin α-Vβ-3 with high affinity. Tetraiodothyroacetic acid (tetrac) and antibodies against laminin blocked T4binding (213). Moreover, siRNAs against the integrin α-V or β-3 subunits blocked MAPK activation by TH. These findings suggest that TH activates the APK cascade and stimulates angiogenesis via TH binding to integrin α Vβ 3. Additionally, thyroid hormone non-genomically suppresses Src thereby stimulating osteocalcin expression in primary mouse calvarial osteoblasts (215). A direct physical interaction of TRbPV with cellular proteins, namely the regulatory subunit of the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (p85alpha), the pituitary tumor transforming gene (PTTG) and beta-catenin, that are critically involved in cell proliferation, motility, migration, angiogenesis and metastasis suggest a novel mode of non-genomic action, whereby mutant TR isoform acts as an oncogene in thyroid carcinogenesis (216).

TH ANALOGS, METABOLITES, AND ANTAGONISTS

 

Several tissue-specific and TR isoform-specific compounds have been developed as potential treatments for hypercholesterolemia, obesity, and heart failure. An early prototypical compound was 3,5-dibromo-3-pyridazinone-L-thyronine (L-940901) that bound preferentially to the TRs in the liver over those in the heart (217). Although the relative affinity of this compound for the respective TR isoforms has not been reported, the selective action of L-940901 is likely due to tissue-specific uptake of the compound. Interestingly, mice treated with L-940901 had decreased serum cholesterol levels without cardiotoxicity. Recently, several other TH analogs have been described that have isoform-selective affinity for TRβ  compared to TRα (218-220). Since TRs in the liver are approximately 90% TRβ whereas those in the heart are mostly TRα, these isoform-selective compounds may serve as novel agents to lower serum cholesterol with minimal cardiotoxicity. N-[3,5-dimethyl-4-(4’-hydroxy-3’isopropylphenoxy)-phenyl]-oxamic acid (CGS 23425), 3,5-dimethyl-4(4’-hydroxy-3’-isopropylbenzyl)-phenoxy) acetic acid (GC-1), and 3,5-dichloro-4[(4-hydroxy-3-isoopropylphenoxy)phenyl] acetic acid (KB-141) all have been reported to lower total serum cholesterol and LDL-cholesterol (205-209). CGS 23425 also increases LDL receptor expression in HepG2 cells. Additionally, these compounds can increase serum apoA1 levels; however, the total serum high density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol level does not changes or may even decrease. In this connection, GC-1 decreased serum HDL; increased expression of HDL receptor, SR-B1; stimulated the activity of cholesterol 7α hydroxylase; and increased fecal excretion of bile acids in treated mice (221). Thus, GC-1 regulates important steps in the reverse cholesterol transport pathway (221). Recently, KB141 was shown to be a potential treatment for obesity by decreasing body weight via stimulation of metabolic rate and oxygen consumption (222). The TR agonist MB07811, which is converted to an active metabolite in the liver, has proven to be effective in reducing hepatic steatosis in rodents (223). The TRb-specific compound, KB215 recently was shown to be effective in decreasing LDL cholesterol, apoliprotein B, triglycerides, and Lp(a) in humans (224)when used in combination with statins.  These findings suggest that TH analogs may be useful in the treatment of a wide range of metabolic disorders (225).

 

TH analogs and derivatives also bind specifically to proteins other than TRs, and are involved in non-genomic cell signaling pathways, Thyronamines (3-T1AM, T0AM) are endogenous compounds derived from L-thyroxine or its intermediate metabolites. Activities of intestinal deiodinases and ornithine decarboxylase generate 3-T1AM (226). Significantly, this compound bound poorly to nuclear TRs. T1AM has interesting physiological actions as it produced a rapid drop in body temperature and heart rate when injected intraperitoneally in mice. T1AM also decreased cardiac output in an ex vivo working heart model. Although 3-T1AM have a weak affinity towards classical nuclear TH receptors a number of putative receptors, binding sites, and cellular target molecules mediating actions of 3-T1AM have been proposed. Among those are members of the trace amine associated-receptor family (TAR1), the adrenergic receptor ADRα2a, and the thermosensitive transient receptor potential melastatin 8 channel (226). Preclinical studies  using animal models are in progress, and more stable receptor-selective agonistic and antagonistic analogues of 3-T1AM are now being synthesiszed exerting marked cryogenic, metabolic, cardiac and central actions and represents a key lead compound linking endocrine, metabolic, and neuroscience research to advance development of new drugs (226).

 

TH can increase cardiac performance by increasing cardiac contractility and decreasing systemic vascular resistance (2); however, TH excess also can cause cardiotoxicity. 3,5-diiodothyropropionic acid (DITPA) is a TH-related compound with low metabolic activity and low affinity for nuclear TRs (Kd 10-7M). DITPA was able to increase cardiac contractility and peripheral circulation without significant effects on heart rate in animal studies (227). Moreover, DITPA improved hemodynamic performance in animal models of congestive heart failure after myocardial infarction. Patients with heart failure treated with DITPA showed significant improvement in systolic cardiac index and systemic vascular resistance in preliminary studies (227). Thus DITPA or similar compounds may represent a novel class of drugs for the treatment of heart failure.

 

Recently, the naturally occurring analogs, 3,5,3'-triiodothyroacetic (TRIAC) and 3,5,3',5'-tetraiodothyroacetic TETRAC) acids decreased heat-induced albumin fibrillation suggesting they may have a protective effect against amyloid formation (228). Additionally, tetraiodothyroacetic acid (tetrac) caused radiosensitization of GL261 glioma cells (229).  The mechanisms for these effects are not understood at this time but likely involve non-genomic effects as TRIAC and TETRAC have weak binding affinity for TRs.  Similarly, 3,5-diiodothyronine (T2) has also shown favorable effects in rodent models of fatty liver diseases (230,231).

SUMMARY

 

We have learned much about molecular mechanisms of nuclear TH action during the past 25 years. In particular, the identification and characterization of TRs, their heterodimeric partners, corepressors, coactivators, and TREs, generation of TR knockout mice, and discovering non-genomic pathways have provided new insight into TH action. It is expected that new information will be obtained from microarray and proteomic studies, structural biology approaches, and in vitro transcriptional systems. Such information should provide an even better understanding of the mechanisms of disease caused by abnormal circulating TH and/or altered intracellular TH levels, and provide targets for the development useful therapeutic agents for not only TH-related conditions but also for metabolic derangements such as hypercholesterolemia, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, and obesity.

 

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Prostate Cancer Detection

ABSTRACT

Prostate cancer is the second most common cause of male cancer deaths in Western countries. However, one of the most contentious topics in medicine continues to be whether testing for this very common tumor is in the best interests of individual patients. Although there is a spectrum of progression rates for this tumor, in most instances, prostate cancer replicates and spreads slowly. As this tumor is uncommonly diagnosed before the age of 40 years and the likelihood of clinical detection increases as men age, most patients have comorbidities when diagnosed with prostate cancer. For this reason and because there are not insignificant potential disadvantages with the detection process and its consequences, it is important to determine whether the benefits of detection are likely to be greater than the unwanted effects of leaving a possible prostate cancer undiagnosed. In this Endotext chapter, the likelihood of a detectable prostate cancer being present is placed in context of patients’ ages and co-morbidies before detailing the tests currently used in clinical practice, together with their limitations. For complete coverage of all related areas of Endocrinology, please visit our on-line FREE web-text, WWW.ENDOTEXT.ORG.

INTRODUCTION AND BACKGROUND

Prostate Cancer is an increasingly common diagnosis in Western societies with over 240 000 diagnoses made in the US (1), as well as 196,200 in Asia and 417,100 in Europe each year (2).  There is a wide range in the incidence of prostate cancer across the globe with the highest rates in developed countries, being more than four-fold higher than less developed regions for a slightly lower mortality (3),  although non-Westernized societies are changing as reported recently in relation to the Asia-Pacific region (4)(Figure 1). These differences are likely multifactorial, including genetic, environmental, detection, and reporting differences. As reported for 2012, Australia and New Zealand now has had the highest age-standardized incidence (111.6) and cumulative risk (13.6% by age 75) of prostate cancer in the world, with a high incidence observed in Northern America (97.2) and Western Europe (94.9).

Figure 1: Prostate Cancer Incidence Rates for Select Registries, 2000–2004 (5)

Mortality rates vary from country to country as well (6-7)with prostate cancer following lung and bowel cancers in Europe and Australia in terms of mortality rates. Worldwide, Caribbean and African populations display the highest prostate cancer mortality rates (Figure 2) (3). This disparity is also likely multifactorial and additionally includes factors related to treatment availability and practices.

Figure 2: Prostate Cancer Age-Standardized Mortality Rates for Selected Registries, 2000–2006 (5)

Despite advances in prevention and early detection, refinements in surgical technique and improvements in radiotherapy and chemotherapy, the ability to cure many patients remains elusive. However, mortality rates are changing albeit slowly as illustrated in blue below for Australia. A 2013 report by the Australian Institute of Health and Welfarepredicts that by 2020 only 26 out of 100,000 Australian men will die from the disease compared with 34 in 1982 (Figure 3) (8).

 

This phenomenon is not peculiar to Australia. Baade et al reviewed international trends in prostate cancer mortality and reported significant reductions in prostate-cancer mortality in the UK, USA, Austria, Canada, Italy, France, Germany, Australia and Spain with downward trends in the Netherlands, Ireland and Sweden (9). This has subsequently been observed by others (4,10).

 

Earlier detection of this disease, as a consequence of the introduction of the prostate specific antigen (PSA) blood test, has been acknowledged by the NCI as one factor contributing to lowering the mortality rate over the past few years (11-14). The use of PSA testing has been estimated to provide a diagnostic lead-time of up to 10 years (15-19). In the mid to late 1980s only one third of prostate cancers were diagnosed at curable stages compared with today when 80% are staged clinically as organ-confined and potentially curable (20-22). Unfortunately, however, even when the tumor is thought to be localized, up to 25% of men have non-localized disease which declares itself subsequently (23).

Figure 3: Panel A – Incidence (solid line) during 1982 – 2014 in Australia demonstrating a rise after widespread availability of PSA testing with a dip after the prostate cancer backlog was addressed: mortality (dashed line) has been falling slowly since the mid-1990s. Panel B – 5-year relative survival from prostate cancer, 1984–1988 to 2009–2013 in Australia demonstrated a reciprocal improvement since the mid-1990s https://prostate-cancer.canceraustralia.gov.au/statistics

Since curative treatments are limited to localized tumors (11-12,15,24), extending effective but non-invasive treatments to include both primary and secondary lesions remains a major goal and challenge. Once prostate cancer metastasizes, apart from causing loss of life, the toll it exacts is often considerable with regard to morbidity from both the disease itself and administered therapies.

 

As a result of increasing numbers of men having their prostate cancers diagnosed earlier, more patients are now eligible for treatment with curative intent.  Improved surgical and radiation-based treatments have been developed so that the prognosis of a man diagnosed today with prostate cancer is better than ever before.

 

 

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

 

The word "prostate", originally derived from the Greek prohistani which means "to stand in front of," has been attributed to Herophilus of Alexandria who used the term in 355 BC to describe the small organ located in front of the bladder (25). The prostate gland is a small firm structure, about the size of a chestnut, located below the bladder and in front of the rectum (Figure 4). The urethra, the channel through which urine is voided, passes from the bladder through the prostate and penis (Figure 5).

Figure 4: The Normal Prostate and its Relationship to Other Pelvic Structures

The primary function of the prostate gland, which contracts with ejaculation, is to provide enzymes to maintain the fluid nature of seminal fluid and to nourish sperm as they pass through the prostatic and penile urethra to outside the body.

Figure 5: Zonal Anatomy of the Prostate (sagittal depiction)
1 = peripheral zone - the zone where most cancers originate
2 = central zone – zone in which middle lobe develops
3 = transition zone – zone in which BPH ‘lateral lobes’ form
4 = anterior zone
B = bladder
U = urethra

NATURAL HISTORY OF PROSTATE CANCER

 

Traditionally, prostate cancer was considered to be a disease of "older men." As such, it was generally accepted that "men never died fromprostate cancer, they died of other conditions with prostate cancer."  Consequently, treatment was conservative and directed toward palliation and management of any debilitating and painful sequelae. In addition, diagnosis from histopathology from a biopsy was generally made after palpating a rock-hard and nodular prostate on digital rectal exam [DRE] or by symptoms and signs of primary or secondary tumors, such as urinary obstruction, back pain, nerve root or, less commonly, spinal cord compression. In a large majority of cases, tumors had already disseminated at the time of diagnosis and, therefore, were incurable. It was in the mid-1980s, with the introduction of the PSA blood test that prostate cancer began to be diagnosed earlier and in younger men.

 

Prostate cancer is usually slow in its development and in the majority of cases, slow to progress as is illustrated in Table 1 below from Surveillance Epidemiology and End Results (SEER) registry: SEER collects and publishes cancer incidence and survival data from population-based cancer registries covering approximately 28% of the population of the United States(1).

 

If autopsy findings are an indication, premalignant and inapparent tumors are very common with one United States study indicating that, of 249 cases examined, 70% of the prostates with the premalignant condition high grade prostate intra-epithelial neoplasia (HGPIN) harbored adenocarcinoma, whereas the frequency of cancerin prostates without HGPIN was 24%. HGPIN was encountered in 0, 5, 10, 41 and 63% of men in the 3rd, 4th, 5th and 7th decades, respectively. The corresponding figures for invasive carcinoma were 2, 29, 32, 55 and 64% respectively (26).

Although methods of diagnosis and treatment of localized disease have become well-entrenched, they are beginning to change. However, both early detection through PSA screening and the management of prostate cancer remain controversial. The tumor has a variable biologic course, the traditional biopsy approach is invasive, costly and clinical staging of tumors is imprecise. Furthermore, there are significant limitations in prediction of the clinical outcome of patients with both organ-confined and extra-prostatic disease - not to mention the morbidity associated with all currently established treatments. It is sobering to muse that, were the unwanted effects of diagnosis and treatment insignificant, the dilemma of whether or not to diagnose and treat would not be issues.

 

COMPETING MORBIDITIES AND LIFE EXPECTANCY: COMPARISONS

 

The likelihood of men dying from causes other than from prostate cancer increases with ageing because of competing mortalities (as indicated by Figure 6 below), in particular cardiovascular and cerebrovascular diseases (Figure 6 below): the fact that most prostate cancers progress slowly compared with other cancers needs to be considered in terms of life expectancy from competing causes of death.  Life expectancy has been reported to be increasing for Australian men, recently estimated to be 80.4 years from birth, the 7thhighest worldwide, and 84.5 years at age 65(27). Calculation of life expectancy is difficult; however, use of statistically calculated “life tables”, based on population estimates, may provide the most accurate prediction.

Figure 6: Panel A – life expectancy estimates for Australian men and women since 1890. Panel B – Population pyramid for Australia in 2016, demonstrating the proportion of population for each age group. Available from: https://www.aihw.gov.au/reports/life-expectancy-death/deaths-in-australia/contents/life-expectancy

 

If death from prostate cancer is compared with the likelihood of death from other conditions, the older a man, the greater is the likelihood that another condition will be the cause of his demise; in Australia in 2009, one in three male deaths was attributed to cardiovascular disease (28).

 

The following graphs (Figure 7) from the Australian Government website show approximately parallel increases for incidence and death from prostate cancer, estimated to be 23 years apart (Figure 7).  Consequently, if death is the endpoint being addressed, the patient’s life expectancy, based on his age and comorbidities, needs to be considered in the context of the natural history of his disease.

Figure 7: Estimated age-specific incidence (solid line) and mortality (dashed line) rates for prostate cancer, 2017 (Panel A), compared with 2007 (Panel B) (https://prostate-cancer.canceraustralia.gov.au/statistics)

TARGETING PROSTATE CANCER AT-RISK POPULATIONS

 

Major genetic epidemiologic studies published in the last two decades support the notion that prostate cancer may exist as clusters in families. In the 1980s, a Utah Mormon genealogy study found that prostate cancer exhibited the fourth strongest degree of familial clustering after lip, melanoma, and ovarian cancers (29). Prostate cancer, interestingly, had a higher familial association than either colon or breast carcinoma, to which patients are known to be predisposed by genetic or familial components.  A later study determined cancer pedigrees in 691 men with prostate cancer and 640 spouse controls and found that men with an affected father or brother were twice as likely to develop prostate cancer as men with no affected relatives (30). Although these findings strongly suggest that familial clustering of prostate cancer risk does exist, they did not address the underlying etiological mechanisms. Indeed, familial clustering can reflect either shared environmental and lifestyle risk factors, or a genetic mechanism, or both.

 

To determine what might distinguish hereditary prostate cancer from its sporadic counterparts, a number of clinical features of prostate cancer were examined by Carter, et al.(31). Clinical stage at presentation, pre-operative PSA, final pathologic stage, and prostate weight were examined in a series of approximately 650 patients divided among three categories. Individuals were classified as having hereditary disease if 3 or more relatives were affected in a single generation, prostate cancer occurred in each of 3 successive generations in either paternal or maternal lineages, or 2 relatives were affected under the age of 65 years. For the other groups, either no other family members were affected (sporadic disease), or other family members were affected but not to the extent found in families classified as hereditary.  In summary, no unique clinical or pathological characteristics distinguished hereditary prostate cancer in this group of patients.  This parallel between hereditary and sporadic prostate cancer also extends to the incidence of multifocality found in both of these categories.

 

These findings were supported by Brandt et al (2011) in an analysis of the nationwide Swedish Family-Cancer Database between 1961 and 2006. They found that the age-specific hazard ratio of prostate cancer diagnosis increased with the number of affected relatives and decreased with increasing age. The highest hazard ratios were observed for men <65 yr. of age with three affected brothers (approximately 23) and the lowest for men between 65 and 74 yr. of age with an affected father (HR: approximately 1.8). The hazard ratios increased with decreasing paternal or fraternal diagnostic age. The pattern of the risk of death from familial prostate cancer was similar to the incidence data (32). A similar study also from Sweden determined that a positive family history was a risk factor for developing prostate cancer and most pronounced in younger men (aged 45-49 years) (33). A vast array of molecular alterations implicated in sporadic and familial prostate cancer have been described (34)and reported to account for 30% of familial risk (35).

 

However, there are differences between hereditary and sporadic prostate cancers. The onset of hereditary prostate cancer is, on average, 6 years earlier than for sporadic cancer. Although the clinical course is in no way different and the pathological characteristics are the same in most instances (36), patients with a family history of germ-line mutations in the family-susceptibility genes BRCA1 and BRCA2 , in particular the latter, and G84E mutation in HOXB13(37), have a significantly increased susceptibility for developing this malignancy. Furthermore, these patients tend to present at a younger age, have more aggressive and disseminated disease with poorer survival outcomes [31-6](38-44).  Targeted screening of at risk men has been performed, with the IMPACT study reporting a higher positive predictive value of PSA and detection of intermediate- or high-risk disease in BRCA2 mutation carriers(45).

 

TESTS USED IN DIAGNOSING PROSTATE CANCER

 

In evaluating this issue, it is important to appreciate that the diagnostic approach is a two-step process that begins with the decision about whether or not to have a Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) blood test (+/- other investigations) and, secondly, to confirm a suspected diagnosis of prostate cancer by biopsy for histopathology. Most men with a PSA level less than 10ng/ml will have a normal feeling prostate on digital rectal examination (DRE), hence the removal of DRE by non-urologists from many guidelines.

 

The FDA initially approved PSA testing in 1986 for monitoring the disease status of prostate cancer patients and, subsequently in 1994, it was endorsed as a screening method for prostate cancer (46). The PSA blood test is a continuous variable with no cut point (47)so that very low levels don’t completely exclude the possibility that prostate cancer is present(48-50), but the higher the serum PSA the greater the likelihood of prostate cancer being detectable. Importantly, PSA doesn’t distinguish between those who do and do not have cancer or identify those whose cancers will benefit from curative treatment. PSA increases with a number of conditions including prostate cancer, but the most common associated pathology is the non-cancerous condition benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) which is the cause, in most instances, of bladder outlet obstruction in men.

 

Factors Affecting PSA Measurements

 

Themedicationfinasteridewhich targets the 5-α-reductase type 2 enzyme and the more recently available drug, dutasteride, which inhibits both type 1 and type 2 enzymes, affect theconversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) in prostatic cells. They reduce prostate volume with comparable effectiveness, with their designated clinical role being to decrease bladder outflow obstruction responsible for lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) present in a large number of older men. In reducing the benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) component of the prostate, both finasteride and dutasteride also reduce serum PSA levels by ~50% within 6 months of treatment.  However, with the influence of the non-cancer BPH component significantly reduced, PSA changes are more likely to indicate prostate cancer. For patients taking finasteride or dutasteride, an increase in PSA of >0.3 ng/ml from nadir is generally regarded as an indication for further investigation based on the findings of Marks et al (2006) who determined that applying this recommendation resulted in a 71% sensitivity and a 60% specificity for prostate cancer being detected in men receiving dutasteride (51). Use of dutasteride may also affect interpretation of multiparametric MRI (mpMRI) and require a reduced biopsy threshold(52).

 

Concerns with respect to finasteride use and subsequent prostate cancer were addressed by long-term data from the Prostate Cancer Prevention Trial. Results confirmed that finasteride reduced the risk of prostate cancer by about one third but also found that high-grade prostate cancer was more commonly found on biopsy in the finasteride group than in the placebo group. However, after 18 years of follow-up, there was no significant difference between-groups in the rates of overall survival or survival after the diagnosis of prostate cancer (53).

 

Other non-malignant causes affecting serum PSA levels include prostatic infection and ageing since prostates tend to become larger as men get older (54). Instrumentation of the prostate and urinary tract can also raise PSA levels (55)as can bacterial or severe prostatitis, both of these capable of resulting in sudden rises in this enzyme (Figure 8).

 

Testosterone supplementation is commonly used for hypogonadism and might intuitively complicate interpretation of serum PSA levels. However, available data suggests that testosterone supplementation does not significantly increase serum PSA (0.1 ng/mL; 95% CI -0.28 – 0.48)(56-57), prostate size, intraprostatic testosterone, or prostate cancer incidence and progression in men with pre-treatment serum testosterone higher than 5 – 7 nmol/L (144 - 202 ng/dl(58).  Testosterone therapy also causes minimal changes in lower urinary tract symptoms, with 77.5% of patients on supplementation having similar or improved symptoms for change in PSA of 0.44 (+/- 2.2)(59).

Figure 8: Factors Affecting Levels of Serum PSA(56-57) (60)

 

Efforts to improve the diagnostic accuracy of PSA have incorporated age-related reference ranges, which vary according to race (61-62)within and between countries. The normal age-related reference ranges are outlined below for European descent, Japanese, Chinese, Taiwanese, Singaporean and Korean men, as well as between Caucasian (Whites) and African-American (Blacks) men from the United States (Figures 9 – 14).

 

Furthermore, risk-stratification based on PSA for age is a newly adopted concept, recommended by the European Association of Urology and others, include longitudinal PSA testing for men with a PSA level >1 ng/ml at age 40 yr. or >2 ng/ml at age 60 yr. (63).

Figure 9: Age-based PSA Ranges for Men in Western Societies (19,61-62,64-66)

Figure 10: Age-based PSA Ranges for Japanese Men (67-70)

Figure 11: Age-based PSA Ranges for Chinese Men (67,71)

Figure 12: Age-based PSA Ranges for Taiwanese Men (67,72-74)

Figure 13: Age-based PSA Ranges for Singaporean Men (67,75-76)

Figure 14: Age-based PSA Ranges for Korean Men (67,77-78)

Attempts to improve the predictability of serum PSA for prostate cancer have included measuring the rate of PSA change (PSA velocity) and its relationship to the size of the prostate (PSA density) since prostates vary a lot in size and tend to become bigger as men age. This variable, but overall increase, in prostate size with ageing prompted the introduction of age-related PSAvalues by laboratories, based on the populations tested. The free or unbound PSA and its relationship to total PSA (free: total PSA) is another variation with the higher the free component, the lower the likelihood of cancer: most recently, the prostate health index (PHI) has become available and has been promoted. These are discussed in some detail (below).

 

Total PSA

 

Of the tests available, total serum PSA is generally regarded as having the greatest utility, maintaining its predictive value for the detection of prostate cancer (79)even after a first biopsy shows no evidence of cancer in which setting its performance characteristics are only slightly decreased (80). However, as stated above, PSA is far from a perfect test with most men with a serum PSA less than 10 ng/ml not having prostate cancer detected with biopsy, while conversely the possibility remains that prostate cancer may be present even with very low PSA levels.  In the Tyrol project, Pelzer et al (2005) found that prostate cancers detected in men with PSA levels <4 ng/ml were in younger patients and at lower stages (81).

 

In terms of reassurance, a PSA<1 ng/ml in a man aged 60 years has been reported to indicate an extremely low risk of clinically important prostate cancer in his lifetime. Although a 25-30 year risk of prostate cancer metastases could not be excluded by concentrations below the median at age 45-49 (0.68 µg/L) or 51-55 (0.85 µg/L), the 15-year risk remained low at 0.09% (0.03% to 0.23%) at age 45-49 and 0.28% (0.11% to 0.66%) at age 51-55 (82). This finding was supported by Aus et al who failed to find a single case of prostate cancer detected in 2950 screened men age 50-66 with a PSA <1ng/ml over a 3-year period (83).

 

Serum PSA Summary:

 

  • Is a continuous variable with no cut point (47)
  • Lodding et al (1998) found 15% of prostate cancers detected by investigating a PSA between 3 & 4 ng/ml had extraprostatic growth (49)
  • In the Tyrol project, prostate cancers detected in men with PSA levels <4 ng/ml were in younger patients and at lower stages with smaller prostate volumes (81)
  • Doesn’t indicate who will benefit from curative treatment (48)
  • Total PSA remains the single most significant, clinically-used predictive factor for identifying men at increased risk of harboring cancer (79)
  • For men 50-70 years, a PSA >1.5 ng/ml is a marker for greater than average risk up to 8 years (7.5-times greater risk versus 1.5 ng/ml or less) (79)
  • Sustained rises in PSA indicate a significantly greater risk of prostate cancer, particularly high-grade disease
  • A PSA <1 ng/ml in a man aged 60 years has been reported to indicate an extremely low risk of clinically important prostate cancer in his lifetime (50)
  • Not a single case of prostate cancer was detected in in 3 years in 2950 screened men with a PSA <1ng/ml (83)

 

PSA Velocity (PSAV)

 

PSA is a labile enzyme with falsely high readings as a result of ejaculation within the previous 48 hours, vigorous (non-sexual) exercise, urethral instrumentation, and prostatic infections, as well as different assays providing slightly different readings. Therefore, a single PSA level should not be relied upon to indicate an increase in level. A rate of change of PSA (PSAV) >0.75 ng/ml in year in the absence of another contributing cause equates with an increased risk of a patient having cancer (84).   Men taking the 5-α-reductase inhibitors, finasteride and dutasteride, have their serum PSA levels reduced by approximately 50% within 6 months. However, as stated above any sustained subsequent increase is more predictive for prostate cancer with an increase in PSA of 0.3 ng/ml from its nadir as a trigger for biopsy reported to provide 71% sensitivity & 60% specificity for prostate cancer for men who were receiving dutasteride (51).

 

For men not taking 5α reductase inhibitors, PSA increases >3.3% per annum have been reported to be associated with an increased risk of prostate cancer being detected by biopsy (19,65)and Makarov et al (2011) identified apreoperative PSA velocity >0.35 ng/ml/year to be associated with an increased risk of biochemical progression following radical prostatectomy (85).  A more sinister association was observed by D’Amico et al (2004) who found that a PSA increase >2 ng/ml in the year before diagnosis conferred a high risk of death from prostate cancer despite radical prostatectomy (86). Loeb et al (2012) confirmed the adverse significance of a rapidly rising PSA, reporting that patients with two PSA velocity measurements of >0.4 ng/mL/year had an 8-fold increased risk of prostate cancer and a 5.4-fold increased risk of Gleason 8-10 disease on biopsy, adjusting for age and PSA level (87). The same author also concluded from an analysis of the Baltimore Longitudinal Study of Ageing that, since PSAV rose continuously with increasing PSA and was significantly higher in cancers than controls for PSA levels <3 ng/mL and 3-10 ng/mL, the PSA level should be taken into account when interpreting PSAV (88).

 

PSA Velocity Summary:

 

  • A PSA increase >0.75 ng/ml per year increases the risk of prostate cancer (84); for men taking 5-α-reductase inhibitors  (finasteride & dutasteride) a PSA increase of 0.3 ng/mL per year increases the risk of prostate cancer
  • An increase in PSA of 0.3 ng/ml from nadir as a trigger for biopsy maintained 71% sensitivity & 60% specificity for prostate cancer in men receiving dutasteride (51)
  • A PSA increase of >3.3% per annum = an increased risk of cancer (19,65)
  • A preoperative PSA velocity >0.35 ng/ml/year = increased risk of biochemical progression following radical prostatectomy (85)
  • A PSA increase >2 ng/ml in the year before diagnosis = high risk of death from prostate cancer despite radical prostatectomy (86)
  • Men with two PSA velocity measurements of >0.4 ng/mL/year had an 8-fold increased risk of prostate cancer and 5.4-fold increased risk of Gleason 8-10 disease on biopsy, adjusting for age and PSA level (87)
  • An analysis of Baltimore Longitudinal Study of Aging concluded that, since PSA velocity rose continuously with increasing PSA and was significantly higher in cancers than controls for PSA levels <3 ng/mL and 3-10 ng/mL, the PSA level should be taken into account when interpreting PSAV (88)

 

 

Free/Total PSA

 

This test measures the percentage of free (or unbound) PSA in the blood and compares it with the percentage bound to proteins (α1 anti-chymotrypsin and α2 macroglobulin). Prostate cancer increases the amount of bound PSA.  The lower the ratio of free to total PSA or the percentage of free PSA, the higher the likelihood that the patient has prostate cancer. The proportion of free PSA in seminal fluid is much higher than in serum, consistent with its physiological role in liquefaction (89).  Although levels of bound-PSA do not significantly correlate with PSA in semen in young men, levels of free PSA do. With ageing, blood levels of complex-PSA, but not free-PSA, increase (90). The free/total PSA blood test can help to discriminate between patients with indeterminate PSA levels (4-10.0 ng/ml) indicating those who are at the greatest risk of having prostate cancer, in particular aggressive disease (91-92). However, as with all these modifications to PSA, the predictability remains less than perfect.

 

Free/Total PSA Summary:

 

  • Men with prostate cancer have a greater fraction of complexed PSA and a lower free PSA than men without prostate cancer
  • Free: Total PSA can be helpful in the case of a high PSA and a negative prostate biopsy
  • Free PSA is unstable: the assay must be frozen to -20°C within 3 hours otherwise the free fraction reduces
  • Chronic prostatitis may also cause a reduced Free: Total ratio

 

PSA Density

 

PSA density relates the concentration of serum PSA to the volume of the prostate and is thus a measure of serum PSA in relation to prostatic size (93). Most neoplastic prostate glands produce higher serum PSA levels per unit mass than do non-malignant glands. Consequently, a serum PSA of 5.0 ng/ml in a patient with a 20-gram prostate is more worrisome for cancer than that a PSA of 5.0 ng/ml in a man with a 60-gram prostate, especially if there is a predominance of transitional zone tissue (BPH) in the latter. To determine the PSA density, a PSA level is obtained and is divided by the volume of the prostate, as estimated by transrectal ultrasound (TRUS). Recent adoption of multiparametric (mp) MRI has allowed for determination of prostate volume as a standard reporting item. A value >0.15 ng/ml per gram of prostate tissue is considered worrisome for prostate cancer, and clinically used in nomograms to aid the urologist in estimating risk of prostate cancer. PSA density has been extended to include transition zone measurements in relation to the overall size of the prostate as the transition zone is the site in which BPH develops with ~25% of prostate cancers also arising in this zone. The larger the transition zone in relation to the overall size of the gland, the lower the likelihood of prostate cancer, other things being equal.

 

PSA Density Summary:

 

  • PSA Density = PSA divided by prostate volume determined by TRUS / mpMRI
  • The larger the transition zone, the lower the likelihood of prostate cancer
  • PSAD >0.15 ng/ml per gram is considered worrisome for prostate cancer
  • Problems with PSA density include:

(i) difficulty in defining the outline of the prostate accurately

(ii) variability in shapes not addressed by automated TRUS calculator estimations

 

Prostate Health Index

 

A further variation on the PSA blood test is the Prostate Health Index or phi, formulated by having the value of a truncated form of the PSA molecule (proPSA, greater production by most cancers than benign tissue) as the numerator and the free PSA value as the dominator multiplied by the total PSA level to give a phireading. phiis claimed to better predict prostate cancer risk than the total PSA. A phi-based nomogram in an external validation study performed with 75.2% accuracy (94). Furthermore, phi has been reported to aid in predicting pT3 disease (2.3%) and/or pathologic Gleason score ≥ 7 (2.4%) although decision curve analyses deduced these were not of greater clinical net benefit (95). A potential advantage of phiis that it stratifies according to risk. However, health economic analyses to determine clinical benefits of phi are yet to be realized(96).

 

Prostate health index [phi] = [−2]proPSA / fPSA) × PSA1/2

 

  • For PSA 2–10 ng/ml, sensitivity, specificity and AUC (0.703) of phiexceeded those of total PSA and % fPSA. Increasing phiwas associated with an increased risk of prostate cancer (97). These estimates have been confirmed in multiple studies (AUC 0.67-0.81 c.f. PCA3 0.73, %fPSA 0.60-0.65, tPSA 0.50-0.52)(94,98-99), resulting in a consistent estimate of approximately 20-30% of avoided biopsies if phi is used instead of %fPSA(100-101). A meta-analysis estimated prostate cancer detection with sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 31.6%, and was better overall than PSA and %fPSA for PSA 2 – 10ng/ml(102).
  • Including the prostate health index in a multivariable logistic regression model based on patient age, prostate volume, digital rectal examination and biopsy history significantly increased predictive accuracy by 7% from 0.73 to 0.80 (p <0.001) (103).
  • phi0-22.9            =          low probability of prostate cancer      (8.4%)

23-44.9            =          moderate probability of cancer           (21%)

>45                 =          high probability of cancer                   (44%)

  • phi-density (PHID), calculated similarly to PSA density, may also improve diagnostic accuracy of clinically-significant prostate cancer (AUC 0.82) compared to phi (0.79), %fPSA (0.79) and PSA (0.70)(104).

 

Four-kallikrein (4K) Panel

 

Another recent variation on the PSA blood test is the four-kallikrein (4K) panel, determined by a combination of kallikrein-related peptidase 2 (hK2), intact PSA, and free and total PSA as well as with clinical data (age, DRE findings, previous biopsy results). The 4K score has been shown to predict biopsy outcome to avoid unnecessary biopsies as well as predict distant metastasis at 10 years.

 

  • Among European men with serum PSA 3 – 15 ng/ml, 4K score showed similar diagnostic performance (AUC 0.69 any prostate cancer, 0.72 high-grade prostate cancer) to phi (AUC 0.70 any prostate cancer, 0.71 high-grade prostate cancer) and potentially saved 29% of performed biopsies(105). These findings have been confirmed in multiple studies, including a Swedish community cohort(106).
  • When applied to a USA cohort, 4K score performed better (AUC 0.82) than PCPT clinical risk calculator (AUC 0.74), equating to a potential 30-58% reduction in biopsies for delayed diagnosis of 1.3-4.7% of Gleason≥7tumors (107). Furthermore, accuracy was maintained between African American and Caucasian groups.
  • The 4K score was applied to patients enlisted in the ProtecT study and showed superior diagnostic accuracy compared with PSA for any cancer (AUC 0.719 vs. 0.634) and high-grade cancer (0.82 vs. 0.74) and potentially reduced unnecessary biopsies by 42%(108).

 

Summary: Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) & Derivatives

 

  • Is a continuous variable with no cut point (47)
  • Doesn’t distinguish between those with and without cancer or identify those with cancer who will benefit from curative treatment (48)
  • PSA Velocity = rate of change of PSA: A PSA increase >0.75 ng/ml in year = an increased risk of having cancer  (84)
  • PDA Density: PSA density = PSA divided by prostate volume determined by TRUS
  • Free: total PSA: The higher the free component and the ratio of free to total PSA, the lower the likelihood of cancer but chronic prostatitis may also cause a reduced Free: Total ratio
  • Prostate Health Index (phi):may predict the risk of prostate cancer better compared with total PSA, but its role in prostate cancer screening is not defined.
  • Total PSA = the single most significant, clinically used predictive factor for identifying men at increased risk of harboring cancer (79)

 

Digital Rectal Examination

 

Traditionally, palpation of the prostate by digital rectal examination (DRE) was the manner by which a diagnosis of prostate cancer was suspected. In historical series, up to 50% of palpable masses were attributable to prostate cancer (17,109-110). Although DRE by itself is a poor method for diagnosing this malignancy (111-112), especially when performed by non-urologists, it does still have an important diagnostic role, hence its variable inclusion in prostate cancer guidelines (recommended only for urologists mostly), as up to 25% of tumors are detected in men with normal PSA levels (113). Unfortunately, when a prostate cancer is diagnosed based on a palpable tumor, the risk of the patient already harboring metastatic or locally advanced malignancy is considerable(114-116).  However, a PSA-based prostate cancer detection strategy which omits DRE runs the low risk of missing some curable cancers (49).

 

The PCA3 Test

 

The non-coding RNA PCA3, originally called DD3, is highly specific to prostate cancer, with over-expression(117-120)in a number of different cohorts.  The first part of a voided urine specimen is collected immediately following firm rectal examination or prostatic massage (121-122)and PCA3 RNA measured using a PCR-based assay. One criticism of the PCA3 test is that is unlikely to obtain prostatic fluid from the anterior part of the prostate, mirroring a deficiency with TRUS-guided biopsies obtained via the rectum, which are also posteriorly-focused, especially in large prostate glands.  Although the “PCA3 urine test” has been reported to improve identification of serious disease compared with total PSA in a pre-screened population (Table 2), its role in initial assessment of patients suspected of having prostate cancer has yet to be established (123-124). A prospective multicenter validation trial to assess the diagnostic performance of PCA3 determined a positive predictive value of 80% for initial biopsy, and negative predictive value at repeat biopsy of 88%, while the addition of PCA3 to available risk calculators improved risk prediction of overall and high-grade cancer(125).

 

Table 2: PCA3 Results in Post-Prostatic Massage Urines (118,120,125-129)

Study Sensitivity Specificity Neg Predictive Value Number
Hessels et al, 2003 67% 83% 90% 108
Fradet et al, 2004 66% 74% 84% 517
Tinzl et al, 2004 82% 76% 87% 158
Van Gils et al, 2007 65% 66% 80% 534
Van Gils, et al 2007 65% 82% 80% 67
Salami et al, 2013 93% 37% 92% 45
Wei, et al 2014 (initial biopsy, PCA3 > 60) 42% 91% PPV 80% 562
Wei et al 2014 (repeat biopsy, PCA3 <20) 76% 52% 88% 297

 

Attempts to analyze PCA3 and other biomarkers in prostatic fluids, such as semen(130-131), have shown comparable diagnostic accuracy (132)but patient recruitment and clinician acceptance is challenging.

 

Recently, data from analysis of the fusion gene TMPRSS2:ERG and PCA3 from prostatic fluid obtained following firm digital rectal examination/prostatic massage, has been combined with serum PSA to produce a test which is being marketed commercially. Published supportive data is limited but preliminary findings indicate that the combination provides an 80% sensitivity and 90% specificity with an AUC of 0.88 for the 3 parameters(129,133-134).

 

However, Stephan et al.(135)examined PCA3, TMPRSS2:ERGand phiin an artificial neural network. The addition of TMPRSS2:ERG to PCA3 in urine following firm digital rectal examination only marginally improved detection of prostate cancer in110 men compared with 136 with non-cancer. PCA3 had the largest AUC (0.74) which was not significantly different to the AUC of phi(0.68) although the latter showed somewhat lower specificities than PCA3 at 90% sensitivity.  A combination of PCA3 and phionly moderately enhanced diagnostic power with modest AUC gains of 0.01-0.04 for prostate cancer at first or repeat prostate biopsies. These findings were not reproduced by Salami and colleagues in the USA, where PCA3 demonstrated high sensitivity (93%, AUC 0.65), while TMPRSS2:ERG had higher specificity (87%, AUC 0.77) compared to serum PSA (AUC 0.72). A multivariate algorithm optimized cancer prediction (AUC = 0.88; specificity = 90% at 80% sensitivity) (129). In a prospective multicenter study of PCA3 and TMPRSS2:ERG prior to biopsy, Sanda and colleagues reported a 33-39% specificity at 93% sensitivity, which was predicted to reduce 42% of unnecessary biopsies and conferred a cost benefit for younger men(136).

 

It is likely that future clinical practice will integrate molecular markers into predictive calculators, such as the Prostate Cancer Prevention Trial (PCPT) or ERSPC calculators, to improve diagnostic accuracy above crude traditional markers such as family history or clinical examination findings (137).

 

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

 

 

MRI use in prostate cancer is rapidly evolving. Potential applications and benefits include are summarized in Table 3.

 

Table 3. Utility of MRI in Prostate Cancer(138-141)

Scenario Potential Benefits
1) Triage prior to biopsy ·       Avoid unnecessary biopsy

·       Provide target(s) for biopsy

·       Assessment of anterior and apical areas that are poorly sampled by TRUS biopsies obtained via the rectum

·       Increase detection of clinically significant cancer

·       Minimize detection of insignificant cancer

2) Patients with prior negative biopsy ·       Provide target for biopsy

·       Assessment of anterior and apical areas that are areas poorly sampled by TRUS

·       Increase detection of clinically significant cancer

·       Minimize detection of insignificant cancer

·       Decrease unnecessary repeat biopsy

 

As an initial form of detection, MRI has the potential to improve the sensitivity of detection of intermediate and high-risk prostate cancer, especially in the anterior zone of the prostate, where cancers may not be sampled using transrectal ultrasound guided biopsy techniques. However, in some countries cost is still a handicap to widespread application.  Interpretation of prostate imaging with different sequences (summarized in Table 4), using a “multiparametric” approach, requires expertise and collaboration, most commonly according to a structured reporting scheme, prostate imaging-reporting & data system (PI-RADS), which has since been updated to PI-RADS v2  (142-144). A PI-RADS score is assigned to each individual lesion using T2 weighting, diffusion-weighted imaging (DWI), and dynamic contrast enhancement to assign scores based on a Likert (5-point) scale based on the probability of clinically significant malignancy: PI-RADS 1 very low; PI-RADS 2 low; PI-RADS 3 intermediate; PI-RADS 4; PI-RADS 5 very high (145). A summary of the standardized anatomical description map and PI-RADS scoring specifications are shown Figures 15 and 16).  For lesions in the peripheral zone DWI is the dominant sequence, and for the transition zone T2 dominant.

 

Table 4: MRI Imaging Sequences

Use
T1-weighted Detection of hemorrhage post biopsy as hyperintense

Detection of bone metastasis

Detection of abnormal lymph nodes

T2- weighted Demonstrates zonal anatomy.

Sensitive but non-specific as prostate cancer, prostatitis, atrophy, BPH, and changes after treatment (e.g., radiation induced arteritis) are hypointense

Dominant sequence for PIRADS scoring of transitional zone.

Diffusion-weighted imaging (DWI) Prostate cancer demonstrates restricted diffusion, appearing hyperintense at high b values and hypointense on ADC map

Dominant sequence for PIRADS scoring of peripheral zone

Dynamic contrast enhancement (DCE) Prostate cancer shows early enhancement and early washout
Spectroscopy Requires extra time for acquisition and may not add diagnostic value.

Not frequently used.

Citrate is reduced, whereas choline is increased in prostate cancer

Figure 15: Prostate Map for Description of Lesions Detected on mpMRI According to PIRADS Classification

Figure 16: Prostate Map for Description of Lesions Detected on mpMRI According to
PIRADS Classification for Peripheral (right) and Transition (left) Zone Lesions.

CLINICAL USES OF MRI IN PROSTATE CANCER

 

Triage Prior To Biopsy

 

The diagnostic accuracy of MRI for the detection of prostate cancer varies widely across studies, with sensitivities from 58-96% and specificity from 23-87% (140-141,146-148). Such variability can be explained by different equipment, level of experience, lack of standardization in the early series, different reference standards, different sequencing protocols and definitions of clinically significant cancer. It is evident that accuracy has been improving in the more recent series, and good standardization of reporting has been achieved with the use of PIRADS V2. A meta-analysis of 21 studies including 3857 patients using PIRADS V2 showed a sensitivity of 89% and specificity of 73% (149). Of note, some studies only considered clinically significant prostate cancer while other considered any prostate cancer (149).

 

The PROMIS trial of 576 men assessed the capacity of mpMRI to identify men with clinically significant prostate cancer prior to prostate biopsy and compared the diagnostic accuracy of mpMRI to a 10-12-core systematic TRUS biopsy using a template transperineal prostate biopsy with cores taken every 5mm as the reference standard (148). mpMRI was significantly more sensitive than TRUS biopsy via the rectum in all 3 definitions of significant cancer used (Table 5). As a triage test mpMRI performed prior to biopsy and reserving it to patients with suspicious findings, mpMRI would have avoided biopsying 27% of patients at a risk of missing 7-12% of significant cancers - depending on the definition used.

 

Table 5. PROMIS Trial Results (148)

Definition mpMRI TRUS 10-12-core
Gleason ≥4+3 or cancer ≥6mm Sens: 93%

Spec: 41%

Sens: 48%

Spec: 96%

Gleason ≥3+4 or cancer ≥4mm Sens: 87%

Spec: 47%

Sens: 60%

Spec: 98%

Gleason ≥3+4 Sens: 88%

Spec: 45%

Sens: 48%

Spec: 99%

 

The PRECISION study was a multi-centre pragmatic trial that randomized 500 patients with elevated PSA and/or abnormal DRE to TRUS prostate biopsy (10-12 cores) or a mpMRI. Patients in the mpMRI group underwent a targeted biopsy only if lesion(s) PIRADS ≥ 3 were identified. The targeted biopsy could be performed with software or cognitive fusion and could be transrectal or transperineal. The detection of clinically significant prostate cancer (defined as Gleason 3+4 or greater) was 26% in the standard biopsy group and 38% in the mpMRI group. This increased detection occurred despite the fact that 28% of patients in the mpMRI group were not biopsied because the study was reported as PIRADS 1-2 but still included in the population/denominator. Conversely, the detection of Gleason 3+3 cancer was 22% in the standard biopsy and 9% in the mpMRI group. Clinically significant cancer was detected in 12% of PIRADS 3, 60% of PIRADS 4 and 85% of PIRADS 5 lesions, similar to that seen in previous studies. Of note, the centers contributing the majority of patients had significant prior experience with prostate mpMRI reporting and targeted prostate biopsies. Whether centers with limited experience can achieve similar results remains to be demonstrated.

 

Patients with Prior Negative Biopsy

 

MRI has shown been shown to be useful in the subset of patients with prior negative biopsies. For these patients, the biopsy detection rate is approximately 30%, decreasing with each subsequent biopsy procedure (150-151).MRI followed by MRI-guided biopsies identifies prostate cancer in 41-59% (152-153). A recent review showed that across 16 studies MRI guidance improved the absolute detection of clinically significant prostate cancer between 6-18% in patients with previous negative TRUS biopsy (154).

 

DEFINITIVE DIAGNOSIS REQUIRES BIOPSIES

 

Prostate biopsy is required for the definitive diagnosis of prostate cancer. Systematic TRUS-guided biopsies have been the standard for the past decades but concerns about missing significant cancer and the risk of sepsis are changing the landscape. While TRUS imaging permits spatial positioning for systematic sampling, by itself it has low accuracy in detecting suspicious areas.

 

The number of biopsy cores taken is important with the chance of missing a cancer by standard sextant biopsy estimated to be approximately 25% (155)so that, more recently, the numbers of cores recommended are at least 10-12.  In addition, it is advocated that biopsies should be directed laterally and that they should include the anterior horns of the peripheral zone (155-158). Still, recent studies have shown that systematic TRUS biopsies performed via the rectum miss approximately 50% of clinically significant cancers (139,148,159). The introduction of mpMRI is changing this situation at least in terms of missing significant cancer.

 

One of the problems facing clinicians has been when to stop from recommending biopsying not only in terms of patient age and overall life expectancy but also with respect to the increasing likelihood of a positive histological diagnosis in those biopsied.  Indeed, a continually increasing probability of death from prostate cancer was observed among men of all ages with a PSA of 3.0 ng/ml in Baltimore Longitudinal Study of Ageing (160)of 849 men, 122 with and 727 without biopsy-confirmed prostate cancer. However, no participants between 75 and 80 years old with a PSA lower than 3.0 ng/ml died of prostate cancer. And not unexpectedly, the time to death or diagnosis of aggressive prostate cancer after age 75 years was not significantly different between PSA categories of 3 to 3.9 and 4 to 9.9 ng/ml. Of the 108 subjects older than 75 years with a PSA of 3 ng/ml or greater, 10 died of prostate cancer and 18 had high risk disease. In this group, 90 men did not have a diagnosis of high risk prostate cancer, including 75 who were never diagnosed with cancer (median time to censoring 12.5 years) and 15 who were diagnosed with non-high risk cancer (median time to censoring 17 years) (160). Therefore, many guidelines recommend against PSA testing among men older than 70 with a life expectancy of less than 7 to 10 years.

 

Routine practice for biopsies taken via the rectum involves peri-operative antibiotic prophylaxis. TRUS biopsies can be performed under local anesthesia or sedation. Rectal cleansing with povidone-iodine is recommended to decrease the risk of sepsis (161).

 

Changing Morbidity of Biopsy Diagnosis

 

Periprocedural symptoms such as hematuria, rectal bleeding and hematospermia are frequent, being experienced by over 50% of men having TRUS biopsies performed via the rectum but are almost always benign and self-limiting (162-164). Infectious complications following this procedure are less common but are being reported more often, with the causative mechanism believed to be inoculation of the prostate, blood vessels and urine with bacterial flora from the rectal mucosa and subsequent systemic dissemination (162,165-166).   There has been concern expressed that hospital admissions due to post-TRUS biopsy may be rising, with one study reporting a 3-fold increase from 0.55% across 2002-2009 to 2.15% across 2010-2011 (162,167-168). Changing bacterial resistance patterns and antibacterial practices have contributed to the spectrum of infectious complications with the infection rate being much higher in certain population groups such as men who have been taking antibacterial drugs prior to the biopsy and people who have been in South East Asia and Mediterranean countries within the past 6-12 months (168-169). Not surprisingly there is wide variation in the reported incidence of overall infectious complications from 0.1% to 7% and of sepsis from 0.3% to 3.1% across studies (166,170).

 

A prospective New Zealand study reported that drug resistance rates for patients who required intensive care admission for sepsis following TRUS biopsy were 43% for gentamicin, 60% for trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole (60%) and 62% for ciprofloxacin as well as 19% for all 3 agents in combination.  E. coli sequence type 131 clone was implicated as being particularly problematic, accounting for 41% of all E. coli isolates after TRUS biopsy (171).  Fluoroquinolone resistance in rectal cultures has been reported to predict infectious complications following TRUS biopsy (172). The changing patterns of drug sensitivities and reports of low resistant rates to drugs such as carbapenems for patients with unresolving sepsis (173)has resulted in some advocating for the use of these drugs as prophylactic agents just prior to TRUS biopsy (174-175). However, adoption of such a strategy runs the risk of decreasing the number and effectiveness of those pharmaceutical agents currently kept in reserve for patients with overwhelming sepsis (175).

 

The transperineal approach has emerged as an alternative with significantly decreased risk of infections complications, albeit requiring specialized equipment, general anesthesia in most centers, increased operative time, an increased risk of urinary retention and potential nerve damage affecting erectile ability. A notable advantage of the transperineal approach is better sampling of the anterior zone of the prostate (174).

 

MRI also allows one to perform targeted biopsies, thereby increasing the detection of significant cancer. The main types of guided prostate biopsy techniques following diagnostic imaging with MRI include cognitive fusion (visual estimation from clinician’s interpretation of TRUS and mpMRI images), MRI-guided (biopsy performed under MRI guidance), fusion software (software integrating MR images on to the TRUS screen to guide biopsy needle to target index lesions), and robotic (automatic fusion and alignment for clinician). A particular issue with biopsying performed under real-time MR imaging is cost because this approach uses MR equipment which otherwise would be used for other purposes. These options are summarized in Table 6.

 

Table 6: Approaches for MRI-guided Targeted Prostate Biopsy

Description Characteristics References
Cognitive fusion (visual estimation) Manually directed based on MRI

TRUS or TP

Low cost

Operator dependent

Sciarra 2010

Lee 2012

Panebianco 2015

In-gantry
(real time) MRI-guided biopsy
MRI-compatible biopsy gun used and trajectory established. Biopsy gun fired and sampling confirmed

TRUS or TP

High cost with each procedure

Steep learning curve

Highest precision

 

Overduin 2013

Penzkofer 2015

Schimmöller 2016

Yaxley 2017

MRI-TRUS software fusion biopsy Software assisted targeting of lesions

TRUS or TP

Initial cost outlay

Ongoing costs similar

Good accuracy

Porpiglia 2016

Siddiqui 2015

Meng 2016

Robotic-Assisted Potentially less operator dependent

TRUS or TP

Initial cost outlay Tilak 2015

 

In a meta-analysis of 11 studies Wegelin et al. compared the prostate cancer detection rates of cognitive-fusion, in-gantry, and TRUS software-fusion biopsy. In-gantry biopsy had a higher overall detection rate than cognitive-fusion, but the detection of clinically significant cancer was not different across the 3 techniques. Yaxley et al. performed a retrospective review comparing in-gantry MRI-guided biopsy to cognitive TRUS biopsy. In 595 PI-RADS 3-5 lesions, there was a high prostate cancer detection rate with no difference across biopsy methods (176). While the advantages of obtaining an MRI prior to biopsy are clear, up to 13% of clinically significant tumors can be missed when only targeted biopsies are performed (177-178). Moreover, this figure may be higher for lower volume centers with limited experience in MRI interpretation and MRI-guided biopsies. Consequently, many practitioner’s biopsy both index lesions seen with MRI as well as systematically sampling all parts of the prostate with 12 or more biopsies. In doing so, cognitive or in-gantry approaches are used for index lesions with a template employed to ensure correct special placing of biopsy needles for systematic sampling of the whole of the prostate.

 

Histopathological Assessment

 

The biopsy result provides important information for the patient and clinician on which to base management decisions (179).  Important prognostic information on biopsy assessment include tumor quantification values (fraction of positive cores i.e. the number of positive cores versus the number of cores submitted and the percentage or length in mm of cancer in intact positive cores), cancer grade (Gleason score in each positive core and ISUP [International Society of Urological Pathology] grade) and presence or absence of perineural invasion, lymphovascular invasion, intraductal carcinoma, and extraprostatic extension (180). Increasing tumor burden and poor histological differentiation are associated with a higher risk of metastatic disease, an increased chance of post-treatment failure, and a worse overall prognosis (181-183).

 

Histological analysis is the ‘gold standard’ for classifying prostatic adenocarcinoma. Using architectural patterns, the tumor is assigned a Gleason score and ISUP grade between 1 and 5, with higher numbers representing less differentiated, more aggressive tumors (see Table 7). A single prostate can harbor multiple foci of different histologic patterns of adenocarcinoma, and it is possible to have Gleason grade 3, 4 and 5 patterns in the same specimen: 85% of prostate tumors are multifocal. The Gleason score and ISUP grade are generated by combining the values of the first and second most common (dominant and subdominant) grades assessed by the uropathologist using light microscopy. In needle biopsies, the Gleason score and ISUP grade are calculated using the most common and highest grade of cancer (184). These values provide s important prognostic information.

 

Table 7. The International Society of Urological Pathology (ISUP) Grading System (185)

ISUP grade Gleason scores Definition
Grade 1 2-6 Only individual discrete well-formed glands

 

Grade 2 3+4=7 Predominantly well-formed glands with

lesser component of poorly formed/ fused/ cribriform glands

Grade 3 4+3=7 Predominantly poorly formed/fused/ cribriform glands with lesser component of well-formed glands

 

Grade 4 4+4=8 Only poorly formed/fused/cribriform glands
3+5=8 Predominantly well-formed glands and

lesser component lacking glands (or with necrosis)

5+3=8 Predominantly lacking glands (or with

necrosis) and lesser component of

well-formed glands

Grade 5 9-10 Lacking gland formation (or with necrosis)

with or without poorly formed/fused/

cribriform glands

 

The presence of Gleason grade 4 or greater histology carries a significantly poorer prognosis (186-187). It has been shown that Gleason score 4+3 tumors behave much worse than Gleason score 3+4 tumors and that there is a biological continuum within Gleason score 7 tumors with the proportion of pattern 4 cancer that is reflected in clinical outcome (188).

 

In the large majority of instances, gray-scale TRUS does not permit differentiation between cancer and non-cancer so TRUS and transperineal biopsies are taken blindly. Consequently, there is a possibility that small tumors may be missed, despite careful spatial positioning of biopsy needles with multiple cores taken. Furthermore, in large glands especially, the anterior part of the prostate may be poorly sampled via the transrectal route so, for these reasons, it is not surprising that the histology from biopsies and radical prostatectomies may differ. In these instances, the Gleason score from the radical prostatectomy specimen is usually higher (upgrading) but downgrading is also observed.

 

Recently, the International Society of Urological Pathology (ISUP) proposed a new Grading system in order to improve prognostication of tumor grade, as well as improve patient education (184,189-191). Although the term “grade groups”has been used for these prognostic categories, it has been shown to be erroneous as they are not groupings of grades but groupings of scores (184,189). Furthermore, these categories were the result of a consensus conference organized by the ISUP for the purpose updating the ISUP modified Gleason scoring system of 2005 and as such, the new ISUP grades are based on the 2005 ISUP modified Gleason scores (Table 7).

 

These grades have been validated in surgical cohorts and show distinct patterns of recurrence free progression (RFP) depending on the highest Grade within the RP and biopsy histology (190-191).

 

PROSTATIC INTRAEPITHELIAL NEOPLASIA [PIN]

 

Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia [PIN] is believed to be a precursor of prostate cancer, given the strong association between high grade PIN and prostatic adenocarcinoma (192-194). The presence of high grade PIN is often indicative of the presence of prostate cancer. It has been shown that more than 80 percent of prostates with adenocarcinoma also contain high-grade PIN (PIN-11 & III). High-grade PIN has cytologic features resembling cancer and carries many of the genetic alterations of prostate cancer. The finding of high-grade PIN alone in a biopsy has been cited as an indication to proceed with repeat biopsies given the high co-frequency between high-grade PIN and carcinoma. However, in current practice, the predictive value of PIN in finding cancer on subsequent biopsies has declined, probably due to the extended biopsy techniques yielding higher rates of initial cancer detection (195). A diagnosis of PIN by itself is certainly insufficient for a patient to undergo either radical prostatectomy or radiotherapy.

 

ATYPICAL PROSTATIC GLANDULAR PROLIFERATIONS

 

Foci of atypical glands, also labeled ‘atypical small acinar proliferation of uncertain significance’, have features suspicious for, but not diagnostic of, cancer. These encompass a variety of lesions including benign mimickers of cancer, HGPIN, and small foci of carcinoma which, for a variety of reasons, cannot be accurately diagnosed. The reported incidence of these lesions on prostate needle biopsies is 1.5% to 5.3% (195). Patients with atypical glands on needle biopsy have a high risk of harboring cancer. The reported incidence of prostate cancer from repeat biopsies has ranged from 34 to 60% (196). Following an atypical diagnosis, biopsies need to be repeated (197).

 

TNM STAGING SYSTEM

 

Once a diagnosis of prostate cancer is made, it must be determined whether the patient is a candidate for potentially curative treatment (surgery or radiation). This depends upon several factors, including general health and projected longevity in conjunction with the likelihood that the cancer is still localized within the prostate and has not yet metastasized. The most important factor, however, is the patient’s decision after he has considered the ‘pros and cons’ of the various choices as they relate to him (see below).

 

Currently, the TNM system is used for staging (Table 8), and prostate cancers can be assigned both a clinical stageand, subsequently should the prostate be removed surgically, a pathologic stage. This differentiation is important with the clinical and pathological stage designated by the letters ‘c’ and ‘p’, respectively, preceding the stage denotation (e.g. cT2a = clinically, tumor is palpably involving one lobe of the prostate or less).

 

Table 8: TNM Staging Classifications [per American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) 8th Edition 2016)(198)

Primary Tumor
     Tx

T0

Primary tumor cannot be assessed

No evidence of primary tumor

     T1 Clinically inapparent tumor not palpable not visible by imaging
     T1a Incidental tumor in < 5% of TUR tissue
     T1b Incidental tumor in > 5% of TUR tissue
     T1c Needle biopsy prompted by elevated PSA
     T2 Organ confined
     T3 Tumor extends beyond the prostatic capsule
     T3a Extracapsular, unilateral and bilateral or microscopic invasion of bladder neck
     T3b Tumor invades seminal vesicles (s)
     T4 Tumor invades external sphincter, rectum, pelvic side wall
Lymph Nodes
     Nx

N0

Regional nodes were not assessed

No regional (below level of bifurcation of common iliac arteries) nodes

     N1 Regional node metastases – including pelvic, hypogastric, obturator, iliac, sacral
Distant Metastases
    Mx

M0

Regional nodes not assessed

No Metastases

    M1

M1a

M1b

M1c

No distant

Non-regional lymph nodes (outside true pelvis)

Bone(s)

Other site(s) with or without bone disease

 

POTENTIAL BENEFITS & HARMS FROM PSA TESTING

 

One of the most contentious topics in medicine is whether or not to test for prostate cancer. The key question that needs to be answered is whether a diagnosis of prostate cancer is going to benefit the patient with the qualification that the diagnostic process and treatment should not be worse than the unwanted effects of the disease. Determining who will benefit from testing is very difficult as it is impossible to know exactly how long an individual patient will live and generally both patients and clinicians tend to be optimistic in their estimations.

 

Early Diagnosis and Treatment With Curative Intent And Prevention Of Subsequent Death From Prostate Cancer

 

In addition to attributing a slow but continuing reduction in prostate cancer mortality in many Western countries to, at least in part, widespread PSA testing, most of the evidence proffered in support is from low-level cohort studies, many of which have been retrospective. One notable, largestudy undertaken prospectively has been in the Tyrol. Unlike in the rest of Austria, PSA testing has been freely available in Tyrol since 1993 for men 45-75 years with 86.6% of eligible men having been tested at least once since its inception (199). Compared with the rest of the country, there has been a decreasing trend in prostate cancer mortality which, in 2005, was significantly greater in the Tyrol compared with the rest of Austria (P = 0.001). Prostate cancer deaths were 54% lower than expected in this region compared with the rest of Austria, with a significant migration to lower stage disease. These better results in Tyrol have been attributed to early detection, consequent down-staging and effective treatment.

 

However, the evidence for and against PSA screening is usually based on the findings from 6 mass or whole of population screening trials and meta-analyses of their findings. These studies were the Prostate Lung, Colorectal and Ovarian (PLCO) Screening Trial (200-201), the European Randomized Study of Screening for Prostate Cancer (ERSPC)(48)  (202), Göteborg (203), Norrköping (204), Stockholm (205)and Quebec trials (206).

 

The studies were very different in design and in adherence to protocols. For example, men were invited only once in Stockholm Study and a minority of those with screen-detected prostate cancer were treated with curative intent (205).  The participation rate was only 24% in the Quebec study (206). The Norrkoping Study commenced in 1987 with DRE as the only screening test performed up to the third (1993) and the final fourth screening time (1996) when PSA was included. Fewer than 500 men had two PSA measurements & none had more than two. Furthermore, final results were adjusted for the large difference in age at randomization between the study groups (204).

 

Thus, in terms of trials with reasonable rigor, there are only 3 viz. the ERSPC, the Göteborg (which is also included as part of the larger ERSPC study) and the PLCO trial (Table 9). In the PLCO trial only 85% in the screening arm had a PSA test. In addition, more than 80% in the control arm reported having a PSA test, significantly contaminating this arm (200,207). Furthermore, the follow-up for these trials varied greatly with only one (Göteborg) having an adequate median follow-up period, detailed below.

 

PLCO:             median 11.5 years,   maximum 13 years (201)

ERSPC:          median 9.8 years,     maximum 11 years (202)

Göteborg:      median 14 years,      maximum 14 years (203)

Norrköping:     median 6.3 years,       maximum 20 years (204)

Stockholm:      median 12.9 years,     maximum 15 years (205)

Quebec:          median 7.9 years,       maximum 13 years (206)

 

Table 7: Comparison of ERSPC, PLCO and Göteborg Trials

ERSPC PLCO Göteborg
Number studied 162 243 76,693 20,000
Recruitment sites 8 countries 10 US centers one
Age 50-69 55-74 50-64
PSA screening interval 4 yearly yearly x6 DRE x4 2 yearly
Biopsy trigger 3.0 ng/ml >4 ng/ml 3.4, 2.9, 2.5 ng/ml
Contamination rate

(PSA testing in control group)

15% 52% 3%

 

Since the studies are so different in so many ways, the validity of including them in a meta-analysis has been questioned (208). Given the long natural history of prostate cancer in comparison with those of other malignancies and the prevalence of the diseasewith increasing age, few would advocate screening each and every member of a population (209-211)i.e. mass population screening as reported in these trials

 

SUMMARY OF MORTALITY FINDINGS FROM THE THREE MOST RELEVANT STUDIES

 

  • None of these trials had adequate statistical power to detect an overall survival benefit with PSA screening
  • Deaths from conditions other than prostate cancer dominated causes of death undermining ability to show an advantage for PSA screening

 

  • PLCO- At a median follow-up of 11.5 years, of 76 685 men randomized (38,340 in the intervention arm and 38,345 in the control arm) (201). Approximately 92% of the study participants were followed for 10 years and 57% for 13 years.

-   deaths from all causes other than prostate, lung, and colorectal cancers were 5783/38,340 (15%) in the intervention arm: 5982/38 345 (15.6%) in the control arm

-   of those who died, 158/5783 (2.7%) & 145/5982 (2.4%) in the control arm, died from prostate cancer, respectively

-   cumulative mortality rates from prostate cancer in the intervention and control arms were 3.7 and 3.4 deaths per 10 000 person-years

 

  • ERSPC- At a median follow-up of 11 years, 31,318 of 162,388 (19.3%) of men between 55 & 69 yr. who underwent randomization had died [154] (202)

-   13,917/72,891 (19%) in screening group: 17,256/89,352 (19%) in control group

-   of those who died, 299/13,917 (0.4%) & 462/17,256 (0.5%) died from prostate cancer, respectively

-   the absolute reduction in mortality in the screening group was 0.10 deaths per 1000 person-years or 1.07 deaths per 1000 men who underwent randomization.

-   to prevent one death from prostate cancer at 13 years of follow-up, 781 men would need to be invited for screening and 27 cancers would need to be detected (212)

 

  • Göteborg- At a median follow-up of 14 years, 3,963 of 20,000 (19.8%) of men between 50 & 64 who underwent randomization had died (203)

-   1981/10,000 (19.8%) in the screening group and 1982/10,000 (19.8%) in the control group died

-    of those who died, 44/1981 (2.2%) & 78/1982 (3.9%) died from prostate cancer, respectively

  • overall the relative risk reduction in mortality was 44% for men randomized to screening compared with controls at 14 years.
  • Overall, 293 men needed to be invited for screening and 12 to be diagnosed to prevent one prostate cancer death

 

Overall, the benefits of early detection of prostate cancer increase with time.

 

Findings are based exclusively on systematic reviews (meta-analyses) of 6 randomized controlled [RCTs] PSA screening trials with 8 systematic appraisals of these RCTs but

 

  • RCTs are not the only form of evidence: absence of RCT evidence does not equal evidence of absence

 

  • These were mass population screening trials – no patient selection - as opposed to opportunistic & selective screening (which most people advocate)

 

Recently the ERSPC and PLCO data were analyzed considering implementation and practice settings between the trials, which estimated a similar effect between the trials and that screening conferred a 7-9% reduction in prostate cancer specific mortality per year and 26-31% lower risk of prostate cancer death with screening (213). This analysis has been reported to conclude that PSA screening reduced prostate cancer mortality; however the optimal screening strategy is yet to be determined or implemented to maximize benefit and reduce risk (214).  One recently proposed strategy (as discussed above) has been based on a PSA level at age 60, suggesting that men with PSA <1 ng/mL at age 60 require no further screening, while men with PSA levels ≥2 ng/mL can expect a large reduction in cancer mortality, resulting in an estimated 23 men needing to be screened and six diagnosed to avoid one prostate cancer death by 15 years (215).

 

Survival Estimation

 

There are several approaches that can be used to improve a rough clinical estimation of a patient’s life-expectancy. Validated instruments are available such as a modified form of the Total Illness Burden Index for prostate cancer by Litwin (216)and the Charlson Comorbidity Index, which seems to be most useful in men<65 years undertaking initial treatment, in particular radical prostatectomy (217-218). Although these are not used commonly in clinical practice, they do provide one option. Froehner et al (2013) recently examined available comorbidityassessments to determine which may best assist in the treatment choice for elderly men with prostate cancer. A total of 1,106 men aged 65 years or older who underwent radical prostatectomy for clinically localized prostate cancer was examined with overall survival as the study endpoint. They concluded that the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) physical status classification tool, supplemented by a list of more clearly defined concomitant diseases, could be useful in clinical practice and outcome studies (219).

Another approach is to refer to Life Expectancy Tables (such as the Table 10 below modified from the Australian Bureau of Statistics website 2017). Such tables do not take into account an individual’s comorbidities.

 

Table 10: Life Expectancy Table for Australia

Age 2000-2002 2004-2006 2010-2012 2014-2016 Age 2000-2002 2004-2006 2010-2012 2014-2016
35 44.08 45.17 46.1 46.6 68 15.14 15.97 16.8 17.2
36 43.14 44.22 45.2 45.6 69 14.42 15.23 16.0 16.5
37 42.20 43.27 44.2 44.7 70 13.72 14.51 15.3 15.7
38 41.25 42.32 43.3 43.7 71 13.04 13.80 14.5 14.9
39 40.31 41.37 42.3 42.8 72 12.38 13.10 13.8 14.2
40 39.37 40.43 41.4 41.8 73 11.74 12.42 13.1 13.5
41 38.43 39.49 40.4 40.9 74 11.11 11.76 12.4 12.8
42 37.49 38.55 39.5 39.9 75 10.51 11.12 11.7 12.1
43 36.56 37.61 38.6 39.0 76 9.92 10.50 11.0 11.4
44 35.63 36.68 37.6 38.1 77 9.36 9.90 10.4 10.7
45 34.70 35.74 36.7 37.1 78 8.82 9.32 9.8 10.1
46 33.78 34.82 35.8 36.2 79 8.29 8.76 9.2 9.5
47 32.86 33.89 34.8 35.3 80 7.79 8.22 8.6 8.9
48 31.94 32.98 33.9 34.4 81 7.31 7.70 8.0 8.3
49 31.02 32.06 33.0 33.5 82 6.84 7.21 7.5 7.7
50 30.11 31.15 32.1 32.5 83 6.40 6.75 7.0 7.2
51 29.21 30.24 31.2 31.6 84 5.98 6.31 6.5 6.7
52 28.30 29.34 30.3 30.7 85 5.59 5.90 6.1 6.2
53 27.41 28.45 29.4 29.8 86 5.23 5.50 5.7 5.8
54 26.52 27.55 28.5 29.0 87 4.90 5.12 5.3 5.4
55 25.64 26.67 27.6 28.1 88 4.61 4.77 4.9 5.0
56 24.76 25.79 26.7 27.2 89 4.34 4.45 4.6 4.6
57 23.90 24.92 25.9 26.3 90 4.10 4.17 4.3 4.3
58 23.05 24.05 25.0 25.5 91 3.89 3.92 4.0 4.0
59 22.20 23.20 24.1 24.6 92 3.69 3.71 3.8 3.7
60 21.37 22.35 23.3 23.8 93 3.51 3.53 3.5 3.5
61 20.55 21.51 22.4 22.9 94 3.34 3.37 3.3 3.2
62 19.73 20.69 21.6 22.1 95 3.18 3.24 3.1 3.0
63 18.94 19.87 20.8 21.3 96 3.03 3.13 2.9 2.8
64 18.15 19.07 20.0 20.4 97 2.89 3.04 2.7 2.6
65 17.37 18.27 19.1 19.6 98 2.76 2.94 2.6 2.5
66 16.61 17.50 18.3 18.8 99 2.65 2.84 2.4 2.3
67 15.87 16.73 17.6 18.0

 

In terms of likelihood of dying from cardiovascular disease, whether or not a man has started to have erectile dysfunction may serve as a surrogate indicator. One recent large study indicated that the median time to death from a cardiovascular cause from the onset of erectile dysfunction (ED) was 10 years (220)since the reason for ED in the majority of cases is impaired arterial flow (221).

 

Factors To Consider When Deciding To Test For Prostate Cancer

 

  • In the Scandinavian randomized trial of Radical Prostatectomy & watchful waiting. At a median follow-up of 13.4 years, 63 in the surgery group and 99 in the watchful-waiting group died from prostate cancer; the relative risk was 0.56 (95% confidence interval [CI], 0.41 to 0.77; P=0.001). The number needed to treat to prevent one death due to prostate cancer was 8 (222)

 

  • The benefit of surgery with respect to death from prostate cancer was largest in men younger than 65 years of age (relative risk, 0.45) and in those with intermediate-risk prostate cancer (222)

 

  • At a median of 12.8 years of follow-up in an earlier report on this trial, men with more than 2 significant co-morbidities did not benefit from PSA testing (223)

 

  • In a follow up analysis of the PLCO study, there was a striking mortality benefit in men with minimal or no co-morbidities a 44% drop in prostate cancer-specific mortality and a number needed to treat of only 5. However, for men with at least one significant co-morbidity, there was no significant difference in prostate cancer mortality (224)

 

But what constitutes a significant comorbidity? “a condition or complaint either coexisting with the principal diagnosis or arising during the episode of care or attendance at a health care facility” (225).  How do you assess it?

 

  • Crawford et al chose an expanded definition that included both ‘standard’ Charlson comorbidity index conditions and hypertension (even if well controlled), diverticulosis, gallbladder disease and obesity (224)

 

  • But when the analysis was repeated using only validated measures of comorbidity (Charlson comorbidity index conditions only), there was no interaction (226)

 

  • A simple patient-reported index, a modified form of the Total Illness Burden Index modified for prostate cancer (216)vs Charlson Comorbidity Index (217-218)

 

  • The American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) physical status classificationhas been recommended to serve as a basis of assessing suitability for radical prostatectomy in men >65 years (219)

 

  • Onset of erectile dysfunctionmay serve as an indicator of limited life expectancy due to cardiovascular death (220-221)

 

  • Morbidity of (frequently repeated) TRUS & T/P biopsies TRUS biopsy infections in 4.5%: 48% had rectal swabs showing Ciprofloxacin resistant bacteria (165,167,169)

 

  • High over-diagnosis rate: active surveillance, where men diagnosed with low risk prostate cancer may be monitored with serial PSA and biopsies to delay or avoid treatment, may decrease the concern of over detection and over treatment

 

  • Psychosocial aspects pervade all aspects of detection & treatment.

 

Recent studies have reported psychological distress levels severe enough to meet defined criteria close to the time of diagnosis from 10% to 23% (227).  Bill-Axelson and colleagues in an eight year longitudinal study reported that although extreme distress was not common in men with localized prostate cancer, 30–40% of men reported ongoing health-related distress and worry about their health, feeling low, and sleep disturbance (228). Risk of suicide may be increased in the first six to twelve months after the diagnosis of prostate cancer (229-230).  Screening for distress and referral to appropriate support services is widely accepted and recommended in men diagnosed with prostate cancer (231-232). In addition to distress, contemporary evidence suggests socio-demographic and psychosocial variables to be highly influential on intervention effects (232). Decisional conflicts impact upon continuation of Active Surveillance (233-234). When making decisions about treatment for prostate cancer men tend to rely on lay beliefs about cancer with the opinion of the clinician highly influential (233). A systematic review of psychosocial interventions for men with prostate cancer and their partners found that group cognitive-behavioral and psychoeducational interventions were helpful in promoting better psychological adjustment and quality of life (QOL) for men with prostate cancer (235). Multi-modal psychosexual and psychosocial interventions for men diagnosed with prostate cancer are recommended(232).

 

  • Reassurance: PSA level <1ng/ml at the age of 65 years (50)or <3 ng/ml at the age of 75 years have a very low chance of contracting fatal cancer (160)

 

 

EARLY DIAGNOSIS AND TREATMENT WITH CURATIVE INTENET AND LESSENING THE LIKELIHOOD OF METASTASES OCCURRING

 

The recently completed PSA Evaluation Report by the National Health and Medical Research Council (NHMRC) of Australia concluded that, although there was some inconsistency in the definition of prostate cancer metastases across the RCTs, overall, the evidence indicates that PSA testing reduces the risk of having metastases present at the time of diagnosis of prostate cancer. The NHMRC review focused on the RCTs above in its considerations but did not conclude that intervention with curative intent reduces the likelihood of subsequent metastases [163].  However, evaluation of evidence from multiple non-RCTs has reported that PSA testing and intervention with curative intent does reduce the likelihood of subsequent metastases.

 

There are very few RCTs for prostate cancer treated with curative intent. Bill Axelson et al (2014) (222)recruited patients from 14 centers in Sweden, Finland and Iceland: The trial is noteworthy since the study included patients detected with prostate cancer at a later stage than is currently diagnosed: only 12% had impalpable disease on DRE - detected by what are now outmoded methods. The results are summarized below:

 

Swedish Trial Of Radical Prostatectomy Versus Watchful Waiting (222,236)

 

  • From October 1989 through February 1999, 695 men with ‘early’ prostate cancer were randomly assigned to watchful waiting, where men are “watched” and treated only when symptomatic or with significant concern for complications, or radical prostatectomy
  • Eligibility required patients to be
  • <75 yrs. of age and a life expectancy >10 years: mean age was 65 yrs.
  • Clinically localized disease (T1 or T2, using IUCC 1978 criteria)
  • Diagnosis by core biopsy or fine needle aspiration cytology
  • Well or moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma (WHO classification)
  • PSA <50 ng/ml: mean PSA was 13 ng/ml
  • a negative bone scan
  • During a median of 13.4 years, 200 of the 347 men in the radical prostatectomy group and 247 of the 348 in the watchful-waiting group died (222). In the case of 63 men assigned to surgery and 99 men assigned to watchful waiting, death was due to prostate cancer (P = 0.001)
  • The survival benefit was largest in men younger than 65 years of age and those with intermediate-risk prostate cancer
  • The number needed to treat to avert one death at 18 years of follow-up was 8 (P=0.001) and 4 for men younger than 65 years of age (222)
  • Among men who underwent radical prostatectomy, those with extracapsular tumor growth had a risk of death from prostate cancer that was 7 times that of men without extracapsular tumor growth (236)
  • Distant metastases were diagnosed in 89 men in the radical prostatectomy group and 138 in the watchful waiting cohort resulting in a relative risk of metastases in the RP group of 0.57 (P <0.001) (222)

 

However, by contrast, in the Prostate Cancer Intervention versus Observation Trial (PIVOT) of radicalprostatectomy versus observation for localized prostate cancer found differently (237). Between November 1994 and January 2002, 731 men with localized prostate cancer (mean age, 67 years; median PSA value, 7.8 ng per milliliter) were randomly assigned to radical prostatectomy or observation and followed to January 2010. The primary outcome was all-cause mortality; the secondary outcome was prostate-cancer mortality

 

During the median follow-up of 10.0 years, 171 of 364 men (47.0%) assigned to radical prostatectomy died, compared with 183 of 367 (49.9%) assigned to observation (P=0.22). Among men assigned to radical prostatectomy, 21 (5.8%) died from prostate cancer or treatment, compared with 31 men (8.4%) assigned to observation (P=0.09). The effect of treatment on all-cause and prostate-cancer mortality did not differ according to age, race, coexisting conditions, self-reported performance status, or histological features of the tumor. Radical prostatectomy was associated with reduced all-cause mortality among men with a PSA value greater than 10 ng per milliliter (P=0.04 for interaction) and possibly among those with intermediate-risk or high-risk tumors (P=0.07 for interaction). Adverse events within 30 days after surgery occurred in 21.4% of men, including one death. In 2017, Wilt et al updated the results reporting that after nearly 20 years of follow-up among men with localized prostate cancer: surgery, was not associated with significantly lower all-cause or prostate-cancer mortality than observation.

 

However, there were serious deficiencies with the PIVOT study (238). Although the three Endpoints Committee members were blinded to randomized treatment assignments, reviewed medical records and death certificates when available to assign a cause of death using a primary and a secondary adjudication question, initial disagreements were resolved through discussion. Complete agreement on cause of death by all three committee members before any discussion was achieved in 200/354 (56%) cases on the primary and 209/354 (59%) cases on the secondary. Complete agreement on the primary cause rose to 306/354 (86%) when ‘definite’ and ‘probably’ categories were collapsed, as planned a priori. There was no separate ‘gold standard’ by which to judge the accuracy of the final endpoints committee adjudications, and useful death certificates could not be obtained on about a third of PIVOT participants who died.

 

U.S. PIVOT – Radical Prostatectomy Versus Observation (237)

 

  • Recruitment difficulties and patient compliance issues affected numbers so that only 731 of the proposed 2000 men could be recruited to the trial and hence this study is considered to be underpowered to detect a difference in overall survival (239)
  • Serious lack of agreement on cause of death by Endpoint Committee Members: Useful death certificates could not be obtained for approximately one third of participants
  • Differences between histological reporting at participating sites and by a central pathologist affected risk stratification and, consequently, secondary endpoint results
  • A less predictive pre-2005 ISUP Consensus Gleason classification was used with ~25% of patients with Gleason scores of 7 or higher reported at the peripheral sites compared with 48% with Gleason scores 7 or higher by a central pathologist

 

Consequently, the answer based on RCT evidence remains uncertain.

 

 

Early Diagnosis And Treatment With Curative Intent: Avoiding The Late Clinical Problems Resulting From A Large Pelvic Tumor

 

There is a paucity of high level evidence that early diagnosis of prostate cancer will prevent or minimize the problems resulting from a large pelvic tumor. Anecdotally, managing patients with disabling symptoms from advanced local prostate cancer constituted a considerable part of a urologist’s workload. Frequent visits to hospital for interventions together with burden of clinical symptoms such as unremitting day and night frequency, incontinence and bleeding, impact significantly on the dignity and quality of life of these men (240).

Figure 17: CT of pelvis showing prostatic tumor extending into the (thick-walled) bladder and spread to involve pelvic lymph nodes: the patient had multiple lower urinary tract symptoms

WHETHER TO TEST FOR PROSTATE CANCER

 

Prostate cancer is the most common male visceral malignancy in the developed world and the second most common cause of cancer deaths, uncertainties remain about management practices at several points in the illness continuum. For example, owing to controversies regarding the outcomes of screening trials for prostate cancer reducing the death rate from this disease, population-based screening for prostate cancer in asymptomatic men is not currently recommended in most countries (241).  Rather, it is suggested that men should be able to access PSA testing as long as they are fully informed of the pros and cons of testing.

The Prostate Cancer Foundation of Australia (PCFA), in partnership with National Health and Medical Research Council (NHMRC) and Cancer Council Australia, published a “PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer in Asymptomatic Men” guideline in 2016, which was commissioned by the Department of Health and comprised a multi-disciplinary expert advisory panel. The guidelines have been endorsed by the Urological Society of Australia and New Zealand (USANZ) and the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners (RACGP). The recommendations are as follows:

 

  • A population screening program for prostate cancer (a program that offers testing to all men of a certain age group) is not recommended
  • Men should be offered evidence-based decision support, including the opportunity to discuss the benefits and harms of PSA testing before making the decision to be tested
  • Men at average risk of prostate cancer who decide to be tested should be offered PSA testing every 2 years from age 50 to 69
  • The harms of PSA testing may outweigh the benefits for men aged 70 and older or those with a life expectancy less than 7 years.
  • Men with a family history of prostate cancer who decide to be tested should be offered PSA testing every 2 years from age 40/ 45 to 69 with the starting age depending on the strength of their family history
  • Digital rectal examination is not recommended in addition to PSA testing in the primary care setting

 

The full guideline can be accessed at www.pcfa.org.au/psa-testing-guidelinesor https://wiki.cancer.org.au/australia/Guidelines:PSA_Testing

 

The approach that is considered to be optimal for achieving high quality patient decisions is shared decision making (242).

 

Shared decision makingis defined as a process carried out between a patient and his health care professional where both parties share information and the patient understands the risks and benefits of each treatment option, participates in the decision to the extent that he desires and makes a decision consistent with his preferences and values, or defers the decision to another time(243).

 

Shared decision making may not be easy to achieve for all patients (243).  For example, although many patients with cancer indicate a preference for sharing decision making with their clinicians, some, in the case of prostate cancer between 8% to 58% of men, prefer a passive decision-making role where clinicians make treatment decisions on their behalf   (244-245).  However, clinicians still need to understand patients’ preferences to ensure that they are making quality decisions on behalf of their patients. As well, there is often a gap between the clinical ideal of shared decision making and actual clinical practice where decision complexity and time constraints may make this approach difficult for both parties to achieve (246-247).  There are, however, defined strategies and decision aids that can facilitate this process (248).

 

Supporting Patient Choice About Testing For Prostate Cancer

 

Many groups advocate an informed decision-making process as an evidence-based approach and necessary precursor to screening for early prostate cancer (241,249).  Others have suggested that informed decision-making on this health topic is also necessary as a medico-legal risk management strategy (250-251).  While some researchers have suggested a set of information that needs to be communicated to men about this health decision (252-253), there are few explicit guidelines on this subject (254).  Problematically, patients and clinicians do not agree on core content, including a basic explanation of a PSA test and the psychological effects of a positive PSA test result (255).  It has been advised that, for any screening test, patients need to understand the purpose of the test, the likelihood of false-negatives and false-positives, the uncertainties and risks associated with testing, significant medical, social or financial implications of testing and any possible sequelae and follow up care plans (256)www.ipdas.ohri.ca.

 

Such information needs to be communicated to patients in a logical and balanced sequence in order to promote better understanding and increased decisional control by men.  One approach that has been proposed in primary care in Australia is the use of six decision steps (see Figure 18).  Each decision step logically follows to prompt the clinician to overview important health information, with tailoring suggested in Step 1 to ensure the discussion is consistent with the patient’s concerns.  For example, for a man with a significant family history of prostate cancer, this factor is likely to be central to the patient discussion (257).  Men who experience uncomplicated LUTS often worry about prostate cancer, so addressing this concern first may be priority (258-259).  In this regard, resources for patients that explain about male reproductive health problems such as urinary symptoms and sexual dysfunction are available at www.andrologyaustralia.org. As well, National Health and Medical Research Council guidelines are available about the management of LUTS http://www.health.gov.au/nhmrc/publications/synopses/cp42syn.htm

 

Other overseas websites include:

Figure 18: Six Decision Steps

From this point, checking to ensure the patient has a basic understanding of both the prostate and possible tests is needed and, given many men may be unaware of the location and function of the prostate gland, an anatomical diagram may be a useful teaching tool here.  Next, a consideration of individual risk with regard to both the incidence and mortality of prostate cancer is needed.  Communicating health risks effectively is a challenge in the provision of effective decision support.  In general people find probabilities hard to understand, often estimate their level of risk incorrectly, and tend not to weigh up pros and cons in a systematic way when deciding about treatments (234,260-261).  As well, population-based statistics provide data about populations, not individuals, so risk communication needs to acknowledge this as a limitation and, where possible, refer to age-based risk estimates and relevant individual factors such as family history) (262).

 

There are a number of communication strategies that have been suggested to help patients understand risk.  These include

  • using numbers as well as words to explain risk
  • where possible providing the absolute risk or benefit
  • using frequencies rather than single event probabilities
  • using consistent denominators
  • putting the risk into context by comparing it to other life events
  • offering both the possible negative and positive outcomes to balance the message frame (263-265).

 

However, a quality health decision goes beyond the simple transfer of information and includes consideration and incorporation of each patient’s values and personal preferences (266).  Thus, Step 5 in Box 1 prompts the clinician to discuss each man’s individual preferences. A number of strategies can be used to do this, most commonly the use of a pros and cons exercise in which patients are encouraged to explicitly consider the factors that matter most to them personally in this decision, and the direction and leaning of their preferences either for or against each possible option.  One approach to support this process for this health topic is the inclusion of a values table within a decision card (see Table 11).  A decision aid that incorporates both the six decision steps and this values clarification exercise can be found on the Andrology Australia website at: http://www.prostate.org.au/articleLive/attachments/1/GP%20Show%20Card%20041007.pdf

 

Table 11:  What is most important to you?

FOR: Is this like you? AGAINST: Is this like you?

 

I’m concerned that I might get prostate cancer I think my chance of getting prostate cancer is low
I want the best chance of finding it early, if I do get it I am not convinced about the effectiveness of testing
I’m not interested in waiting for all the proof to be in I am more concerned about avoiding treatment side effects, if there’s no guarantee I’d be reducing my risk of dying from prostate cancer
I want to do everything possible to reduce my risk of dying from prostate cancer

 

Decision aids are also effective in supporting patients to make informed choices.  With regards to PSA testing, patient-focused decision aids and decision counselling or support interventions have been found to be effective in increasing men’s knowledge about PSA testing and decreasing decision-related distress (254,267-270), with a variable effect on actual testing behavior.

 

A range of aids is freely available from the web (www.prostatehealth.org.au; www.cdc.gov/cancer/prostate;www.cancerbacup.org.uk). 

 

Cancer helplines also often provide such information, for example:

  • The Cancer Council Australia Cancer Helpline on 13 11 20;
  • the UK helpline on 0808 800 1234;
  • the USA Cancer Helpline on 1800 227 2345.

 

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Hyponatremia

CLINICAL RECOGNITION

 

Hyponatremia is common, being found in some 15–20% of non-selected emergency admissions to hospitals. It is associated with increased mortality, morbidity and increased duration of hospital stay, independent of the cause of admission. Clinical presentation is diverse, ranging from seizure and coma at one extreme to apparent absence of symptoms. This spectrum reflects a number of influences (Figure 1).

 

- The rate of development of hyponatremia

- The degree of hyponatremia

- The neurophysiologic adaptive capacity of the individual

- The influence of co-morbidities


The management strategy is stratified, based on an overall assessment of the severity of the clinical presentation.

Plasma sodium concentration reflects the balance between sodium and water content, with each component reflecting the balance of intake and output. This approach can be used to develop a framework for classifying hyponatremia by etiology (Table 1).

Intravascular Volume Depletion (Hypovolemia)

 

Intravascular volume depletion leads to non-osmoregulated vasopressin (AVP) production and reduced free water excretion. AVP production can persist despite ensuing hyponatremia. Portal hypertension, congestive cardiac failure and hypoalbuminemia can all reduce effective circulating volume (independent of drug treatment), even in the context of excess total body sodium. Long-term diuretic use is a common cause of hyponatremia. Because it may develop slowly, patients can be relatively asymptomatic. Those on thiazide diuretics are particularly at risk as these agents produce solute loss without limiting renal concentrating ability.

 

Excess Hypotonic Fluid Intake

 

The administration or absorption of hypotonic fluids at a rate that exceeds renal free water excretion will inevitably result in hyponatremia. This can be seen with oral fluid intake (dipsogenic diabetes insipidus), intravenous fluid therapy and the absorption of hypotonic irrigating fluids following surgery to the lower renal tract or colonoscopy.

 

Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuresis (SIAD)

 

In SIAD there is a failure to maximally suppress AVP secretion as plasma osmolality falls below the normal osmotic threshold for AVP release. As patients continue to drink, persistent antidiuresis produces dilutional hyponatremia. Diagnosis of SIAD involves the exclusion of volume depletion and other endocrine causes of reduced free water excretion (Table 2).

 

Table 2. Diagnostic Criteria for SIAD

Hyponatremia
Urine Osmolality >100 mOsm/kg (sub-maximum dilution)
Urine Na+ >20 mmol/L (excluding effective intravascular volume depletion)
Absence of the following:

- hypotension and hypovolemia

- non-osmotic stimuli for AVP release

- oedema

- adrenal failure

- hypothyroidism

 

The majority of patients with SIAD are euvolemic on clinical examination. Urine sodium concentration is often above 80 mmol/l.

 

Many drugs cause SIAD. Drug histories are therefore an important part of the clinical assessment of patients presenting with hyponatremia (Table 3).

 

Table 3. Causes of SIAD

Drugs -  Antidepressants (Tricyclics, SSRIs)

-  Dopamine agonists (Metoclopramide, Prochlorperazine, Antipsychotics)

-  Anticonvulsants (Carbamazepine, Phenytoin, Sodium valproate)

-  Opiates

CNS Disturbances -  Stroke

-  Haemorrhage

-  Infection

-  Trauma

Malignancies -  Small cell lung cancer

-  Pancreatic, duodenal and head/neck cancers

Surgery -  Abdominal, thoracic or pituitary surgery
Pulmonary disease -  Pneumonia

-  Pneumothorax

Idiopathic

 

Central Salt Wasting

 

This acquired primary natriuresis is a very rare cause of hyponatremia with hypovolemia. The underlying mechanism(s) remains unclear but may involve a number of processes.

 

-  Increased release of natriuretic peptides

-  Reduced sympathetic drive

 

Central salt wasting has been described following a variety of neurosurgical situations. Diagnosis hinges on the natural history of the process.

 

-  The development of hyponatremia, preceded by natriuresis and diuresis

-  Clinical and biochemical features of hypovolemia and renal impairment

 

Central salt wasting is a concern for the neurosurgical patient in whom autoregulation of cerebral blood flow is disturbed such that small reductions in circulating volume can reduce cerebral perfusion. The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis (SIAD) can occur in the same group of patients. As management of the two conditions is diametrically opposed, it is important to make the correct diagnosis. Recent data suggest that salt wasting is indeed a very rare cause of hyponatremia in the neurosurgical patient.

 

Nephrogenic SIAD

 

The action of AVP on renal water excretion is mediated by the G-protein-coupled type 2 AVP-receptor (V2-R). Loss-of-function mutations of the V2-R are the cause of X-linked nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. The reciprocal phenotype, mutations in the V2-R that are constitutively activating, lead to AVP-independent but V2-R-mediated antidiuresis with persistent hyponatremia.  Patients may present in infancy or may remain undetected until adulthood.

 

DIAGNOSIS AND DIFFERENTIAL

 

History and examination are key to the clinical approach. They provide insights into the etiology, rate of development, clinical impact, and contributing co-morbidities: all factors important in a patient-focused approach to management (Table 4).

 

Table 4. Focus of History & Examination in the Patient with Hyponatremia

History -  Fluid loss (e.g. vomiting, diarrhoea)

-  Causes of SIAD

-  Symptoms of endocrine dysfunction suggestive of hypoadrenalism or hypopituitarism

-  Medication/drug use

Examination -  Signs of extracellular volume depletion

-  Orthostatic or persistent hypotension.

-  Signs of peripheral oedema, or ascites, heart failure, cirrhosis, or renal failure

 

Laboratory tests provide important information in the differential diagnosis of hyponatremia.

 

Serum Osmolality

 

The serum osmolality (which normally ranges from 275 to 290 mOsmol/kg) is primarily determined by the concentration of serum sodium (and accompanying anions). It is reduced in most cases of hyponatremia (hypotonic hyponatremia). In some instances, hyponatremia is not associated with dilute plasma. This is termed non-hypotonic hyponatremia (Table 5).

 

Urine Osmolality

 

The normal response to hyponatremia is to suppress AVP secretion, resulting in the excretion of maximally dilute urine with an osmolality below 100 mOsmol/kg. Values above this level indicate an inability to normally excrete free water, indicating secretion and action of AVP.

 

Urine Sodium Concentration

 

The urine sodium concentration can be used to distinguish between hyponatremia caused by effective arterial volume depletion (such as in true hypovolemia, heart failure, and cirrhosis) and that caused by euvolemic/hypervolemic hyponatremia (most often due to SIAD).

The combination of urine osmolality and urine Na+ concentration can be used to form a utilitarian algorithm for the investigation and differential diagnosis of hyponatremia (Figure 2).

TREATMENT

 

While hyponatremia can be life threatening, chronic hyponatremia can be tolerated very well even when profound. This diversity poses a management challenge: clinicians must balance the efficacy of any intervention with that of the potential adverse impact of both the intervention and persisting hyponatremia. Over-rapid correction of hyponatremia can trigger central nervous system osmotic demyelination. If urgent intervention is required, the aim of management should not be to normalise plasma sodium. Rather, it should be achieving a plasma sodium level that reverses or reduces morbidity while minimising the risk of osmotic demyelination. This requires a stratified approach based on clinical presentation: balancing a number of clinical drivers to optimise outcome (Figure 3).

General and Supportive Measures

 

The appropriate clinical environment for the management of hyponatremia is the one that matches the clinical needs of the patient. Management of hyponatremia in a patient with significant neurological morbidity, in whom plasma sodium is being raised over hours, requires close clinical and biochemical observation. This is best achieved in a high-dependency setting. Cerebral oedema and coma associated with hyponatremia may need supportive management with assisted ventilation.

 

Patients with Significant Coma or Seizures

 

Treatment with hypertonic sodium chloride increases plasma sodium concentration both directly and through the ensuing sodium load that increases renal sodium loss with a parallel, obligate renal water loss. 100-150ml boluses of 3% sodium chloride can be used to increase plasma sodium by some 2–4 mmol/L over the initial 2–4 hours reducing intra-cerebral pressure in the acute setting. Thereafter, the increase in plasma sodium should be limited to 10 mmol/L in the first 24 hours. Given the risk of over-correction, a pragmatic strategy is to aim for a rise of 6-8 mmol/L in first 24 hours.  After the first 24 hours, the rate of rise of sodium should be limited to no more than 8 mmol/L per day.

 

Avoidance of over-correction is critical. If over-correction does occur, it is important to seek expert advice and consider actively controlling the rate of rise of plasma sodium with hypotonic fluid. Hypertonic fluid should be stopped when the defined clinical target (such as cessation of seizures) or a sodium concentration of 130 mmol/L is reached, whichever is first. If hypertonic sodium chloride cannot be given safely, it should not be given.

 

Patients with Mild or Less Severe Symptoms and Signs

 

The clinician has time to make a diagnosis, identify and address contributing factors if possible, and introduce a cause-dependent intervention.  Importantly, the limits on rate of rise of sodium remain the same as for the patient with critical signs and symptoms. The majority of patients will have circulating volume depletion or SIAD. Where these are due to drug treatments, the removal of the causal agent may be sufficient to normalise sodium. There will be some cases where the causal agent cannot be removed or where there is an alternative diagnosis.  Plasma sodium may rise faster than expected due to ‘auto correction’ of hyponatremia when an underlying cause has simply been removed e.g. correction of glucocorticoid insufficiency or withdrawal of excess desmopressin. Osmotic demyelination can still occur in these circumstances and so care must be taken to control the rise of plasma sodium such that the rate remains within target.

 

Fluid Challenge in Hypovolemic Hyponatremia

 

Mild to moderate hypovolemia can be difficult to diagnose clinically and low urine sodium excretion (<20 or 30 mmol/L) may be unreliable as a diagnostic test in the face of diuretic use or renin-angiotensin system blockade. If volume depletion is suspected, a moderate intravenous fluid challenge with 0.5–1 L N-saline over 2–4 hours may be both diagnostic and therapeutic.

 

Fluid Restriction in SIAD

 

Fluid restriction of 0.5–1 L/day is a reasonable initial intervention when excess plasma water is suspected and when the clinical condition is not critical. In patients with primary polydipsia, reduction in fluid intake remains the most reasonable approach. All fluids need to be included in the restriction. As SIAD is associated with negative sodium balance, sodium intake needs to be maintained. Several days of restriction may be required before sodium levels rise and a negative fluid balance needs to be confirmed through appropriate monitoring.


Management of Persistent Hyponatremia

 

Hyponatremia may persist or recur after initial intervention. It is important that the differential diagnosis is reviewed and the basis for intervention reconsidered.

-  In SIAD, fluid restriction may be only partly effective or may prove non-sustainable

-  Chronic liver or cardiac dysfunction may persist

-  Drug therapy exacerbating hyponatremia may need to continue

 

Clinical decisions on further management have to balance the merits of incremental intervention with those of tolerating mild, persisting hyponatremia.  Treatment aimed at simply raising plasma sodium in the absence of signs or symptoms may be of limited benefit and it is important to consider the clinical ‘trade-offs’ that may be required.

 

Demeclocycline

 

Demeclocycline has been used in SIAD. It produces a form of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus and so increases renal water loss, even in the presence of high concentrations of AVP. Treatment is 600–1,200 mg/day in divided doses. There is a lag time of some 3–4 days in onset of action. Dose adjustment needs to take this into account. Photosensitive skin reactions and renal impairment are significant adverse effects and limit clinical utility.

 

Vasopressin Receptor Antagonists

 

Vasopressin receptor antagonists (Vaptans) are a rational approach to the management of SIAD. They are classified as either selective (V2-R specific) or non-selective (V2- and V1a antagonism). Both increase renal water excretion without a significant impact on renal electrolyte loss (aquaretic action).  To avoid precipitating a rapid rise in plasma Na+, fluid restriction should be relaxed if these drugs are introduced. They should not be used in profound hyponatremia or in patients with severe symptoms. Their role in the management of SIAD in the majority of patients remains unclear.

 

GUIDELINES

 

  1. Spasovski G, Vanholder R, Allolio B et al. Clinical practice guideline on diagnosis and treatment of hyponatremia. European Journal of Endocrinology 2014; 170: G1–G47
  2. Verbalis JG, Goldsmith SR, Greenberg A, Korzelius C, Schrier RW, Sterns RH, Thompson CJ. Diagnosis, evaluation and treatment of hyponatremia: expert panel recommendations. The American Journal of Medicine 2014;126: S1-S42  

 

REFERENCES

 

  1. Hannon MJ, Behan LA, Brien MMC, Tormey W, Ball S, Javadpour M, Sherlock M, Thompson CJ. Hyponatremia following mild/moderate subarachnoid haemorrhage is due to SIAD and glucocorticoid deficiency and not cerebral salt wasting. Journal of Clinical Endocrinology and Metabolism 2014; 99: 291-298
  2. Ward FL, Tobe SW, Naimark DMJ. The Role of Desmopressin in the Management of Severe, Hypovolemic Hyponatremia: A Single-Center, Comparative Analysis. Canadian Journal of Kidney Health and Disease 2018; 5: 1–8
  3. Ball SG. The Neurohypophysis: Endocrinology of Vasopressin and Oxytocin. In: De Groot LJ, Chrousos G, Dungan K, Feingold KR, Grossman A, Hershman JM, Koch C, Korbonits M, McLachlan R, New M, Purnell J, Rebar R, Singer F, Vinik A, editors. Endotext [Internet]. South Dartmouth (MA): MDText.com, Inc.; 2000-2017 Apr 22. PMID: 25905380

Benign Breast Disease in Women

ABSTRACT

Benign breast disease in women is a very common finding and results in a diagnosis in approximately one million women annually in the United States (1). An understanding of the hormonal and growth factor control of breast development and function is key to the rational and systematic evaluation and treatment of patients. A firm understanding of benign breast disease is important since sequential steps are necessary to distinguish lesions which impart a high risk of subsequent breast cancer from those which do not. This chapter will review the physiology of breast function, provide histologic examples of common lesions, and detail practical approaches to evaluation and treatment.  For complete coverage of all related areas of Endocrinology, please see our online FREE web-book, www.endotext.org.

 

BREAST PHYSIOLOGY IN WOMEN:

Hormones and growth factors act upon stromal and epithelial cells to regulate mammary gland development, maturation and differentiation (2). Broadly summarized, estrogen mediates development of ductal tissue; progesterone facilitates ductal branching and lobulo-alveolar development; and prolactin regulates milk protein production. At puberty, estradiol and progesterone levels increase to initiate breast development. A complex tree-like structure results and comprises 5 to 10 primary milk ducts originating at the nipple, 20 to 40 segmental ducts, and 10 to 100 sub-segmental ducts ending in glandular units called terminal duct lobular units (TDLUs) (3). During the menstrual cycle the increments in estrogen and progesterone stimulate cell proliferation during the luteal phase (Figure1). Cycle dependent apoptosis balances proliferation (4). In response to enhanced proliferation, the breast can increase by as much as 15% in size during the luteal phase.

Anatomic and histologic structures of the breast undergo substantial change during the period from early adolescence to menopause (5). The normal histologic appearance represents a spectrum ranging from a predominance of ducts, lobules, and intra- and inter-lobular stroma to patterns with a predominance of fibrous change and cyst formation, a process formerly called fibrocystic disease (Figure 2). The term “fibrocystic changes” is now preferred since up to 50 to 60 percent of normal women may have this pattern histologically (6). This new term implies that women with lumpy breasts or non-discrete nodules do not have breast disease. Importantly, fibrocystic changes detected clinically incur no increased risk of breast cancer.

 

Specific changes in the breast, relating to stromal, ductal and glandular tissue occur as a function of age. During the early reproductive years, stromal hyperplasia may occur and produces juvenile breast hypertrophy (7) or rarely, the more significant problems of unilateral or bilateral macromastia (enlargement of breast tissue beyond what is considered normal) (8). Changes in glandular and ductal tissue occur uncommonly. In the middle reproductive years, glandular breast tissue continues to undergo changes in response to cyclic increments in plasma levels of estradiol and progesterone and, if substantial, is called adenosis. Ductal changes remain uncommon while stromal hyperplasia may occur resulting in areas of ill-defined fullness (“lumpy-bumpy” consistency) on physical exam or in firm areas requiring biopsy.

 

 

Figure 1. Influence of the cycle phase on breast total labeling index (TLI) of women less than 34 years of age according to whether cycles were natural or regulated by oral contraceptives (OC). (Reprinted with permission from Going JJ, Anderson TJ, Battersby et al. Proliferative and secretory activity in human breast during natural and artificial menstrual cycles (Am. J Pathol. 130:193-204, 1988).Figure 1. Influence of the cycle phase on breast total labeling index (TLI) of women less than 34 years of age according to whether cycles were natural or regulated by oral contraceptives (OC). (Reprinted with permission from Going JJ, Anderson TJ, Battersby et al. Proliferative and secretory activity in human breast during natural and artificial menstrual cycles (Am. J Pathol. 130:193-204, 1988).

Figure 2 . Simplified anatomy of the female breast illustrating the major structural components of the breast, the anatomic location of various lesions, and the histology of those lesions and corresponding sites of origin of potential lesions.

Figure 2 . Simplified anatomy of the female breast illustrating the major structural components of the breast, the anatomic location of various lesions, and the histology of those lesions and corresponding sites of origin of potential lesions.

In the late reproductive period, glandular tissue may become hyperplastic with sclerosing adenosis or lobular hyperplasia. The hyperplastic glandular lesions may progress to palpable or mammographically detectable abnormalities requiring biopsy. Ductal tissue also may undergo hyperplastic change with an increase in number of ductal cells but without alterations in their appearance. This change, when associated with a 2% or greater prevalence of Ki67 positive cells, is associated with an approximately two fold increase of subsequent breast cancer (9). Further proliferative changes result in lobules approaching 100µ in diameter and called hyperplastic elongated lobular units (HELUs). With progression of the HELUs, atypical ductal or lobular hyperplasia, or ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) may ensue. The linear pathway illustrated in Figure 3 depicts this progression but, while considered by some to be overly simplistic, provides a useful framework. This orderly progression depends upon the number of acquired genetic mutations accumulated by clonal cells in the breast. This originally was suggested by loss of heterozygosity studies. Recent specific genetic data suggests that an average of 11 “driver” mutations and 100 bystander mutations are present in established invasive breast cancer (10). Based on the number of mutations required for cancer, current opinion suggests that breast cancer is a process that takes many years to develop with the age of menarche as the earliest factor influencing this process. The progression from the earliest neoplastic changes to invasive breast cancer is considered to take a median of 16 years with a range of 1 to 30 years based on doubling time. Careful assessment of serial mammograms allows an estimation of doubling times which range from 25 to more than 700 days (Figure 4).

Figure 3 Model of the linear progresion from normal, to hyperplastic enlogated lobular units ( HELU), to atypical ductal hyperplasia (ADH), to ductal carcinoma in situ ( DCIS), to occult invasive breast cancer ( IBC), to IBC that has exceeded detection threshold and can be diagnosed by mammogram. Kinetic modeling data suggest that it takes 10 to 20 years for the progression from atypical hyperplasia to a clinically detectable tumor

Figure 3 Model of the linear progresion from normal, to hyperplastic enlogated lobular units ( HELU), to atypical ductal hyperplasia (ADH), to ductal carcinoma in situ ( DCIS), to occult invasive breast cancer ( IBC), to IBC that has exceeded detection threshold and can be diagnosed by mammogram. Kinetic modeling data suggest that it takes 10 to 20 years for the progression from atypical hyperplasia to a clinically detectable tumor

Figure 4. Cumulative frequency distribution of the doubling times of occult breast cancer obtained by serial mammograms. Figure reproduced with the permision of the author and publisher.

Figure 4. Cumulative frequency distribution of the doubling times of occult breast cancer obtained by serial mammograms. Figure reproduced with the permision of the author and publisher.

After the onset of menopause, glandular tissue undergoes involution and stroma and fatty tissue (i.e. approximately 97%) replace glandular elements (12).  The degree of involution is inversely related to the risk of subsequent breast cancer. When comparing the lowest with the highest quartile of involution, the relative risk of subsequent breast cancer is more than 2 fold increased I (OR 2.44 , 95% confidence interval (0.96-6.19) (1).  With aging, the degree of involution increases (1), which contributes substantially to the decrease in breast density. On histologic examination, lesions appearing dense on mammography contain a larger than normal proportion of stromal and glandular tissue.

SPECIFIC BENIGN BREAST LESIONS:

A wide variety of benign breast lesions have been described and the histologic appearance fully characterized. On a practical basis, these can be subdivided into those associated with no substantial increased risk of breast cancer ( i.e. < 1.49%), those with an increase of 1.5-2% and those with a >2% increase (Table 1) (13) .

Table 1. Relative risk of breast cancer imparted by specific benign breast lesions (Data from Reference 13)

No Increased risk:

The more common lesions Included in this category are fibrocystic changes, periductal fibrosis, hamartomas, lipomas, phylloides tumors, and neurofibromas. Another lesion is duct ectasia (Figure 5), characterized by distention of subareolar ducts and presence within them of yellowish-orange material. Penetration of the duct wall by this material may produce acute inflammatory changes in the surrounding tissues. Histologically, crystalline oval and round structures thought to be lipid in origin are present. Resolution may occur but residual periductal fibrosis and nodule formation often persist. This lesion is thought to be more frequent in cigarette smokers and represents a more chronic and extensive inflammatory process. A less common lesion is diabetic mastopathy which consists of localized or diffuse areas of fibrosis occurring in patients with diabetes (14).

Figure 5. Histological appearance of duct ectasia showing the characteristic crystalline formation of the intraluminal contents.

Figure 5. Histological appearance of duct ectasia showing the characteristic crystalline formation of the intraluminal contents.

Abnormalities of ductal secretion may result in discharge of clear, cloudy, blue, green or black aqueous material. Stromal hyperplasia can result in nipple retraction or in palpable lesions requiring biopsy to distinguish from breast carcinoma. Histologically, the tissue may contain fibroblasts nearly exclusively or predominantly fibroblasts with admixture of glandular epithelium. Some degree of stromal hyperplasia may occur in 50-60% of normal women, particularly those in their middle and late reproductive periods. Traumatic lesions (hematomas and fat necrosis) and inflammatory conditions (granulomas and mastitis) are also not associated with an increased breast cancers (15).

 

1.5 To 2.0 Fold Increase In Relative Risk:

 

Fibroadenomas:
During the early reproductive period, glandular components of the breast may respond to cyclic hormonal stimuli in an exaggerated fashion with the development of single fibroadenomas. These consist of lobular units which grow to larger than normal size and contain both epithelial and stromal elements. Fibroadenomas range in size from slightly larger than a normal single lobular unit to larger, more discrete palpable lesions. When exceeding 5 cm, these are called giant fibroadenomas which are seen primarily at puberty or during pregnancy. The incidence of fibroadenomas peaks at age 20-24 (Figure 6). The prevalence on physical examination in young women is 2% in young women but 15-23% when evaluated prospectively at autopsy (16). When complex and containing cysts >3mm in diameter, sclerosing adenosis, epithelial calcification or papillary changes, these lesions are associated with an increased risk of breast cancer (17) (Table 1).

Figure 6. Incidence of fibrocystic breast changes and fibroadenoma by age group. (Reprinted with permission of the publisher and authors from Goehring C, Morabia A. Epidemiology of Bengin Breast Disease, with special attention to histologic types Epidemiologic Reviews 19:310-327, 1997) (16). Note that the term “fibrocystic disease” is used in the legend but this term has now been changed to “fibrocystic changes”.

Figure 6. Incidence of fibrocystic breast changes and fibroadenoma by age group. (Reprinted with permission of the publisher and authors from Goehring C, Morabia A. Epidemiology of Bengin Breast Disease, with special attention to histologic types Epidemiologic Reviews 19:310-327, 1997) (16). Note that the term “fibrocystic disease” is used in the legend but this term has now been changed to “fibrocystic changes”.

Other lesions:

Hyperplasia without atypia, papillomas, papillomatosis, radial scar, blunt duct adenosis, and sclerosing adenosis are also associated with an increased risk.

 

Greater Than A Two-Fold Risk:

 

Atypical hyperplasia

This lesion can be subdivided into atypical ductal hyperplasia (figure 7) and atypical lobular hyperplasia but both impart a similar increase in relative risk of breast cancer of 3 to 4 fold (18) (Table 1). In the first ten years after diagnosis of AH, the breast tumors occur predominantly in the same breast but subsequently, occur with equal frequency in the contralateral as in the ipsilateral breast (19). These observations suggest the AH is both a precursor lesion for breast cancer and a marker of an underlying predisposing condition termed a “field defect” or alternatively a “mutator phenotype (15) When the amount of hyperplastic tissue increases according to specific criteria (20) the lesions are no longer called benign but are classified as ductal carcinoma in situ. Recent emphasis has been directed toward identification of molecular genetic markers which could predict which patients with AH are at increased risk of developing breast cancer. Over-expression of HER-2/neu is one such marker (21). The presence of aberrant p53, p21, interleukin 6, and TNF alpha and aneuploidly on flow cytometery have also been reported as markers of increased risk (22).

Figure 7. Photomicrograph of atypical ductal hyperplasia histology reprinted from Hartmann LC et al (23).

Figure 7. Photomicrograph of atypical ductal hyperplasia histology reprinted from Hartmann LC et al (23).

Recent data from the Mayo Clinic report the absolute rates of breast cancer during prolonged 20+ year follow-up and the important role of multifocality (23;24). As shown in Figure 8, the risk approximates 24% with one lesion, 36% with two and 47% with 3 or more lesions. The increased risk with multifocality has been confirmed in an independent cohort follow at  Vanderbilt (18;19). Although previous studies indicated that family history added to this risk (18), the updated data suggest that neither family history or other risk factors independently contribute to breast cancer risk (23). It is important to emphasize the AH appears to impart a risk of breast cancer which is lower but may approach that from BrCa1 and 2 mutations. As noted above, the presence of atypical hyperplasia imparts a risk over time of both ipsilateral and contralateral breast cancer (Figure 9).

Figure 8. Incidence of breast cancer in cohort of patients with a histologic diagnosis of atypical hyperplasia. Top panel: mean (solid line) and 95% confidence limits (dashed lines). Bottom panel: Incidence in patients with 1, 2, or 3 or more independent lesions. Reprinted with the permission of the authors and publisher from Hartmann LC et al (23).

Figure 8. Incidence of breast cancer in cohort of patients with a histologic diagnosis of atypical hyperplasia. Top panel: mean (solid line) and 95% confidence limits (dashed lines). Bottom panel: Incidence in patients with 1, 2, or 3 or more independent lesions. Reprinted with the permission of the authors and publisher from Hartmann LC et al (23).

Figure 9. Ipsilateral versus contralateral distribution of breast cancers diagnosed over time in patients initially diagnosed with atypical hyperplasia. Reproduced with the permission of the authors and publishers from Hartmann LC et al (24).

Figure 9. Ipsilateral versus contralateral distribution of breast cancers diagnosed over time in patients initially diagnosed with atypical hyperplasia. Reproduced with the permission of the authors and publishers from Hartmann LC et al (24).

Lobular Carcinoma in situ:

Even though called lobular carcinoma in situ, this lesion is not generally considered to have reached the neoplastic stage but is analogous to atypical hyperplasia. This lesion imparts approximately a 10 fold   increase in relative risk of breast cancer developing over time. The subsequent breast cancer can occur in the same or contralateral breast; accordingly, this lesion is thought to represent a filed defect or mutator phenotype which increases breast cancer risk but the lesion itself is not a precursor of breast cancer.

 

 

Mammographic Density And Breast Cancer Risk:

The percent breast density on mammography correlates with breast cancer risk as shown on Figure 10. When comparing the lowest density category with highest, the relative risk is increased by 5.3 fold. Recent studies examined the histologic composition of dense and non-dense breast tissue. When dense lesions are biopsied and compared to areas of low density, they are found to contain a higher proportion of stroma and glandular tissue and lesser amount of fat (26). Notably, dense lesions contain more of the enzyme aromatase, when quantitated by an immunologic histologic score after staining with an aromatase monoclonal antibody (27). These findings are likely associated with a higher local production of estradiol and could explain the higher incidence of breast cancer with both of these lesions. Taking these observations together, determination of breast density assessed by Bi-RADS criteria or quantitated with a computer assisted method of determining breast density, provides the most powerful means of predicting risk of breast cancer over time (Figure 10).

Figure 10. The percentage of breast tissue which is dense on a mammogram is determined by computer assisted analysis and classified as none, <10%, 10-25%, 25-50%, 50-75%, >75%.The relative risk of breast cancer increases with each step of increased breast density. Adapted from that data of Boyd et al (25).

Figure 10. The percentage of breast tissue which is dense on a mammogram is determined by computer assisted analysis and classified as none, <10%, 10-25%, 25-50%, 50-75%, >75%.The relative risk of breast cancer increases with each step of increased breast density. Adapted from that data of Boyd et al (25).

ETIOLOGY OF BENIGN BREAST DISORDERS

 

Clinical observations in women receiving estrogens and anti-estrogens suggest that hormonal events play a role in the etiology of benign breast lesions. In post-menopausal women receiving estrogens ± progestins for >8 years, the prevalence of benign breast lesions increased by 1.7 fold (95 percent CI 1.06-2.72) (28). In the Women’s Health Initiative study (WHI), the use of estrogen plus progestin was associated with a 74% increase in the risk of benign proliferative breast disease [hazard ratio, 1.74; 95% confidence interval (CI), 1.35-2.25] (29). The anti-estrogen, tamoxifen, when used for breast cancer prevention, was associated with a 28 percent (RR 0.72, 95 percent Confidence Intervals 0.65-0.79) reduction in prevalence of benign breast lesions, including adenosis, cysts, duct ectasia, and hyperplasia (30).

 

Underlying and acquired genetic changes are also associated with benign breast lesions. Loss of heterozygosity (LOH), a finding caused by deletions of small segments of DNA (31;32) is commonly found in benign breast lesions. Women frequently have multi-focal lesions, each of which exhibit loss of heterozygosity (LOH) of differing regions of DNA. Women with BRCA1/2 mutations are found to have a high frequency of multiple benign or malignant breast lesions when bilateral mastectomy specimens are meticulously examined (33). These findings support the current theory of an underlying predisposition to mutations in some patients as the cause of multiple breast lesions (34). In the past, this phenomenon was termed a “field effect” and more recently, a “mutator phenotype” (34).

 

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS:

Clinical presentations of benign breast disease are divided into those with pain, lumps, or breast discharge (Table 2).

Breast Pain:

Cyclic breast pain

 

Usually occurs during the late luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, in association with the premenstrual syndrome or independently (35-40), and resolves at the onset of menses (35;36;38). A recent study in 1171 healthy American women indicated that 11% experience moderate to severe cyclic breast pain and 58%, mild discomfort (39). Breast pain interfered with usual sexual activity in 48% and with physical (37%), social (12%), and school (8%) activity in others. A role for caffeine, iodine deficiency, alterations in fatty acid levels in the breast, fat intake in the diet, and psychological factors in the etiology of breast pain remain unproven. Non-cyclic breast pain is unrelated to the menstrual cycle. Detection of focal tenderness is helpful diagnostically and suggests a tender cyst, rupture through the wall of an ectatic duct, or a particularly tender area of breast nodularity. Acute enlargement of cysts and periductal mastitis may cause severe, localized pain of sudden onset.

 

Non-breast pain:

When arising from the chest wall, pain may be mistakenly attributed to the breast. Pain localized to a limited area and characterized as burning or knife like in nature suggests this possibility. Several distinct subtypes can be distinguished including localized or diffuse lateral chest wall pain, radicular pain from cervical arthritis and Tietze’s syndrome or costochondritis. The method to distinguish between breast and non-breast pain by careful physical examination is illustrated on Figure 11, panels A-D.

Figure 11. A. Focal chest wall pain—lateral. The patient is turned 90º on her side so that breast tissue is no longer under the area of palpation. The index finger elicits a focal area of pain. B. Focal chest wall pain over costochondral junctions anteriorly. C. Diffuse lateral chest wall pain. With the patient turned over 90 degrees on her side, pain is elicited over a wider area of the chest wall. D. Verification that squeezing breast tissue does not elicit pain ensures that the pain is not related to the breast but represents chest wall pain.

Figure 11. A. Focal chest wall pain—lateral. The patient is turned 90º on her side so that breast tissue is no longer under the area of palpation. The index finger elicits a focal area of pain. B. Focal chest wall pain over costochondral junctions anteriorly. C. Diffuse lateral chest wall pain. With the patient turned over 90 degrees on her side, pain is elicited over a wider area of the chest wall. D. Verification that squeezing breast tissue does not elicit pain ensures that the pain is not related to the breast but represents chest wall pain.

Breast Nodule:

Proliferation of ductal or lobular tissue causes histologic changes that are manifested by the presence of palpable lumps or nodules. Patients often present with the finding of a new breast nodule on self-exam or are found to have a lump by their health care provider. Ninety percent of these new nodules in premenopausal women are benign and usually represent fibroadenomas in the early reproductive period (16). In the middle reproductive period, focal areas of fibrosis, hyperplasia, or cyst formation are more likely. In the later reproductive period, hyperplasia, cysts, and carcinoma in situ are more common.  Some lesions present with symptoms suggesting the cause. With duct ectasia, penetration of the duct wall by lipid material may be associated with a nodule exhibiting acute redness, and causing pain, and fever; after resolution, a subareolar nodule persists.

Other specific lesions present as lumps. These include multiple papillomas, sclerosing adenosis, and radial scars. Multiple papillomas may present as breast lumps, nodules on ultrasound, or may be the cause of bloody nipple discharge and can be seen on ductography. Sclerosing adenosis is a lobular lesion with increased fibrous tissue and interspersed glandular cells. It can present as a mass or a suspicious finding on mammograms. Radial scars are a pathologic diagnosis, usually diagnosed following mammography or palpation and then biopsy. Radial scars are characterized microscopically by a fibroelastic core with radiating ducts and lobules and impart a minimally increased risk of breast cancer similar to that of proliferative changes without atypia (41).

Nipple discharge:

6.8 percent of referrals to physicians for breast concerns result from this symptom. Although particularly distressing to the patient, only 5 percent are found to have serious underlying pathology. Age is an important factor with respect to risk of malignancy (42). In one series, 3 percent of women younger than age 40, 10 percent between 40 and 60 and 32 percent >60 with nipple discharge as their only symptom were found to have a malignancy.

 

A careful history characterizes breast discharge as either spontaneous or expressible. On examination, one can detect by careful inspection whether the discharge emanates from a single or multiple ducts. Nipple discharge can be divided into physiologic and pathologic types. Characteristics of physiologic discharge include non-spontaneous, multiple duct, bilateral, and non-bloody. Pathologic discharge is characterized as spontaneous, serous or bloody, usually unilateral and usually single duct. Reassuring characteristics are that it must be expressed; is green yellow, brown or milky; that it is bilateral and involves multiple ducts. Spontaneous discharge, whether serous or bloody, requires careful evaluation. A hemoccult card or urine dipstick can be used to test for occult blood if the discharge is spontaneous, unilateral, and from one duct. Cytologic examination is not recommended. Milky discharge (galactorrhea) should be evaluated with measurement of a serum prolactin level. If the discharge is physiologic and the patient is under 35, only reassurance is necessary. Screening mammogram is recommended for patients over 35 with physiologic discharge. Pathologic discharge requires diagnostic mammogram, galactography (Figure 12) (43), and referral to a surgeon.

Figure 12. Galactogram illustrating space occupying lesion. A catheter is inserted into the duct from which the bloody discharge emerges. Contrast material is then injected through the catheter. The various branches of the duct are outlined.

Figure 12. Galactogram illustrating space occupying lesion. A catheter is inserted into the duct from which the bloody discharge emerges. Contrast material is then injected through the catheter. The various branches of the duct are outlined.

The presence of crusting, scaling, and flaking of the nipple could be a manifestation of Paget’s disease of breast and underlying cancer or of dermatologic problems. The approach is to obtain a history of other dermatologic problems, or a history of change in soap or clothing. If absent, a diagnostic mammogram should be obtained if the patient is over 35. In a large recent series of 1251 patients with nipple discharge, 433 had unilateral discharge and 194 had no breast lump in association with this symptom. Of these, the lesions found included solitary papilloma (n=49), minimal breast cancer (n=20), fibrocystic disease(n=11), papillomatosis (n=7), lobular cancer (n=5) and duct ectasia (n=2)(42) (30A). For women with bloody discharge from a single duct, galactography is warranted. Filling defects can be due to intraductal papilloma, intraductal carcinoma, papillomatosis, debris, or air bubbles.

 

 

APPROACH TO THE PRACTICAL MANAGEMENT OF BENIGN BREAST DISEASE

 

A detailed history and physical exam systematically evaluates the entire breast and chest wall and focuses on areas involving the patient’s symptoms (Table 3). Diagnostic studies may then be ordered. For lumps, “The Triple Test” is recommended which includes palpation, imaging and percutaneous biopsy (either core or fine needle aspirate <FNA>). Mammography, often in conjunction with ultrasound examination (44-47) is required for evaluation of discrete palpable lesions in women over 35 whereas ultrasound provides an optional substitute in younger women (43). Round dense lesions on mammography often represent cysts which require only ultrasonography to distinguish them from solid lesions. Complex cysts containing both fluid and solid matter require biopsy.  For solid lesions, radiographically or ultrasonically directed core biopsy provides highly discriminative information regarding the presence or absence of malignancy. Core biopsy utilizes a large cutting needle deployed with a spring loaded, automated biopsy instrument and obtains tissue suitable for histologic analysis familiar to most pathologists. FNA frequently yields sufficient cellular material to allow adequate cytologic evaluation but requires an experienced cytopathologist. However, the amount of material obtained is insufficient to render a diagnosis in 35-47% of non-palpable lesions (48) and core biopsy is recommended. The exact role of MRI in evaluating breast lesions is currently being determined (49). Galactography (ductography) is useful for detection of focal lesions in a single duct. Cytology of nipple discharge is of limited value with the sensitivity of detecting malignancy only 35 to 47 percent (50).

Diagnostic Procedures

Ideally a team including a radiologist experienced in mammography, ultrasound, MRI and core needle biopsy as well as an internist, gynecologist, or surgeon with expertise in breast diseases should be involved in the evaluation of patients with breast disorders. MRI mammography, ductography, or ultrasound may be utilized (Figures 12 and 13). Information to be obtained by a focused history and physical examination are outlined on Table 3. The method of documenting whether breast pain is chest wall related is illustrated on Figure 11 A-D. Imaging has become an integral part of the management of benign breast disorders.

 

Imaging studies:

Mammography is useful for evaluation of palpable lesions, particularly in those over 35. Digital mammography is preferred because of its ability to penetrate through dense breast tissue which is commonly found in younger women. Ultrasound is often used as initial evaluation of a palpable mass in women under age 35. If a simple cyst is present, no further evaluation is necessary (Figure 13). If not, mammography may also be necessary to fully evaluate the lump. If the mass has findings suggestive of a fibroadenoma by ultrasound and mammography, short term follow-up and re-imaging can be considered (usually performed in 6 months). Experts are divided as to the necessity to biopsy all fibroadenomas. MRI is more sensitive than digital mammography but false positives are more common (49). Routine yearly MRI is now recommended for women whose lifetime risk of breast cancer is > 20%. As an illustration of its sensitivity, 3% of the contralateral breasts in women with diagnosed breast cancer are found to have a second lesion in the opposite breast when examined by MRI (49).

Figure 13 Upper panel illustrates by ultrasound a non-dense black area representing cyst fluid. The lower panel is the corresponding area on mammogram showing a dense area. With the combination of mammogram and ultrasound, the lesion can be shown to be a cyst.

Figure 13 Upper panel illustrates by ultrasound a non-dense black area representing cyst fluid. The lower panel is the corresponding area on mammogram showing a dense area. With the combination of mammogram and ultrasound, the lesion can be shown to be a cyst.

Findings On Imaging Studies

 

Fibrocystic change typically presents on mammogram as round or oval, well defined masses that can be subsequently shown to represent cysts on ultrasound (Figure 13). Diffusely scattered dystrophic calcifications may also be found on the mammogram. Consequently, the goal of mammographic evaluation is to provide reassurance to the patient and physician that the risk of neoplasm is low. Aspiration of cysts is usually necessary only in a those cases where the mass does not fulfill all criteria for a simple cyst or if the cyst is painful. Biopsy may be necessary to confirm the benign nature of calcifications, particularly if clustered, linear or variously shaped.

For round masses or round calcifications on a first mammogram, the risk of cancer is less than 2%, and repeat mammography in 6 months is recommended. These lesions are termed “probably benign” using the lexicon terminology required by the Mammography Quality Standards Act (in the USA). If the risk is believed to be greater, core biopsy is recommended. Stereotactically directed core biopsy is ideal for evaluation of calcifications and provides highly discriminative information regarding the presence or absence of malignancy. If this technique is not available, insertion of a wire into the lesion radiographically followed by surgical excision or mere removal of a palpable lesion is warranted.

 

CLINICAL GUIDELINES FOR EVALUATION OF NODULES AND DISCHARGE

 

Careful examination distinguishes solitary, discrete, dominant, persistent masses from vague nodularity and thickening. Practice Guidelines of the Society of Surgical Oncology (51) recommend the following evaluation: In women less than age 35, all dominant discrete palpable lesions require referral to a surgeon. If vague nodularity, thickening or asymmetrical nodularity is present, the examination is repeated at midcycle after one or two menstrual cycles. If the abnormality resolves, the patient is reassured and if not, referred to a surgeon. Breast imaging may be appropriate. In women > age 35 with a dominant mass, a diagnostic mammogram (and frequently a sonogram) (44-47) is obtained and the patient referred to a surgeon. With vague nodularity or thickening, one obtains a mammogram with repeat physical exam at mid-cyle 1 to 2 months later and refers to surgeon if the abnormality persists. Post-menopausal women are referred for surgical consultation after a mammogram. For gross cysts (i.e. >4 cm), the guidelines suggest needle aspiration with repeat imaging within six months. If the aspirated fluid does not contain blood, the fluid is discarded without further histologic analysis unless the cyst contains solid components (i.e. complex cyst). If the fluid contains blood or if the cyst is complex, the, fluid is sent for cytology and consultation from a surgeon requested. With persistent refilling of the same cyst after aspiration, surgical consultation is warranted.

 

Usual practice requires “the triple test” with palpation, mammography (often in conjunction with ultrasonography) and biopsy in women over age 35 with dominant masses. When mammography is negative but a dominant mass is present, biopsy is required to rule out malignancy since lobular carcinoma may not be seen on mammograms. In those younger, mammography may be omitted if ultrasound and biopsy yield definitive information. Many experts omit biopsy in younger women with lesions characteristic of fibroadenoma on ultrasound and elect to follow carefully with serial ultrasounds at six monthly intervals for two years and yearly thereafter. Since careful studies have shown that a lesion appearing benign on mammography and ultrasound is benign >99 percent of the time, clinical judgment may allow follow-up without biopsy in experienced hands (44-47). However, other experienced surgeons disagree and believe that all fibroadenomas require diagnostic core biopsy or FNA and especially in BRCA mutation carriers in whom medullary cancer may be found. Biopsy confirmation of a fibroadenoma eliminates the need for serial ultrasounds. For those with a diagnosis of ADH (Atypical Ductal Hyperplasia) on FNA or core biopsy, excisional biopsy is then required since more complete resection often changes the diagnosis to DCIS.

 

Breast discharge is evaluated according to the algorithm illustrated below on Figure 14. Careful attention to several factors are necessary including determination whether the discharge arises from one duct or multiple ducts, is bloody, or is milky.

Figure 14. Algorithm to assess breast discharge.

Figure 14. Algorithm to assess breast discharge.

TREATMENT OF BENIGN BREAST DISEASE IN WOMEN

 

The initial step in evaluating pain is to distinguish true breast pain from chest wall pain (Figure 11). Several well designed, randomized, controlled, double blind, cross over trials have validated the efficacy of medical therapy for cyclic mastalgia. Based upon these studies, we categorize therapies as definitely effective, definitely ineffective, possibly effective, and insufficiently studied. For classification as definitely effective, two or more randomized trials are required. For the category, possibly effective, one randomized trial must be positive in some respect but others may be negative. For the category definitely ineffective, prospective trials must be uniformly negative. For the category, insufficiently studied, only one randomized trial, either negative or positive is available. For full details and references see Table 162-1 in Endocrinology, Fourth Edition, LJ DeGroot and JL Jameson, editors, WB Saunders Company, Philadelphia publishers; Chapter 162 Benign Breast Disorders, RJ Santen page 2194)

 

Danazol, bromocriptine, and tamoxifen have been proven to be effective (52-55) (Figure 15). Linoleic acid in the form of evening primrose oil has been shown effective in two randomized trials but not in the third, the largest trial. Its role in treatment therefore remains uncertain (56-58) . Vitamin E is considered definitely ineffective and iodine and vaginal progesterone possibly effective. Medroxyprogesterone acetate, caffeine avoidance, and progesterone have not been sufficiently studied. Several other therapies have not been examined in randomized controlled trials but are likely to be beneficial since they are based upon physiologic principles. For example, precise fitting of a bra to provide support for pendulous breasts has been reported to relieve pain in observational studies. GnRH agonist analogues are used to lower LH, FSH, and estradiol levels and to create a temporary post-menopausal state (59;60). Onset of menopause is known to reduce the frequency of breast pain. This therapy is reserved for patients in whom all other measures fail and the pain is considered severe. Reduction of the dosage of estrogens in post-menopausal women or addition of an androgen to estrogen replacement therapy (e.g. Estrotestâ tablets) appears to be beneficial in reducing breast pain (personal observations of author).

Figure 15. Relative efficacy of agents to treat breast pain. These data are from the Breast Clinic in Cardiff, Wales and represent observational studies and not randomized, controlled efficacy trails.

Figure 15. Relative efficacy of agents to treat breast pain. These data are from the Breast Clinic in Cardiff, Wales and represent observational studies and not randomized, controlled efficacy trails.

Relative efficacy of effective therapies:

No large randomized, controlled studies have compared the relative efficacy of danazol, bromocriptine, evening primrose oil and tamoxifen. Figure 15 rank orders them according to efficacy based upon data from individual reports from the same clinic. Minimal data are available from clinical trials which involve direct head to head comparisons. It should be noted that overall responses to danazol, bromocriptine and evening primrose oil are lower in those with non-cyclic pain than those with cyclic pain. However, not all studies have carefully excluded patients with non-breast pain and therefore conclusions regarding non-cyclic pain should be considered tentative. The approach to non-breast pain is outlined in Figure 16.

Figure 16. Algorithm to treat non-breast pain

Figure 16. Algorithm to treat non-breast pain

WOMEN AT HIGH RISK FOR BREAST CANCER

 

A major consideration for women who present with breast problems is whether they have a higher than normal risk of developing breast cancer. Certain breast lesions such as fibrocystic changes are associated with no increased risk of subsequent breast cancer (Table I). A 1.5 to 2-fold greater risk of development of breast cancer over a 20 year period of follow-up occurs with proliferative lesions including ductal hyperplasia, lobular hyperplasia without atypia, sclerosing adenosis, diffuse papillomatosis and complex fibroadenomas. A recent report also suggested that radial scars increase relative risk by 1.8, a risk similar to that found in proliferative disease without atypia. It should be noted that the Gail model for assessing breast cancer risk, which is based predominantly on reproductive factors, underestimates the long term risk of breast cancer in women with benign breast disease. On the other hand, the five year prediction is more accurate (61).

 

The presence of dense breast tissue on mammography has also been reported to be a predictor of increased incidence of breast cancer (Figure 10).Two components of this finding must be considered: one, the presence of high breast density makes it more difficult to read mammograms and masks the sensitivity of finding a breast cancer initially but identifies it later and two, there is an increased risk of breast cancer associated with increased breast density. With long tem follow-up studies, masking is not the explanation for the increased breast cancer risk (62).

 

According to classic twin studies, heritability accounts for approximately 60% of the variation in breast density (63;64). Breast cancer risk is also increased in association with high plasma estradiol and testosterone levels in postmenopausal women (62;65) and 20 kg or more weight gain (66) in the pre-menopausal years.

 

Another risk factor is use of hormone replacement therapy. Current data from the Women’s Health Initiative suggests a 26% increase in relative risk of breast cancer with conjugated equine estrogen (CEE) when combined with medroxyprogesterone acetate when used for an average of 7.1 years. (67). This risk is probably increased further in women starting this therapy shortly after the menopause (i.e. a short gap between onset of menopause and start of menopausal hormone therapy)(68). Starting this therapy a long time after experiencing menopause (long gap) is associated with a lesser relative risk (68). The use of estrogen alone in the WHI was associated with a trend toward reduction of risk of breast cancer at five years and a statistically significant reduction in those adhering to therapy (68). In a follow up report, after 5 years of use and 8 additional follow-up years, the reported decrease of 23% was statistically significant (69) (manson). Available data suggest that the effects of menopausal hormone therapy in the WHI is a class effect and not related to the specific type of estrogen or progestin. One study, however, suggests that use of crystalline progesterone as the progestogen is associated with a lesser risk than use of medroxyprogesterone acetate (70).

 

To aid in assessing breast cancer risk, a questionnaire developed by Gail, utilizes answers to 7 questions to calculate the 5 year and lifetime risk of developing breast cancer (71). This model has recognized deficiencies in that it does not consider second degree relatives with breast cancer, proliferative lesions of breast other than ADH, alcohol intake, obesity, or birth control pill and menopausal hormone therapy (MHT) use. Nonetheless, the Gail model has been prospectively validated in over 6000 women followed for an average of 4.5 years. A more recently developed model, the Tyrer–Cuzick (IBIS II) model (72) incorporates second degree relatives, obesity and use of MHT into its risk calculations and provides more robust information than the Gail model.

 

BREAST CANCER PREVENTION

 

Patients with benign breast lesions imparting an increased risk of breast cancer can be offered tamoxifen (or raloxifene) as a prevention strategy. The risk of breast cancer is determined using the Gail or Tyrer-Cuzick model and the benefits versus risks of tamoxifen evaluated. Risk factors not included in the Gail or Claus models include degree of breast density, plasma free estradiol levels, bone density, weight gain after menopause, and waist-hip ratio (25;65;66;73). Current recommendations suggest that women with a five year risk of breast cancer of over 1.67 percent and no contraindications to tamoxifen should be informed about the possibility of taking tamoxifen for five years (74-77). A recent overview has shown a 38 percent reduction of the relative risk of breast cancer with tamoxifen but benefits may be offset by increased risks of thromboembolic phenomena, endometrial cancer, and maturation of cataracts (78). The Star trial addressed whether raloxifene might be preferable to tamoxifen and (79) demonstrated relative equivalence. However, of interest was the fact that tamoxifen prevented more non-invasive breast cancers than did raloxifene (79). More intensive and frequent screening with multi-modality imaging (i.e. digital or standard mammography plus ultrasound or MRI) may be required in high risk patients. Atypical hyperplasia lesions appear to be more amenable to breast cancer prevention as reviewed from non-head-to-head studies showing prevention ranging from 62 to 75% reduction in four separate randomized studies (23) when compared to a 38% reduction in women selected to be at high risk based on reproductive factors (78).

 

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(65)   Key T, Appleby P, Barnes I, Reeves G, Endogenous Hormones and Breast Cancer Collaborative Group. Endogenous sex hormones and breast cancer in postmenopausal women: reanalysis of nine prospective studies. Journal of the National Cancer Institute 2002;94(8):606-616.

(66)   Hulka BS, Moorman PG. Breast cancer: hormones and other risk factors. Maturitas 1928;38(1):103-113.

(67)   Chlebowski RT, Hendrix SL, Langer RD, Stefanick ML, Gass M, Lane D et al. Influence of estrogen plus progestin on breast cancer and mammography in healthy postmenopausal women: the Women's Health Initiative Randomized Trial.[see comment]. JAMA 2003;289(24):3243-3253.

(68)   Prentice RL, Manson JE, Langer RD, Anderson GL, Pettinger M, Jackson RD et al. Benefits and risks of postmenopausal hormone therapy when it is initiated soon after menopause.[see comment]. American Journal of Epidemiology 2009;170(1):12-23.

(69)   Manson JE, Chlebowski RT, Stefanick ML, Aragaki AK, Rossouw JE, Prentice RL et al. Menopausal hormone therapy and health outcomes during the intervention and extended poststopping phases of the Women's Health Initiative randomized trials. JAMA 2013;310(13):1353-1368.

(70)   Fournier A, Mesrine S, Boutron-Ruault MC, Clavel-Chapelon F. Estrogen-progestagen menopausal hormone therapy and breast cancer: does delay from menopause onset to treatment initiation influence risks?[see comment]. Journal of Clinical Oncology 2009;27(31):5138-5143.

(71)   Gail MH, Brinton LA, Byar DP, Corle DK, Green SB, Schairer C et al. Projecting individualized probabilities of developing breast cancer for white females who are being examined annually. Journal of the National Cancer Institute 1989;81(24):1879-1886.

(72)   Tyrer J, Duffy SW, Cuzick J. A breast cancer prediction model incorporating familial and personal risk factors.[see comment][erratum appears in Stat Med. 2005 Jan 15;24(1):156]. Statistics in Medicine 2004;23(7):1111-1130.

(73)   Kuller LH, Cauley JA, Lucas L, Cummings S, Browner WS. Sex steroid hormones, bone mineral density, and risk of breast cancer. Environmental Health Perspectives 1997;105:Suppl-9.

(74)   Chlebowski RT, Collyar DE, Somerfield MR, Pfister DG. American Society of Clinical Oncology technology assessment on breast cancer risk reduction strategies: tamoxifen and raloxifene. Journal of Clinical Oncology 1999;17(6):1939-1955.

(75)   Gail MH, Costantino JP, Bryant J, Croyle R, Freedman L, Helzlsouer K et al. Weighing the risks and benefits of tamoxifen treatment for preventing breast cancer. Journal of the National Cancer Institute 1999;91(21):1829-1846.

(76)   Levine M, Moutquin JM, Walton R, Feightner J, Canadian Task Force on Preventive Health Care and the Canadian Breast Cancer Initiative's Steering Committee on Clinical Practice Guidelines for the Care and Treatment of Breast Cancer. Chemoprevention of breast cancer. A joint guideline from the Canadian Task Force on Preventive Health Care and the Canadian Breast Cancer Initiative's Steering Committee on Clinical Practice Guidelines for the Care and Treatment of Breast Cancer. CMAJ Canadian Medical Association Journal 2001;164(12):1681-1690.

(77)   Chlebowski RT, Col N, Winer EP, Collyar DE, Cummings SR, Vogel VG, III et al. American Society of Clinical Oncology technology assessment of pharmacologic interventions for breast cancer risk reduction including tamoxifen, raloxifene, and aromatase inhibition. Journal of Clinical Oncology 2002;20(15):3328-3343.

(78)   Cuzick J, Powles T, Veronesi U, Forbes J, Edwards R, Ashley S et al. Overview of the main outcomes in breast-cancer prevention trials. Lancet 2003;361(9354):296-300.

(79)   Vogel VG. The NSABP Study of Tamoxifen and Raloxifene (STAR) trial. [Review] [35 refs]. Expert Review of Anticancer Therapy 2009;9(1):51-60.

 

 

Medication Induced Changes in Lipid and Lipoproteins

ABSTRACT

 

Several medications and medication classes have been reported to affect the lipid profile. Risk factors include elevated lipid levels at baseline and high cardiovascular (CV) risk patients.  This should be considered when evaluating patients with elevated levels of total cholesterol (TC), low-density lipoproteins cholesterol (LDL-C), non-high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (Non-HDL-C), triglycerides (TG) and reductions in high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C). Cardiovascular medications, antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, hormones and certain immunosuppressives are just some of the more commonly known medications to have a negative impact on lipid levels. In some cases, this is a class effect and in others it might depend on dose and specific drug. However, how this translates to atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) risk remains unknown, as there is insufficient evidence on the impact of these metabolic changes on overall risk of ASCVD. While for many of these medications, there is an abundance of literature and comprehensive reviews discussing the potential harmful effects of on lipoprotein metabolism there remains much debate about the actual long-term implications, if any, of these changes. A thorough risk-benefit analysis of each treatment associated with an adverse effect on the lipid profile should be done based on individual patient factors. In general, if negative changes in the lipid profile are observed during therapy, replacement with an equivalent alternative therapy can be recommended. If no equivalent therapy is available and treatment must be initiated, then monitoring of serum lipid levels is vital. The use of existing guidelines for the management of dyslipidemia in the general population can be referred to and in extreme cases when benefits do not outweigh the risks; the use of the suspected medication should be reassessed. For complete coverage of this area and all of Endocrinology, visit www.endotext.org.

 

INTRODUCTION

 

Secondary causes of dyslipidemia are important to identify as treatment of the underlying cause may alleviate the dyslipidemia and ultimately reduce the need for drug treatment or the need for combination pharmacotherapy.1Guidelines recommend that providers should evaluate for underlying conditions that could be causing dyslipidemias before initiating treatment in patients.2One such secondary cause of abnormally altered lipid or lipoprotein levels is medications used for other indications.3Serum lipid levels can be affected both positively and negatively by certain medications. Medications can affect lipid levels either directly or indirectly through effects on weight or glucose metabolism. This should be considered when evaluating patients with elevated levels of total cholesterol (TC), low-density lipoproteins cholesterol (LDL-C), non-high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (Non-HDL-C), triglycerides (TG) and reductions in high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C).4

 

There have also been reports of various medications causing severe drug-induced hypertriglyceridemia that leads to acute pancreatitis.5-7  While there is a paucity of data describing the exact mechanism of drug-induced pancreatitis, it is known that severe hypertriglyceridemia (TG > 1000 mg/dl) can cause acute pancreatitis.  Therefore, in the absence of other causes, medications should be evaluated in the presence of acute pancreatitis and severe hypertriglyceridemia.

 

Several medications and medication classes have been reported to affect the lipid profile (Table 1). In some cases, this is a class effect, and some instances agents belonging to the same class can have significantly different actions on lipid levels (e.g. beta blockers).8   This is a consideration to appreciate when selecting a specific agent for high-risk patients and concurrent medications known to induce lipid abnormalities should be evaluated for discontinuation or dosage reduction prior to initiating long-term lipid lowering agents. How this translates to atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) risk remains unknown, as there is insufficient evidence on the impact of these metabolic changes on overall risk of ASCVD.

 

Table 1. Drugs That May Cause Dyslipidemias
  LDL Cholesterol Triglycerides HDL Cholesterol
Cardiovascular /Endocrine
Amiodarone ↑Variable
β-Blockers*** ↑10-40% ↓5-20%
Loop diuretics ↑5-10% ↑5-10%
Thiazide diuretics (high dose) ↑5-10% ↑5-15%
Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors ↑3-8% ↔↓ ↑Variable
Steroid Hormones/Anabolic Steroids
Estrogen ↓7-20% ↑40% ↑5-20%
Select progestins ↑Variable ↓Variable ↓15-40%
Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators ↓10-20% ↑0-30*
Danazol ↑10-40% ↓50%
Anabolic steroids ↑20% ↓20-70%
Corticosteroids ↑Variable ↑Variable
 Antiviral Therapy
Protease inhibitors ↑15-30% ↑15-200%
Direct Acting Antivirals ↑12-27% ↑14-20%
Immunosuppressants
Cyclosporine and tacrolimus ↑0-50% ↑0-70% ↑0-90%
Corticosteroids ↑Variable ↑Variable
Centrally Acting Medications
First Generation antipsychotics ↑22% ↓20%
Second Generation antipsychotics ↑20-50%
Anticonvulsants ↑Variable ↑Variable
Other Medications
Retinoids ↑15% ↑35-100% **
Growth Hormone ↑10-25% ↔↑7%
ABBREVIATIONS: LDL, low-density lipoprotein; HDL, high-density lipoprotein. *Raloxifene has not been shown to increase Triglyceride levels, while reported increases of up to 30% have been reported with use of tamoxifen**Data remains conflicting and some evidence shows a decrease, no effect, or increase***Varies based on individual drug 

 

ANTIHYPERTENSIVE DRUGS

 

There is an abundance of literature and comprehensive reviews discussing the potential harmful effects of antihypertensive drugs on lipoprotein metabolism and there remains much debate about the actual long term implications, if any, of these changes.9The diuretics and β-

adrenergic blockers have the most data to support their adverse effects on lipid levels.10-15

 

Diuretics

 

Thiazide and loop diuretics have been associated with increases in plasma cholesterol in studies of patients with hypertension. Recent recommendations from the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association recommend thiazide diuretics as one of four specific medication classes to be considered as initial therapy for hypertension.16In view of these recommendations and widespread use of diuretics, it is important to review the adverse metabolic effects. Use of high-dose thiazide diuretics (≥50 mg/day) may negatively affect lipoprotein levels, as seen in small studies, and some investigators have suggested that as a result, diuretics could worsen coronary artery disease (CAD).12Total cholesterol levels can be increased by approximately 4% and LDL-C levels by approximately 10%.9,15,17High density lipoprotein levels are not affected, while TG concentrations can also be elevated by 5-15%.9  Low dose hydrochlorothiazide (12.5 – 25 mg/day) has been shown not to effect plasma lipids in otherwise healthy men and women.12The dose appears to be a factor in resulting cholesterol levels18; however, there are conflicting data regarding whether the effects on lipid levels is primarily caused by higher doses.12 Long term effects beyond one year remain undetermined as more recent studies showed that effects are short term and serum lipid levels return to initial levels.19Additionally, thiazide diuretics have been shown to decrease the risk of cardiovascular (CV) events despite this effect on lipid levels.20

 

Loop diuretics have similarly shown to increase LDL-C and TG with some studies showing changes of comparable magnitude and some showing effects that are less than thiazide diuretics.21,22However, the effects appear to be acute and not expected at time intervals longer than the duration of action of furosemide (6 to 8 hours). One possibility is that hormones stimulated in response to decreased intravascular volume are responsible for some changes in lipid and lipoprotein levels.22The effects of monotherapy with potassium-sparing diuretics on lipid levels is largely unknown, but the combination of a potassium-sparing diuretic and a thiazide show similar changes as monotherapy with a thiazide diuretic, suggesting no impact from potassium-sparing diuretics.

 

The mechanism of increased lipid levels caused by diuretics remains unclear. One theory is that a reduction in insulin sensitivity may cause an increase in hepatic production of cholesterol.17,23The mechanism of an increase in TGs is not well understood. It has been recently suggested that they may modulate adipocyte differentiation leading to accumulation of plasma TGs in susceptible patients with a particular genetic polymorphism in the NELL1 gene.24It is also thought that there are sex differences, as diuretics were shown to produce a greater short-term increase in TC and LDL-C in postmenopausal women than in men. Premenopausal women may have a protective effect from estrogens and have demonstrated no changes in lipid levels.15Estrogens have been theorized to increase the number of hepatic LDL binding sites and stimulate the hepatic uptake of chylomicron remnants.17

 

β-Blockers

 

The metabolic adverse effects of β-blockers depend on dose and specific drug. While β-blocking agents have negligible effect on serum TC or LDL-C, they can increase TG levels from 10 to 40% and decrease HDL-C levels by approximately 5 to 20%.9The evidence on duration of effect remains conflicting with studies citing effects to last less than 1 year19, and other studies reporting increased levels after several years of treatment.24The alterations in lipoprotein levels from β-blockers does not appear to be a class effect, and agents with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA), β1-selectivity, or vasodilatory effects (Table 2) are associated with a less pronounced effect.9Non-selective β-blockers which cause peripheral vasoconstriction through peripheral β-adrenergic receptors seem to increase insulin resistance, leading to lowering of HDL-C, and increased TG.25Whereas, agents that are cardioselective and/or have alpha-1-adrenoreceptor blocking activity do not appear to increase insulin resistance. Other potential mechanisms of β-blocker induced lipid changes are from β-blocker associated weight gain, a decreased lipid metabolism through a reduction in the muscle lipoprotein lipase enzyme, and endothelial dysfunction from peripheral vasoconstriction (Table 3).26The beneficial effects of carvedilol compared to metoprolol and atenolol on lipid parameters has been demonstrated in several small studies.13,25,27Carvedilol has selective α -1-adrenoreceptor blocking activity, causing vasodilation and a reduction in insulin resistance. It remains unknown if these beneficial metabolic effects of carvedilol are seen with other beta-blockers with vasodilating properties, including nebivolol. Conversely, selective α-blocking agents (prazosin) have a beneficial effect on lipid profile and have been shown to increase HDL-C and decrease TG.28,29

 

Table 2. Pharmacological Properties of β-Blockers  
   
  Beta Selectivity Intrinsic sympathomimetic (ISA) or α-blocking Vasodilating Properties
More pronounced effect on lipid levels
Atenolol β1 selective - -
Betaxolol β1 selective - -
Bisoprolol β1 selective - -
Metoprolol β1 selective - -
Nadolol Nonselective - Vasoconstricting
Propanolol Nonselective - Vasoconstricting
Timolol Nonselective - Vasoconstricting
Less pronounced effect on lipid levels
Acebutolol Nonselective ISA Vasoconstricting
Penbutolol Nonselective ISA Vasoconstricting
Pindolol Nonselective ISA Vasoconstricting
No effect on Lipid levels
Carvedilol Nonselective α-blocking Vasodilating
Labetolol Nonselective α-blocking Vasodilating
Nebivolol β1 Selective - Vasodilating
           

 

Thiazide diuretics and β-blockers are important agents for other cardiovascular indications. β-blockers are effective in reducing cardiovascular morbidity and mortality in congestive heart failure and CAD and diuretics are vital for symptomatic management of many CV comorbidities. While it is important to assess for increased lipid levels caused by these agents, with other compelling indications, it remains prudent to continue them while continuing to monitor serum lipid levels.

 

Table 3. Potential Mechanism of β-blocker Induced Dyslipidemia
Inhibition of insulin release
Insulin resistance
Weight gain
Inhibition of lipolysis
Reduced activity of lipoprotein lipase enzyme
Endothelial dysfunction

 

OTHER CARDIOVASCULAR MEDICATIONS

 

Amiodarone

 

Amiodarone, a potent antiarrhythmic drug, increases plasma cholesterol levels, reported in case reports.30,31Amiodarone increases LDL-C levels as a result of a decreased expression of the LDL-receptor gene.30,32,33In addition, amiodarone induced hypothyroidism can cause alterations in lipid metabolism as hypothyroidism is one of the most common causes of secondary hyperlipidemia. Amiodarone contains 39.4% iodine on weight basis which may cause hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism.33Research demonstrates that long-term amiodarone treatment induces a dose-dependent increase in plasma cholesterol, in part due to thyroid hormone deficiency and a decrease in the number of LDL receptors.34,35

 

DIABETES MEDICATIONS

     

Sodium-Glucose Co-Transporter 2 (SGLT2) Inhibitors

 

The SGLT2 inhibitors lower blood glucose and hemoglobin A1c (HgA1c) through inhibiting SGLT2 in the proximal tubule, thereby blocking reabsorption of glucose and increasing the renal excretion of glucose.36  There are currently four SGLT2 inhibitors available and approved for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus (Table 4).  In addition to their effects on glucose lowering, SGLT2 inhibitors have been shown to have positive effects on other metabolic parameters, including body weight and blood pressure. 36  Although data is mixed and the individual agents appear to affect the lipid profile to a varying degree, these agents have shown to increase LDL-C while also increasing HDL-C with variable effects (decreasing or no effect) on TG (Table 4). While a decrease in weight could explain the favorable effects seen on HDL-C and TG, it remains unclear what the mechanism behind the modest dose-related increase in LDL-C is.37  One possibility is that SGLT2 inhibitors cause a switch from carbohydrate to lipid utilization causing an increase in hepatic fatty acid levels to induce ketone production and hepatic total cholesterol levels.37  How this impacts CV health is uncertain.  To date, canagliflozin and empagliflozin have demonstrated an improvement in CV outcomes (composite of CV mortality, nonfatal myocardial infarction (MI), or nonfatal stroke) and a reduction in heart failure hospitalizations in subjects with high CV risk.38For information on the effect of other glucose lowering drugs on lipids and lipoprotein see the chapter in the Diabetes section of Endotext entitled “Role Of Glucose And Lipids In The Cardiovascular Disease Of Patients With Diabetes”.38

 

 

Table 4. Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors and their effects on low density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C)39-42

Generic Brand Dose-Related Effects on LDL-C
Canagliflozin Invokana® 4.5% - 8.0%
Dapagliflozin Farxiga® 2.9%
Empagliflozin Jardiance® 2.3% - 6.5%
Ertugliflozin Steglatro® 2.6% - 5.4%

 

STEROID HORMONES

 

Estrogens and Progestins

 

Oral estrogens have been shown to be important regulators of lipid metabolism.43,44Premenopausal women are protected from diseases such as CAD, hypertension, diabetes and dyslipidemia. This is seemingly due to estrogens having a protective effect, as unopposed estrogens beneficially affect the lipid profile. They lower TC (2-10%) and LDL-C levels (7-20%) and increase HDL-C levels (5-20%) in a dose-related manner.3,9 Studies have also shown a decrease in lipoprotein(a) levels, which is an independent risk factor for coronary heart disease (CHD), with both estrogen and progestin therapy.45However, they also increase TG levels up to 40%, and can increase the risk of pancreatitis in women with overt hypertriglyceridemia.46Ethinyl-estradiol has a more pronounced effect on lipoproteins than natural estradiol.47Oral estrogen therapy increases TG plasma levels by increasing production of very-low density lipoprotein (VLDL), reducing the concentrations of lipoprotein lipase and hepatic lipase, resulting in a reduction of TG clearance, and potentially through a change in insulin resistance.43,46Triglyceride levels vary over time in women who are taking cyclic hormone regimens and it is assumed that the increase is enhanced among those with preexisting hypertriglyceridemia. Elevations in TGs are not usually observed with transdermally administered estrogens, as the transdermal application is thought to reduce the hepatic first pass effect and reduced impact on hepatic protein synthesis.3,48,49

 

Progestins antagonize the estrogen-induced lipid changes, and can have a negative effect on TC and HDL-C.48,50,51Serum lipid levels depend on the androgenic effects of the progestin.9Progestins with more androgenic effects, such as levonorgestrel, are theorized to have larger effects on lipid levels than those with less androgenic effects.52Newer, “third generation” progestins (desogestrel, gestodene) with higher specificity have been developed to reduce this risk and have demonstrated favorable effects on LDL-C levels and HDL-C levels, but they can also increase TGs.47,53There remains insufficient evidence that third generation agents lower risk of ASCVD. Also, in recent years, the dose of ethinyl estradiol has been decreased from 50 down to just 20-30 mcg in current formulations, to also reduce adverse metabolic changes. Therefore, the effect varies with oral contraceptives based on their estrogen and progestin content and more specifically the potency of the estrogen and the adrogenicity of the progestin. Selective estrogen-receptor modulators, including raloxifene and tamoxifen, appear to have less impact on lipids, but can still elevate TG levels.48  There have been several case reports in the literature describing tamoxifen-induced hypertriglyceridemia causing acute pancreatitis.6,7,54,55

 

The American Heart Association recommends that lower estrogen-containing preparations or other forms of contraception should be considered in women who develop hypertriglyceridemia while taking therapy.48   Postmenopausal women with hypertriglyceridemia who require hormone therapy are encouraged to switch to transdermal preparations. It is not clear if transdermal application influences cardiovascular outcomes.48In addition, oral contraceptives (OC) with low doses of estrogen should be used in women with controlled dyslipidemia, as studies of low dose triphasic OC have resulted in no significant changes or only mild elevations in TC, LDL-C, and TG levels. Contraceptives can be considered for women with uncontrolled LDL-C levels or multiple CV risk factors, including using non-androgenic or anti-androgenic progestins as they have minimal influence on the lipid profile.50

 

In postmenopausal women, hormone therapy with estrogen alone or estrogen combined with a progestin is utilized for the treatment of hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms. Similar to studies evaluating OC, oral estrogen has also been shown to increase HDL-C and TG levels, and reduce LDL-C.49Combined hormone replacement therapy regimens have similar effects on TC levels and LDL-C as estrogens.9Studies have shown that unopposed estrogen has a more beneficial effect on HDL-C than estrogen and progestin in combination but both similarly lowered LDL-C and increased TG in postmenopausal women.43There is conflicting evidence if hormone replacement therapy is associated with a protective cardiovascular effect in postmenopausal women and more recent data from a systematic review demonstrated that estrogen only increased the risk of a stroke (RR 1.34; 95% CI 1.07 to 1.68) and venous thromboembolism (RR 1.32; 95% CI 1 to 1.74), and there was no significant difference compared to placebo in risk of coronary events.56Combined hormone therapy compared to placebo demonstrated a significant increase in coronary events (RR 1.89; 95% CI 1.15 to 3.1), stroke (RR 1.38; 95% CI 1.08 to 1.75), and venous thromboembolism (RR 4.28; 95% FI 2.49 to 7.34).56   Data has also shown that the effects of hormone therapy on CV outcomes are influenced by age and time since onset of menopause and that estrogen may slow down the early stages of atherosclerosis and have more favorable effects in women with more recent onset of menopause.57Overall, long term data suggests that hormone therapy may have a harmful effect on CHD risk in older women, and the results in younger women remain inconclusive. At this time, treatment for the purpose of prevention of coronary heart disease or chronic disease prevention is not recommended. For postmenopausal women, short-term therapy should be used at the lowest effective dose.58For those with hypertriglyceridemia, the use of transdermal estrogen may be a preferred alternative to oral.

 

ANABOLIC STEROIDS

 

Danazol

 

Danazol is a synthetic steroid indicated for endometriosis and fibrocystic breast disease as well as for prophylaxis in patients with hereditary angioedema (HAE).59,60A review of data for the treatment of endometriosis showed that danazol treatment can result in a rapid reduction in HDL-C by up to 50% and increase in LDL-C by 10-40%.61However, these levels return to baseline levels after stopping therapy and there is only a concern in prolonged therapy for 12 months or greater or in patients with a high risk of CV disease.60This effect is consistent in the literature.62-65The mechanism is likely from its effects on hepatic lipase, LDL receptor, and lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase activity. Data also supports an altering of lipoprotein levels in women treated for endometriosis, but there may not be an effect in the treatment of HAE.66Some possible explanations for this difference are that HAE doses are lower than doses used for the treatment of endometriosis, the duration of therapy is longer and often lifelong versus 2-6 months for endometriosis, and men are also treated for HAE. A randomized trial evaluated danazol on HDL-C in healthy volunteers and patients with HAE. Patients with CV disease or significant risk factors for CV disease were excluded in the healthy volunteer study. Short-term use in healthy subjects (n=15) demonstrated a 23% decrease in HDL-C levels; however, these were normalized by 4 weeks of treatment. There was no effect seen on LDL-C or TG. Longer-term use in patients with HAE did not appear to decrease HDL-C levels compared to matched healthy controls. This study supports the belief that the differences in study populations as well as varying duration and doses of danazol impact the effect danazol has on the lipid profile. However, other studies have shown conflicted results and also demonstrated decrease in HDL-C (as well as apolipoprotein Apo A-I; the major component of the HDL particle) and increase in LDL in long term use for the prevention of HAE.66,67However, this negative effect was not shown to translate into an increased risk of atherosclerosis.67

 

Androgens

 

Similarly, studies of bodybuilders and weight lifters using anabolic steroids have revealed reductions in HDL-C levels by 20-70% accompanied by decreases in apo A-I levels, as well as elevations in LDL-C by approximately 20%.68-71The misuse of anabolic steroids in strength athletes has previously been associated with CV events which may be in part due to the adverse lipid effects associated with their use. One small study confirmed that self-administration of anabolic steroids produced unfavorable effects on lipids and lipoproteins, including a decrease in serum concentrations of HDL-C, and Apo-A1.70Serum LDL-C levels may increase through induction of hepatic triglyceride lipase and the catabolism of VLDL. Through this process, HDL-C serum levels are also reduced. A more recent literature review described 49 reports of 1,467 athletes using anabolic-androgenic steroids corroborating the link and reports that these changes can occur within 9 weeks of self-administration and the effects seem to be reversible and normalize within 5 months after discontinuation.72The majority of the evidence is based on small, observational studies or single case reports and may reflect significant publication bias. However, use of anabolic-androgenic steroids has also been linked to elevated blood pressure, left ventricular hypertrophy, acute myocardial infarction, and sudden death and awareness of these potential adverse effects may benefit athletes and increase recognition of young otherwise healthy individuals with CV abnormalities.

 

Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) is hormone therapy used for the treatment of prostate cancer and is associated with a variety of metabolic adverse events, including lipid alterations.73This can be done by surgical castration or medical castration with gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists (also called luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists). These agents can cause changes in lipid levels, including increases in TC, TG, and HDL-C.73Studies have shown different changes on LDL-C; with some showing an increase and others with no significant changes. Small studies have demonstrated increases in TGs of up to 25% and HDL- C increases of up to 11%. Furthermore, a longer term study over 1 year observed these changes did not persist after 6 months.74Given that ADT may increase the risk of lipid changes as well as obesity and insulin resistance, studies have also evaluated the effects of ADT on CV disease and observational studies have suggested an association between ADT and a greater risk of CV disease.75One explanation for this association is that ADT interferes with the cardioprotective property of testosterone and therefore, increases the risk for adverse events. In 2010, the FDA released a drug safety communication informing of the increased risk of diabetes and certain CV diseases (heart attack, sudden cardiac death, stroke) in men receiving GnRH agonists for the treatment of prostate cancer based on their review of several published studies.76However, this was based on mostly small observational studies and RCTs have remained conflicted on this relationship, as seen in a recent meta-analysis of randomized trials.77

 

Testosterone replacement products are approved for men who have low testosterone levels caused by various medical conditions. Nonetheless, the use of testosterone therapy is increasing, including for men who have low testosterone simply due to aging.78Recent studies have shown that the risk of MI and other CV-related events may be increased with the use of testosterone therapy and that testosterone therapy should be avoided in certain high risk patients.78,79However, most of the data remains observational and many report conflicting results. Further RCTs are needed to clarify the concern. If treatment with testosterone does increase the development of arteriosclerotic heart disease, one potential mechanism is through an adverse effect on serum lipids and apolipoprotein levels. However, studies to date have not demonstrated a significant effect on lipid or lipoprotein levels, with possibly a slight decrease in HDL-C occurring due to changes in the HDL protein composition.80-82

 

GROWTH HORMONE

 

Adults with growth hormone deficiency frequently have lipid abnormalities, decreased insulin sensitivity and an increased CV morbidity and mortality. Treatment with recombinant human growth hormone, or somatropin, for adults with growth hormone deficiency has contributed to positive lipid changes, including decreased levels of TC and LDL-C by 10-25%.83-88There appears to be no significant effect on TG levels and data is conflicted on changes in HDL-C, with most studies demonstrating an increase in serum HDL-C.84Conversely, studies have showed no effect on HDL-C, as well as a decrease by approximately 20% has been reported.89There is some data to suggest that individual response to growth hormone on lipid metabolism is partly influenced by genetic polymorphisms in genes related to lipid metabolism.90

 

A recent prospective, open-label, single-center study reports the effects of 15 years of growth hormone replacement in 156 adults with growth hormone deficiency.84After prolonged therapy, there were decreases in serum levels of TC and LDL-C; with corresponding increases in HDL-C (p<0.001 for all vs. baseline levels). There were no significant changes in serum TG levels. This long observational study demonstrates that treatment of growth hormone deficiency in adults results in sustained improvements in the serum lipid profile. This could be due to improvements in body composition or direct effects on lipid metabolism. Studies suggest that growth hormone may increase the expression of LDL receptors, improves the catabolism of LDL, increase the turnover of LDL, and increase apo B-100 turnover. Nonetheless, evidence that these improvements result in decreased mortality from ASCVD remains unknown.

 

RETINOIDS

 

Retinoids are synthetic analogues of Vitamin A effective for the treatment of psoriasis, severe acne and other related skin disorders caused by abnormal keratinization. Oral isotretinoin was first reported to cause hypertriglyceridemia; most likely due to a reduction in the clearance of VLDL particles, which interferes with lipoprotein lipase-mediated lipolysis.91,92 Retinoids have also been shown to increase plasma apo C-III concentrations by increasing the transcriptional activity of the human apo C-III gene via the retinoid X receptor (RXR), ultimately contributing to the development of hypertriglyceridemia.93,94Isotretinoin has been established as effective treatment for severe nodular acne that is unresponsive to conventional therapy, including systemic antibiotics. However, it has been reported to cause a variety of adverse events with some potential serious consequences, including case reports of pancreatitis.95Patients with significantly elevated TG levels are more likely to develop pancreatitis and therefore, patients with preexisting hypertriglyceridemia should avoid retinoid therapy or use with extreme caution until TG levels can get better controlled. In addition, a baseline lipid profile should be obtained in all patients and TG levels checked at least once after four weeks of therapy. Patients with a higher risk of developing hypertriglyceridemia should be monitored more frequently.

 

Studies with isotretinoin have demonstrated a rise in VLDL-C, TG, LDL-C, and TC with a slight decrease in HDL-C .3One study evaluated the subsequent risk in ASCVD in 104 men and women using isotretinoin for severe acne using the ratio of TC/HDL-C.84The results showed that in otherwise healthy individuals, the changes in lipid metabolism did not influence the overall risk of ASCVD significantly.

 

ANTIPSYCHOTICS

 

Antipsychotic medications can be highly effective in controlling psychiatric illnesses. However, some of these are also associated with metabolic adverse events that can increase the risk for ASCVD.96-99One such adverse event includes dyslipidemia, with increases primarily occurring in TG levels. Phenothiazines, which are first generation or ‘typical’ antipsychotics, were found to elevate serum TG and TC levels soon after their approval, with a greater effect on TG levels. Studies have shown an increase of up to 22% after a year of treatment with chlorpromazine. 3Further studies have observed similar effects with trifluronated phenothiazines and haloperidol. The main limiting adverse effects of first generation antipsychotics are extrapyramidal symptoms and other movement disorders due to their high-affinity of dopamine D2receptors. Still, the possibility that these drugs also contribute to lipoprotein abnormalities should be considered in patients with dyslipidemia or high CV risk.

 

Second generation, or ‘atypical’ antipsychotics were later developed to reduce relapse rates and adverse events. Compared to first generation antipsychotics, they have lower affinity for the D2receptors and instead act namely on serotonin and norepinephrine. They have become first line treatment due to a lower potential risk of extrapyramidal symptoms. However, metabolic side effects including an increase in serum TG levels as well as minor increased in TC, has also been demonstrated with the use of second generation antipsychotics. Some studies suggest this is a result of increased leptin levels; an adipocyte hormone that corresponds with a decrease in the synthesis of fatty acid and TG and an increase in lipid oxidation.100There are many other possible mechanisms for the drug induced hyperlipidemia and the exact mechanisms are not fully understood. Clozapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, was the first agent shown to increase serum TG levels.101A retrospective study reviewed patients on clozapine and found that men on clozapine had an average 48.13% increase in TG level and women 35.38% and there was a significant interaction between drug and gender over time (p<0.05).101

 

In addition, weight gain is a common adverse effect of using atypical antipsychotics which can also lead to an increase in both leptin and TG levels.100   The 5-HT2c receptor-blocking and/or histamine antagonism action of these medications is a possible cause of the related weight gain. One study demonstrated a significant increase in weight and serum TG and leptin levels with olanzapine and clozapine, with minimal and moderate changes in those on risperidone and quetiapine, respectively.100However, this was an extremely small study (n=56) that and it is difficult to translate these results to the general population. This is consistent with the overall evidence and it appears that clozapine and olanzapine have the greatest effect on the risk of hyperlipidemia, followed by quietapine. Risperidone, ziprasidone and aripiprazole have a relatively low risk of hyperlipidemia associated with their use.101As access to general and preventive care remains a limitation for patient populations with schizophrenia, these adverse effects can be of great concern for a population already at increased risk of CV complications. Therefore, checking baseline lipid levels and screening for the duration of therapy may be necessary in patients receiving therapy with atypical antipsychotics. If a patient develops elevated TG levels or dyslipidemia, they should be offered lipid-lowering therapy or if possible, switched to a less offending agent.

 

ANTICONVULSANTS

 

Changes in serum lipid levels have been reported with the use of various anticonvulsants with variability and inconsistency in the literature. Some observational studies have reported elevated levels of LDL-C and HDL-C while others have shown no significant effects. Triglyceride levels are not influenced by treatment with anticonvulsants. Since most anticonvsulants induce the hepatic cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes, it is theorized that competition between the medication and cholesterol for the enzyme occurs which results in a decreased breakdown of cholesterol to bile acids and an increase in TC.9This inconsistency has been noted in studies in both adults and pediatrics with epilepsy and it appears differences may exist based on the individual anticonvulsant used. In addition, the influence of therapy on development of atherosclerosis remains debatable.

 

Epilepsy often requires lifelong therapy and the long-term administration of some antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) is associated with metabolic side effects from dysfunction of the vessel wall. In particular, carbamazepine and phenobarbital have shown to cause alterations in the lipid profile. In children and adolescents with epilepsy, carbamazepine has demonstrated a consistent increase in TC and LDL-C levels, while some individual studies have also shown an increase in HDL-C as well as TG levels.102,103Treatment of epilepsy in children with phenobarbital has also shown increased TC, LDL-C and HDL-C, as well as lower TG levels. Valproic acid appears to have little effect, or even a slightly favorable effect, on the lipid profile.102

 

IMMUNOSUPPRESSIVES

 

Corticosteroids

 

It has been generally postulated that chronic glucocorticoid excess is a secondary cause of dyslipidemia, but the degree of lipid abnormalities in clinical conditions is extremely variable and studies have remained conflicted and inconsistent.104Observational studies of steroid treatment in patients with asthma, rheumatoid arthritis, or connective tissue disorders have shown elevations in TC, LDL-C, and serum TG levels.3,105These are all illnesses that may require long-term treatment with corticosteroids. However, a large survey demonstrated no association with an adverse lipid profile and glucocorticoid use.106One study found that pre-menopausal females who were taking corticosteroids for a mean of 3.1 years had a significant elevation in TC and decrease in HDL-C. Conversely, a study in female patients with asthma noticed a significant increase in serum TG but no changes in TC.107The potential mechanisms of the effect on the lipid profile is multifactorial. One theory for this increase in TG is due to the redistribution of body fat caused by corticosteroid treatment to the upper trunk and face with a loss of fat in the extremities resulting in cells with fewer glucocorticoid receptors in addition to the stimulation of both lipolysis and lipogenesis.104This results in a spared effect on glucose transport in cells with fewer receptors resulting in an accumulation of glucose and TG secondary to a rise in insulin levels.108Insulin resistance also plays a role in lipid abnormalities. In the liver, glucocorticoids cause hyperglycemia, increase VLDL production, enhance hepatic lipogenesis and inhibit fatty acid β-oxidation. Furthermore, they increase the synthesis and secretion of apolipoprotein AI.

 

Changes in lipid metabolism due to corticosteroid treatment has also been evaluated in women with systemic lupus erythematous (SLE).109Patients with SLE may be at an increased risk for atherosclerotic CAD, which could be potentiated by the changes in lipid serum levels from corticosteroid administration. When compared to women with SLE not treated with prednisone, patients on prednisone had higher TG, TC, and LDL-C levels. 109It appears that women may be more prone to these changes than men, and in many of these chronic illnesses, the use of corticosteroids is unavoidable. It is prudent to educate patients about the risks and benefits associated with long-term therapy with corticosteroids and to support life-style changes that help prevent ASCVD.

 

Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus

 

Cyclosporine and tacrolimus are immunosuppressant agents used as mainstay therapy for solid organ transplant recipients. Several metabolic abnormalities are associated with the use of both of these medications, including glucose intolerance, bone loss, and elevations in TC and LDL-C and apo B-100 levels. Effects on HDL-C levels are inconsistent, but trials have also demonstrated increases in HDL-C.9Hyperlipidemia can occur in up to 60% in post-transplant patients.110This is due to a combination of factors, including post-transplant obesity, multiple drug therapy (including steroids and other immunosuppressants) and diabetes. These drug effects are much greater with cyclosporine than tacrolimus, which has minimal effects on TC and LDL-C, and smaller effects on TG levels than cyclosporine.111A randomized prospective trial compared a tacrolimus-based regimen to a cyclosporine-based regimen in patients undergoing a cardiac transplant. After 12 months of therapy, serum TC, LDL-C, HDL-C and TG were significantly higher in the cyclosporine group compared to tacrolimus and more patients received medical treatment for elevated lipids (71% vs. 41%; p=0.01).100The impact of cyclosporine on lipid levels appears to be dose dependent and trough blood levels correlate with the elevations in TC and LDL-C, as well as reductions in HDL-C levels.112The mechanisms by which cyclosporine causes hyperlipidemia are unclear, as the effects in humans are confounded by many other factors in transplant patients.

 

Due to the complex state of transplant patients and the increased risk of ASCVD, attention should be given to these adverse events and other risk factors. Serum drug levels should be monitored during treatment as increases in drug levels are associated with negative adverse events. In addition, if appropriate, conversion from cyclosporine to tacrolimus can be considered if post-transplant hyperlipidemia occurs, and several studies have demonstrated this.113-115Although patients may benefit from therapy with a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, concomitant use of cyclosporine and HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors has been shown to increase the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis due to a potential drug-drug interaction through inhibition of the CYP3A-mediated metabolism of simvastatin and cyclosporine inhibition of the organic anion transporter protein (OATP1B1)-mediated hepatic uptake of simvastatin.116,117As pravastatin and fluvastatin are not significantly metabolized by CYP enzymes, they may be a favorable choice in this patient population due to the decreased risk of drug-drug interactions.118However, pravastatin and fluvastatin doses should still be lowered due to cyclosporine inhibition of the OATP1B1-mediated hepatic uptake. Furthermore, fluvastatin has been shown to reduce CV events and lower LDL-C concentrations in transplant recipients receiving immunosuppressive therapy with cyclosporine.119

 

ANTIVIRAL THERAPY

 

Protease Inhibitors

 

Protease inhibitors (PIs) are potent antiretroviral drugs used in combination with other therapy as part of a antiretorivral regimen for the treatment of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).120These PIs have substantial clinical benefits, but can also produce lipodystrophy, hyperlipidemia, and insulin resistance.121,122The hyperlipidemia is thought to be caused by increases in VLDL production and intermediate density lipoproteins (IDL) with the potential to cause endothelial dysfunction and atheroslcerosis. Enzymes imperative for the removal of triglyceride rich lipoproteins are also decreased in HIV patients. This includes lipoprotein lipase and hepatic lipase. PI associated insulin resistance and abnormal expression of the apolipoprotein C-III gene may also induce dyslipidemia.123

 

Studies evaluating PIs have shown increases in TC as well as triglycerides with little to no effects on HDL-C and inconsistent increases in LDL-C levels.124There is insufficient evidence directly linking dyslipidemia and the risk of CHD in HIV infected individuals. The main increase being in triglyceride-containing lipoproteins supports the mechanism of a release of free fatty acids and resulting increase in synthesis of VLDL causing these changes. While all PIs can change lipid levels, ritonavir appears to have the greatest effects and has also been reported to cause cases of extreme hyperlipidemia. During a randomized, 4-week double blind study, ritonavir was associated with at least a doubling of the serum triglyceride level in 24 (61%) patients compared to only 4 (19%) patients on placebo (p=0.003) and seven subjects had triglyceride levels exceeding 1000 mg/dl.125Patients with high serum triglyceride levels are at a higher risk of pancreatitis, which has been reported after protease inhibitor therapy.126Therefore, the long-term complications of elevated lipids in the setting of HIV should be taken into consideration in patients treated with PIs. Guideline supported lipid lowering therapy and efforts to modify other CV risk factors should be initiated in patients.127Guidelines from the HIV Medicine Association and Infectious Disease Society of America (IDSA)/Adult Aids Clinical Trials Group recommend pravastatin or atorvastatin as initial therapy for elevated LDL-C to avoid potential drug-drug interactions with PIs mediated through the CYP450 enzyme system.123  Gemfibrozil or fenofibrate are recommended when triglyceride concentrations are greater than 500 mg/dl.123In higher risk patients, switching to a treatment regimen without a PI is another option.

 

Direct Acting Antivirals

 

Regimens of direct acting antivirals (DAAs) have vastly changed the treatment of chronic hepatitis C (CHC) since the approval of sofosbuvir in 2014. The DAAs have shown to be more effective than previous standard of care (interferon-based treatments such as pegylated interferon and ribavirin) in producing sustained virologic response (SVR) of ≥90% and are associated with fewer side effects.128There are currently four classes of DAAs, defined by their mechanism of action and therapeutic target (NS3/4A inhibitors, protease inhibitors [PIs], NS5B inhibitors and NS5A inhibitors).128  Recommended regimens today consist of multiple antivirals that target different sites to improve efficacy and decrease resistance rates.

 

While the hepatitis C virus itself can impact lipid metabolism, treatment with a DAA regimen has been associated with short term increases in LDL-C, TC, and HDL-C. 129There do not appear to be any significant effects on TG’s.  This effect may result from a cancellation of the suppressive effect from HCV viral replication or from direct pharmacologic activity of the DAA’s themselves.130  The magnitude of effect does seem to vary based on DAA regimen with an increase in LDL-C of up to 27% reported.  More studies are needed to elucidate the exact mechanism of action and which regimens have the greatest impact.

 

Since treatment duration is defined and short term (12-24 weeks), it is unlikely that these changes will negatively impact long term CV health. However, it is important to acknowledge that many of these agents have pharmacokinetic drug-drug interactions with statins.  Clinicians may elect to temporarily hold statin therapy which may also contribute to changes in the lipid profile during the treatment period.

 

 

INTERFERONS

 

Interferons are associated with a wide range of systemic complications including neuropsychiatric changes, fatigue, and bone marrow suppression. Although metabolic side effects are less frequent, α interferon is known to inhibit lipoprotein lipase, stimulate hepatic lipogenesis and is associated with an increase in TG.131,132A cohort study of patients with chronic hepatitis C on treatment with various forms α interferon were evaluated for changes in TG and TC.132   Overall, mean serum TG levels rose 40% at 12 weeks and returned to baseline by 24 weeks after stopping therapy. However, the effect on individual patients was variable and 41 patients (27%) experienced TGs that more than doubled from baseline. There was no significant change in TC noted. The long-term complications of this have not been evaluated and no patients in the study developed acute pancreatitis. It appears that any significant clinical consequence from this rise in TG is extremely rare. There did not seem to be a difference in change in levels based on the specific form of α interferon that was used, including the long-acting PEGylated forms.

 

As the landscape for the treatment of chronic hepatitis C transitions to interferon-free regimens with DAAs, this may be irrelevant in these patients. However, this effect on TG has been seen in the treatment with interferons for other illnesses, including chronic myelogenous leukemia and other cancers.133,134It has recently been elucidated that interleukin-10 plays a key role in the linkage between inflammation and lipoprotein metabolism and that patients with cancer or other autoimmune diseases associated with elevated interleukin-10 levels can present with markedly decreased HDL-C, low LDL-C and elevated TG. 135Patients receiving interferon treatment for the treatment of cancer can be considered for anti-dyslipidemic medications to manage secondary hypertriglyceridemia.136

 

OTHER DRUGS THAT AFFECT LIPOPROTEIN LEVELS

 

Various other drugs have been reported to affect lipid and/or lipoprotein levels (Table 4). Lipid changes from these drugs are based on limited data, are reported inconsistently, and could be due to other disease related aspects. Thus, the effects on serum lipid levels cannot fully be

substantiated.

 

Table 4. Other Drugs that Affect Lipid and/or Lipoproteins
Antacids
Ascorbic Acid
Aspirin
Cimetidine/ranitidine
Cyclophosphamide
Interferons
Ketoconazole
L-asparaginase
Neomycin
Aminosalicylid acid

 

 

MANAGEMENT

 

Several medication classes or individual medications can affect the lipid profile, both positively and negatively. Risk factors include elevated lipid levels at baseline and high cardiovascular risk patients. Identifying potential medications as the cause of these changes and monitoring the lipid profile while on therapy can provide value to the care of the patient. However, the long-term implications of these drugs on ASCVD mortality and morbidity remains unknown and there is limited evidence on the overall impact of these drug-induced changes.

 

A thorough risk-benefit analysis of each treatment should be done based on individual patient factors. In general, if negative changes in the lipid profile are observed during therapy, replacement with an equivalent alternative therapy can be recommended. If no equivalent therapy is available and treatment must be initiated, then monitoring of serum lipid levels is vital. The use of existing guidelines for the management of dyslipidemia in the general population can be referred to and in extreme cases; the use of the suspected medication should be reassessed.

 

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Postpartum Thyroiditis

CLINICAL RECOGNITION

 

Postpartum thyroiditis is the term used for patients who develop painless thyroiditis in the postpartum period. It occurs within 6 months (typically 2 to 4 months) after delivery and runs a clinical course identical to that of painless thyroiditis occurring without relation to pregnancy. The clinical course of thyroid dysfunction is similar to subacute thyroiditis but with no anterior neck pain or tenderness of the thyroid. The prevalence of postpartum thyroiditis ranges from 3 to 8 per cent of all pregnancies. Most women with subclinical autoimmune thyroiditis and antithyroid microsomal antibodies of more than 1:5120 before pregnancy develop postpartum thyroiditis. After delivery, other forms of autoimmune thyroid dysfunction may also occur, including Graves' disease, transient hypothyroidism without preceding destructive thyrotoxicosis, and persistent hypothyroidism (Fig. 1).

Fig. 1 Various clinical courses of thyroid dysfunction after delivery. A typical form of postpartum thyroiditis is “(III) Destructive thyrotoxicosis”. RAIU, radioactive iodine uptake.

 

The typical course is characterized by three sequential phases: the thyrotoxic, the hypothyroid and recovery phase. The thyrotoxic phase occurs 1–3 months after parturition and lasts for a few months, followed by hypothyroidism at 3–6 months after delivery. Finally, normal thyroid function is usually achieved within a year. Most patients have a complete remission, but some develop persistent hypothyroidism.

 

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY

 

This disorder is believed to be an autoimmune disorder and is characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid gland and by transient thyrotoxicosis followed by hypothyroidism or by one or the other occurring in the first year after parturition. An immune rebound mechanism has been established for the induction of postpartum thyroiditis. Thyrotoxicosis is induced by leakage of intrathyroidal hormones into the circulation caused by damage to thyroid epithelial cells from inflammation. The early phase of thyrotoxicosis in postpartum thyroiditis can be classified as destruction-induced thyrotoxicosis or simply as destructive thyrotoxicosis.

 

DIAGNOSIS AND DIFFERENTIAL

 

Diagnostic Tests Needed and Suggested

 

Serum TSH is suppressed, associated with an increase in serum FT3 and FT4 levels. The thyroid radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU) is low. When the measurement of RAIU is difficult due to nursing, the measurement of anti-TSH receptor antibody and/or thyroid blood flow by ultrasonography may be useful to differentiate between destruction-induced thyrotoxicosis and Graves' thyrotoxicosis. Positive TPOAb or TGAb indicate the autoimmune nature of the disease.

 

THERAPY

 

If symptoms or signs of thyrotoxicosis are severe, beta-blocker drugs can be administered for the duration of the thyrotoxic phase. Propylthiouracil can be used to inhibit conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine. Obviously, RAI treatment is excluded since RAIU is suppressed in the toxic phase. During the hypothyroid phase, L-T4 at replacement doses is recommended.

 

FOLLOW-UP

 

Patients who have developed permanent hypothyroidism should be treated with replacement doses of L-T4. All patients should be monitored for thyroid function test at their next pregnancy, delivery and postpartum.

.

REFERENCES

 

  1. Akamizu T, Amino N. Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis. In: De Groot LJ, Chrousos G, Dungan K, Feingold KR, Grossman A, Hershman JM, Koch C, Korbonits M, McLachlan R, New M, Purnell J, Rebar R, Singer F, Vinik A, editors. Endotext [Internet]. South Dartmouth (MA): MDText.com, Inc.; 2000- 2017 Jul 17.
  2. Lazarus J, Okosieme OE. Hypothyroidism in Pregnancy. In: De Groot LJ, Chrousos G, Dungan K, Feingold KR, Grossman A, Hershman JM, Koch C, Korbonits M, McLachlan R, New M, Purnell J, Rebar R, Singer F, Vinik A, editors. Endotext [Internet]. South Dartmouth (MA): MDText.com, Inc.; 2000- 2015 Apr 12.
  3. Roti E, Uberti E. Post-partum thyroiditis--a clinical update. Eur J Endocrinol. 2002 Mar;146(3):275-9.
  4. Azizi F, Amouzegar A. Management of hyperthyroidism during pregnancy and lactation. Eur J Endocrinol. 2011 Jun;164(6):871-6

Florid Cushing’s Syndrome

CLINICAL RECOGNITION

 

Cushing’s syndrome (CS) results from long-standing exposure to supraphysiologic concentrations of circulating glucocorticoids. Untreated CS is associated with a high morbidity and increased mortality rates mainly because of its metabolic abnormalities and the risk of infection. When the presentation is florid, the diagnosis is usually straightforward (Tables 1 and 2). However, diagnosis might be complicated by the non-specificity of some of the clinical symptoms; notably, the signs that most reliably distinguish CS from obesity are those of protein wasting – the presence of thin skin, easy bruising, and proximal muscle weakness.

Table 1 Signs, Symptoms of Cushing’s Syndrome

Signs Symptoms
Buffalo hump, moon face; flushing/red face 
Weight gain/ central obesity
Easy bruising/ecchymosis
Proximal myopathy/wasting/muscular atrophy 
Purplish skin striae 
Skin pigmentation
Thin skin/ skin disorders 
Edema; 
Fundal abnormalities 
Hair thin, dry
Loss of weight
Poor growth/short stature; 
Facial hirsutism (±frontal balding)
Fine non-pigmented vellus hair
Acne
Virilization
Galactorrhea
Fatigue, lethargy, poor exercise ability 
Headaches/migraines 
Joint aches 
Sweating 
Visual disturbances
Thirst/polydipsia 
Loss of libido 
Poor memory
Poor concentration
Slowed responses

Table 2 Disorders Associated with Cushing’s Cyndrome

Hypertension/ CVD/ prolonged QTc dispersion/ LVH

Hyperhomocysteinemia/ increased thrombotic tendency

Diabetes

Obesity/ increased visceral fat/ hepatic steatosis

Infection

Depression/ emotional lability/ anxiety/ sleep disorders/ lethargy/ psychosis/ psychiatric disorders

Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

Osteoporosis/ vertebral fractures

Cognitive/memory impairment

Renal stones

Thyroid disorders

Growth retardation

Menstrual disorders/ PCO

 

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY

 

See http://www.endotext.org/neuroendo/neuroendo7/neuroendoframe7.htm

 

DIAGNOSIS and DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS

 

The most common cause of CS is the use of supraphysiological amounts of exogenous glucocorticoids. (Table 3) Typically this is of moderate severity, and not an emergency. A detailed drug history is essential for diagnosis.

Table 3 Etiology of Cushing's Syndrome

Exogenous causes
Exogenous glucocorticoid administration
Iatrogenic

Drug--drug interactions (via hepatic enzyme CYP3A4 and P-glycoprotein (PGP) export pump)

Factitious

Exogenous ACTH administration
Iatrogenic
Endogenous causes
ACTH-dependent (80-85%)
Cushing's disease (80%)

Ectopic ACTH syndrome (20%) 
Ectopic CRH syndrome (<1%)

ACTH-independent (20%)
Adrenal adenoma (60%)
Adrenal carcinoma (40%)
ACTH-independent bilateral macronodular adrenal hyperplasia (AIMAH)±secondary to abnormal hormone receptor expression/function or armadillo repeat-containing-5 (ARMC5) gene mutations (<1%)
Sporadic or associated with Carney complex primary pigmented nodular adrenal disease (PPNAD) or micronodular adrenal disease(<1%)
Bilateral nodular adrenal disease in McCune-Albright syndrome (<1%)
Constitutive activation ACTH receptor by missense mutation (<1%)

 

Endogenous CS is more common in women. Corticotrophin (ACTH)-dependent CS is caused mainly by a pituitary corticotroph adenoma (Cushing’s disease, CD) secreting ACTH, or by an extra-pituitary tumor (ectopic ACTH syndrome, EAS, (Table 4). ACTH-independent CS is caused by unilateral adrenocortical tumors or by bilateral adrenal hyperplasia or dysplasia.

 

In ACTH-dependent CS, elevated ACTH secretion results in excess adrenal gland cortisol secretion. The normal cortisol feedback mechanism of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis is distorted, with loss of the circadian rhythm, excess cortisol production, and loss of normal suppression to the exogenous administration of glucocorticoids. EAS can have a rapid onset with severe features, although in some patients a paraneoplastic wasting syndrome can mask the hypercortisolism. The metabolic abnormalities such as hyperglycemia and hypokalemia tend to be more florid in EAS.

 

Table 4 Tumors More Frequently Associated with Ectopic ACTH Syndrome

Tumors Percentage reported (%)
Small cell lung carcinoma 3.3-50
Bronchial carcinoids 5-40
Islet cell tumors/ pancreatic carcinoids 7.5-25
Thymic carcinoids 5-42
Pheochromocytoma 2.5-25
Medullary thyroid carcinoma 2-8
Gastrinoma 5
Tumour not identified 12-37.5

 

In ACTH-independent CS, the most common pathology is an adrenal adrenocortical adenoma (AAA) or carcinoma (AAC) (Table 3). Adrenal adenomas occur most often around 35 years of age and are more common in women with an incidence of approximately 0.6 per million per year. The incidence of ACC is approximately 0.2 per million per year. Different frequencies have been observed in childhood (Table 5).

 

Table 5 Cushing’s Syndrome Presence In Children

Age group Mean age (yr)
McCune Albright syndrome infants 1.2
Adrenal adrenocortical carcinoma young children 4.5
Ectopic ACTH syndrome (rare) older children 10.1
Primary pigmented nodular adrenal disease adolescents 13.0
Cushing’s disease adolescents 14.1

 

DIAGNOSTIC TESTS NEEDED AND SUGGESTED

 

Diagnostic assessment is usually prompted by clinical suspicion in cases of florid CS seen as medical emergencies. In the investigation of CS, the initial biochemical tests should ideally have maximal sensitivity rather than specificity in order to identify individuals with the mild forms of this rare disease; later, more specific tests are used to exclude false positives (Table 6). Hypercortisolemia must be established before any attempt at the differential diagnosis. A combination of the following tests is initially used: 24-h urinary free cortisol (UFC), ideally measured by liquid chromatography tandem-mass spectrometry to improve accuracy, low-dose dexamethasone suppression test (LDDST) or overnight dexamethasone test (ODST), and assessment of midnight serum cortisol (MSeC) or late-night salivary cortisol (LNSaC) (Tables 6 and 7). However, it should be emphasized that in cases presenting with severe disease, a massively elevated serum cortisol at any time, or a urinary cortisol more than 4x the upper limit of normal, is sufficient to confirm the diagnosis. No other tests may be required for the diagnosis.

Table 6 Tests Used For The Establishment Of Hypercortisolemia

Normal
24-hr UFC free cortisol/ creatinine measurement 3 normal collections
ODST 1mg dexamethasone midnight <50nmol/L(<1.8μg/dL) 9:00 
next morning
LDDST 0.5mg dexamethasone/6hr for 48hrs (09.00 day0; post-48hrs) <50nmol/L(<1.8μg/dL)
MSeC/ LNSaC Midnight/23:00hr Saliva: Local

range; serum: asleep<50nmol/L, awake: 207 nmol/l (7 μg/dL)

LDDST: Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test;
LNSaC: late-night salivary cortisol
MSeC: midnight serum cortisol;
ODST: overnight dexamethasone suppression test;
UFC: urinary free cortisol

 

The second step in the diagnostic cascade of CS is to establish the cause by measuring plasma ACTH. Values in the ‘grey zone’ are the most challenging since patients with both CD and adrenal pathologies might have intermediate values. However, a plasma ACTH above 20 ng/L will immediately establish ACTH-dependence, while levels below 10 ng/L will lead to the search for adrenal pathology. If ACTH is present, then the patient either has Cushing’s disease or an ectopic source. A positive ACTH and/or cortisol response to the CRH test will suggest Cushing’s disease, a poor response to either the LDDST or the high-dose test likewise, but bilateral inferior petrosal sinus sampling (BIPSS) is generally advised in all cases except when (1) there is an obvious macroadenoma on MRI of the pituitary, or (2) the patient is too ill and requires immediate medical therapy. Data on the utility of these tests are given in Table 7.

Table 7 Test Used For The Differential Diagnosis Of Hypercortisolemia

HDDST 2mg dexamethasone/6hr for 48hrs (09.00 day0; post-48hrs) cortisol suppression >50%: CD;
sensitivity:60-100%; specificity:65-100%
hCRH/oCRH test iv-bolus 1µg/kg 
or 100 µg
o-CRH: ACTH > 35%/ or cortisol > 20% specific for CD; h-CRH: ACTH > 105%/ or cortisol >14; sensitivity:94%;
BIPPS ACTH pituitary-to-periphery gradient Basal central-to-peripheral ratio > 2,
or post-CRH>3: CD; sensitivity/specificity: 94%
ACTH levels (±potassium, bicarbonate) < 1.1pmol/L (5pg/mL) ACTH-independent CS; > 3.3pmol/L (15pg/mL) ACTH-dependent pathologies; in-between further investigation
BIPPS: Bilateral inferior petrosal sinus sampling;
CRH: corticotrophin releasing hormone;
CS: Cushing’s syndrome;
h-CRH: recombinant human;
CRH HDDST: High-dose dexamethasone suppression test;
iv: intravenous; o-CRH: ovine-sequence CRH

If ACTH is very low or undetectable, then the next step is imaging of the adrenals. (Table 8). High-resolution computed tomography (CT) scanning of the adrenal glands gives the best resolution of adrenal anatomy and it is accurate for masses >1cm allowing evaluation of the contralateral gland. A mass >5 cm in diameter is considered to be malignant until proven otherwise.

Table 8 Adrenal Gland Imaging In Different Types Of Cushing’s Syndrome

Disease Adrenal gland morphology
Adrenal tumours typically unilateral mass + atrophic contralateral gland
PPNAD normal or slightly lumpy (multiple 
small nodules); not enlarged
AIMAH bilaterally huge (>5cm) with nodular pattern
ACTH-dependent forms of CS enlarged (70%)
Cushing’s disease Enlarged ± nodules; adrenal hyperplasia not always symmetrical ± adrenal autonomy
EAS virtually always homogeneously enlarged
Exogenous administrationof glucocorticoids adrenal atrophy and very 
small glands.
AIMAH: • ACTH-independent bilateral macronodular adrenal hyperplasia; EAS: ectopic ACTH syndrome; PPNAD: primary pigmented nodular adrenal disease

Go to:

THERAPY

 

The goals of treatment are the normalization of cortisol levels with a reversal of clinical symptoms. However, it is important in the short-term to manage the metabolic problems associated with florid CS. Diabetes needs to be controlled in the standard manner, often requiring insulin, while the blood pressure will also require urgent attention. Hypokalemia is a problem in almost all patients with EAS and some 10% of patients with other etiologies. Spironolactone at a dose of 50 or 100mg is usually effective, but triamterene is sometimes a good alternative. These patients also have a high pro-thrombotic tendency, and we would usually use sc heparin at prophylactic doses as opposed to severe cases where low molecular weight heparins should be used at therapeutic doses. Where the mental changes are severe and causing problems in management, haloperidol may be necessary to calm the patient, although there is also some experience with olanzapine.

 

These patients are at high risk of sepsis, often with minimal clinical signs, and any such infection must be vigorously treated. This includes bacterial, fungal and viral causes, as is seen in other immunosuppressed patients.

 

In terms of specific treatment of the hypercortisolemia (Table 9), where available metyrapone is rapid in onset and highly effective, but doses up to 1g qid may be required. Osilodrostat, displaying a similar profile but with higher potency and a better adverse effect profile, seems a promising currently experimental drug. Ketoconazole can be used additionally or in place of metyrapone, although its onset of action is slower, occurring over several days: up to 400mg tid may be used. As the dose is titrated upwards close monitoring of liver function tests is important. Levoketoconazole may have a better safety profile particularly regarding hepatotoxicity and is currently under trial. When neither drug alone or in combination is effective or tolerated, then intravenous etomidate at sub-anesthetic doses may be very useful: it acts within hours and is almost always very effective but should be administered in an intensive care unit. Finally, if all else fails, mifepristone 400-800mg daily can reduce the symptoms and signs of CS but there two caveats; serum cortisol cannot be used as marker of efficacy and the patient can become Addisonian unless care is taken, and severe hypokalemia may be induced (this is treatable with spironolactone).

 

In patients with severe infection, the serum cortisol should be lowered to a level compatible with that seen in other patients with life-threatening infection, which we take as 600-1000 nmol/L. Some would prophylactically treat for the possibility of pneumocytis carinii pnemonia.

 

In the long-term, surgical removal of the tumor of ACTH-dependent or ACTH-independent origin is the first-line therapeutic approach. Anti-glucocorticoid medical treatment is usually required before surgery to reverse the metabolic consequences and poor healing or in patients who cannot undergo surgical procedures because of co-morbidities, or who are unwilling to receive other types of treatment.

 

Table 9 Medical Treatment: Adrenal Secretion Inhibitors Or Adrenolytic Drugs

Drugs Drawbacks Blockage
Metyrapone Escape phenomenon; hypertension, hypokalemia, edema;
women: hirsutism
11ß-hydroxylase
Osilodrostat Possible escape phenomenon, weight gain, edema, hypernatremia, gastrointestinal effects, fatigue, headache, hypokalemia, 11ß-hydroxylase and aldosterone synthase
Ketoconazole Escape phenomenon; men: gynecomastia, hypogonadism; mild liver enzyme elevation; rarely: liver failure cytochromeP450 enzymes
(17,20-lyase; cholesterol
side-chain cleavage,16a-/ 17a-/ 18-/ 11ß-hydroxylase
Levoketoconazole better safety and efficacy compared to ketoconazole mainly 21-hydroxylase, 17α-hydroxylase, 11β-hydroxylase
Etomidate Sedation 11ß-hydroxylase; 17ß-hydroxylase 17,20-lyase; cholesterol side chain cleavage
Fluconazole Not well studied; possibly better tolerated  compared to ketoconazole As ketoconazole
Mitotane Slow onset of action; digestive symptoms;
neurotoxicity; hypercholesterolemia
Cholesterol side-chain cleavage 
11ß- and 18-hydroxylase 
3ß-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
Compounds targeting glucocorticoid function: Glucocorticoid antagonists
mifepristone No follow-up marker Competitive binding to the glucocorticoid, androgen and progestin receptors

 

In patients with CD trans-sphenoidal surgery (TSS) offers the potential to leave the remaining pituitary function intact. Initial remission rate is 60-80% but with a recurrence rate of up to 20% after prolonged follow-up. Macroadenoma remission rates are lower. Reoperation is possible. Hypocortisolemia in the immediate postoperative period needs glucocorticoid replacement treatment until HPA axis recovery. Postoperative concentration of cortisol <50nmol/L defines cure but is not predictive of no recurrence. After surgery failure, conventional fractionated external beam radiotherapy achieves control of hypercortisolemia in approximately 50–60% of patients within 3-5 years but with long-term hypopituitarism, and delayed effectiveness; this treatment seems more effective in children. Stereotactic radiosurgery has also been reported to be effective with probably the same time of onset of control, but as the beam is more focused there may be less hypopituitarism; the tumor needs to be well clear of the optic chiasm.

 

Resection of the causative tumor is the optimum treatment for EAS. If this is not feasible because of metastatic or occult disease an individualized approach has to be used.

 

In any cause of ACTH-dependent CS, bilateral adrenalectomy induces a rapid resolution of the clinical features after first-line treatment failure or when drugs are not effective or tolerated or when the rapid control of hypercortisolemia is crucial; however, patients will need lifelong treatment with glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids besides the careful education and the meticulous evaluation of patients.

 

Adrenal gland removal laparoscopically is the treatment of choice for unilateral adrenal adenomas. Prognosis after removal of an adenoma is good, as opposed to ACC which is poor. Those latter tumors are not usually radiosensitive or chemosensitive and the most important predictor of favorable outcome in this disease is complete resection.

 

In AIMAH, cortisol secretion can be controlled in some cases by blocking the corresponding aberrantly expressed receptor (propranolol for aberrant β-adrenergic receptor expression; somatostatin analogues in gastric inhibitory peptide responsive AIMAH or leuprolide in luteinizing hormone dependent CS). However, most patients need bilateral adrenalectomy.

 

FOLLOW-UP

 

Once the CS has been adequately treated, then long-term follow-up is mandated for all patients.

 

GUIDELINES

 

Nieman LK, Biller BM, Findling JW, Newell-Price J, Savage MO, Stewart PM, Montori VM. The diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome: an Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guideline. J Clin Endocrinol Metab. 2008 May;93(5):1526-40.

http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/18334580

 

Nieman LK, Biller BM, Findling JW, Murad MH, Newell-Price J, Savage MO, Tabarin A; Endocrine Society. Treatment of Cushing's Syndrome: An Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guideline. J Clin Endocrinol Metab. 2015 Aug;100(8):2807-31.

http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/26222757

 

REFERENCES

Morris DG and Grossman A. Cushing’s Syndrome,. in the on-line web-book,WWW.ENDOTEXT.ORG http://www.endotext.org/neuroendo/neuroendo7

 

Guignat L, Bertherat J. The diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome: an Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guideline: commentary from a European perspective. Eur J Endocrinol. 2010 Jul;163(1):9-13 http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/20375177

 

Biller BM, Grossman AB, Stewart PM, Melmed S, Bertagna X, Bertherat J, Buchfelder M, Colao A, Hermus AR, Hofland LJ, Klibanski A, Lacroix A, Lindsay JR, Newell-Price J, Nieman LK, Petersenn S, Sonino N, Stalla GK, Swearingen B, Vance ML, Wass JA, Boscaro M. Treatment of adrenocorticotropin-dependent Cushing's syndrome: a consensus statement. J Clin Endocrinol Metab. 2008 Jul;93(7):2454-62. http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/18413427

 

Arnaldi G, Angeli A, Atkinson AB, Bertagna X, Cavagnini F, Chrousos GP, Fava GA, Findling JW, Gaillard RC, Grossman AB, Kola B, Lacroix A, Mancini T, Mantero F, Newell-Price J, Nieman LK,,Sonino N, Vance ML, Giustina A, Boscaro M. Diagnosis and complications of Cushing's syndrome: a consensus statement. J Clin Endocrinol Metab. 2003 Dec;88(12):5593-602. http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/14671138

 

Alexandraki KI, Grossman AB. Therapeutic Strategies for the Treatment of Severe Cushing's Syndrome. Drugs. 2016 Mar;76(4):447-58. http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/26833215

 

Graves’ Disease: Complications

ABSTRACT

Thyroid storm is an acute and life-threatening worsening of hyperthyroidism, characterized by an exacerbation of symptoms and signs of hyperthyroidism, with high fever, dehydration, marked tachycardia or tachyarrhytmias, heart failure, hepatomegaly, respiratory distress, abdominal pain, delirium, possibly seizures. It may occur in patients submitted to thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine treatment while hyperthyroid, or as a consequence of infections in unteated hyperthyroid patients. Treatment consists of antithyroid drug treatmnt, rest, sedation, fluid and electrolyte replacement, cardio-supportive therapy, oxygen therapy, antibiotics, cooling. Mortality is about 10%.

Graves’ orbitopathy (GO) is the main extrathyroidal manifestation of Graves’ disease, found in about 25% of patients at diagnosis, often mild and self-remitting. Removal of risk factors (refrain from smoking, correction of thyroid dysfunction, oral steroid prophylaxis after radioactive iodine therapy, antioxidant therapy with seleniomethionine) are fundamental to prevent progression of mild GO to more severe forms. In moderate-to-severe and active GO, intravenous glucocorticoids are the first-line treatment, second line treatments include cyclosporine, orbital radiotherapy, rituximab (controversial). Novel biologicals, such as teprotumumab and tocilizumab are under investigation. Rehabilitative surgery (orbital decompression, squint surgery, eyelid surgery) is often required. Thyroid dermopathy (pretibial myxedema) is a rare complication of Graves’ disease, usually observed in patients who also have severe GO. Topical glucocorticoids are usually effective. Thyroid acropachy (clubbing of fingers and toes, with swelling of hands and feet) is an extremely rare conditions, for which no treatment is available.

Hypertyroidism may be complicated by severe cardiovascular manifestations, such as tachyarrhythmias (most commonly atrial fibrillation), congestive heart failure, angina, particularly in the elderly or in patients with preexisting heart abnormalities. Prompt restoration of euthyroidism is, therefore, warranted, as well as specific treatments for the heart.

 

 

THYROID STORM

Thyroid (or thyrotoxic) storm is an acute, life-threatening syndrome due to an exacerbation of thyrotoxicosis. It is now an infrequent condition, because of earlier diagnosis and treatment of thyrotoxicosis, better pre- and postoperative medical management. However, acute exacerbation of thyrotoxicosis caused by intercurrent illness, especially infections, may still occur. Thyroid storm in the past most frequently occurred after surgery, but now it is usually a complication of untreated or partially treated thyrotoxicosis, rather than a postoperative complication.

Clinical pattern

Classic features of thyroid storm are indicative of a sudden and severe exacerbation of thyrotoxicosis, with fever, marked tachycardia, tremor, nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, restlessness, extreme agitation, delirium or coma. Fever is typical and may be higher than 105.8 F (41 C). Patients may present with a true psychosis or a marked deterioration of previously abnormal behavior. Sometimes thyroid storm takes a strikingly different form, called apathetic storm, with extreme weakness, emotional apathy, confusion, absent or low fever

Signs and symptoms of multiple organ failure may be present. Delirium is one example. Congestive heart failure may also occur, with peripheral edema, congestive hepatomegaly, and respiratory distress. Marked sinus tachycardia or tachyarrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, are common. Liver damage and jaundice may derive from congestive heart failure or a direct action of thyroid hormone on the liver coupled with malnutrition (Chapter 10). Fever and vomiting may produce dehydration and prerenal azotemia. Abdominal pain may be a prominent feature. The clinical picture may be masked by a secondary infection such as pneumonia, a viral infection, or infection of the upper respiratory tract. Death may be caused by cardiac arrhythmia, congestive heart failure, hyperthermia, or other unidentified factors.

Storm is typically associated with Graves' disease, but it may occur in patients with toxic nodular goiter (1, 2). At present, although still life-threatening, death from thyroid storm is rarer if it is promptly recognized and aggressively treated in an intensive care unit. In recent nationwide studies from Japan mortality rate was >10% (3, 4).

Incidence

In Nelson and Becker's series reported in 1969 (5), there were 21 cases of thyroid storm among 2,329 admissions due to thyrotoxicosis (about 1%). Other series, which included all cases with fever of 38.3 C or more in the postoperative period, reported an incidence of thyroid storm as high as 10% of patients operated on (6). Few patients are now seen with the classic pattern of thyroid storm, but patients are occasionally encountered with marked accentuation of symptoms of thyrotoxicosis in conjunction with infection. The incidence of thyroid storm currently may currently be as low as 0.2 cases/100,000 population (3).

Cause

Thyroid storm classically began a few hours after thyroidectomy performed on a patient prepared for surgery by potassium iodide alone. Many such patients were not euthyroid and would not be considered appropriately prepared for surgery by current standards. Exacerbation of thyrotoxicosis is still seen in patients sent too soon to surgery, but it is unusual in the antithyroid drug-controlled patient. Thyroid storm occasionally occurs in patients operated on for some other illness while severely thyrotoxic. Severe exacerbation of thyrotoxicosis is rarely seen following 131-I therapy for hyperthyroidism; some of these may be defined as thyroid storm (7). Thyroid storm appears most commonly following infection (1), which seems to induce an escape from control of thyrotoxicosis. Pneumonia, upper respiratory tract infection, enteric infections, or any other infection can cause this condition. The decreased incidence of thyroid storm can be largely attributed to improved diagnosis and therapy. In most cases, thyrotoxicosis is recognized early and treated by measures of predictable therapeutic value. Patients are routinely made euthyroid before thyroidectomy or 131-I therapy (8). Using thionamides preoperatively, thyroid glands have only minimal amounts of stored hormones, thus minimizing thyroid hormone release due to manipulation.

Diagnosis

Diagnosis of thyroid storm is made on clinical grounds and involves the usual diagnostic measures for thyrotoxicosis. Semi-quantitative scales and related scores evaluating the presence and severity of clinical manifestations may be of some help in confirming the diagnosis (1, 3, 9). There are no peculiar laboratory abnormalities. Free T4 and, if possible, free T3 should be measured. Serum total T3 may be not particularly elevated or even normal, due to reduced T4 to T3 conversion as observed in nonthyroidal illness (1). Electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), blood glucose, liver function tests, and plasma cortisol should be monitored.

Therapy

Thyroid storm is an endocrine emergency that has to be treated in an intensive care unit (Table 12-1).

Table 1. Treatment of Thyroid Storm

       

Supportive Measures

       

     1. Rest

     2. Mild sedation, or anticonvulsant therapy if convulsions occur

     3. Fluid and electrolyte replacement

     4. Nutritional support and vitamins as needed

     5. Oxygen therapy

     6. Nonspecific therapy as indicated

     7. Antibiotics

     8. Cardio-supportive

     9. Cooling

 

 Specific therapy

       

     1. Propranolol (20 to 200 mg orally every 6 hours, or 1 to 3 mg intravenously every 4 to 6 hours)

     2. Antithyroid drugs (150 to 250 mg PTU or 15 to 25 mg methimazole, every 6 hours)

     3. Potassium iodide (one hour after first dose of antithyroid drugs):

     4. 100 mg KI every 12 hours

     5. Dexamethasone (2 mg every 6 hours)

 

Possibly useful therapy

     1. Ipodate (Oragrafin) or other iodinated contrast agents, if available

     2. Plasmapheresis or exchange

     3. Oral T4 and T3 binding resins

     4. Dialysis

 

 

If drugs cannot be given orally (e.g., in the unconscious patient), they can be administered by naso-gastric tube or enemas (1). In some European countries intravenous preparations have been used (10).  If the thyrotoxic patient is untreated, an antithyroid drug should be given. PTU, 150-250 mg every 6 hours should be given, if possible, rather than methimazole, since PTU also prevents peripheral conversion of T4 to T3, thus more rapidly reduces circulating T3 levels. Methimazole (15-25 mg every 6 hours) can be given orally, or if necessary, the pure compound can be made up in a 10 mg/ml solution for parenteral administration. Methimazole is also absorbed when given rectally in a suppository. An hour after a thionamide has been given, iodide should be administered. A dosage of 100 mg twice daily is more than sufficient. Unless congestive heart failure contraindicates it, propranolol or other beta-blocking agents should be given at once, orally or parenterally in large doses, depending on the patient's clinical status. Permanent correction of thyrotoxicosis by either 131-I or immediate thyroidectomy should be postponed until euthyroidism is restored. Other supporting measures should fully be exploited, including sedation, oxygen, treatment for tachycardia or congestive heart failure, rehydration, multivitamins, occasionally supportive transfusions, and cooling the patient to lower body temperature down. Antibiotics may be given on the presumption of infection while results of culture are awaited.

The adrenal gland may be limited in its ability to increase steroid production during thyrotoxicosis. If there is any suspicion of hypoadrenalism, hydrocortisone (100-200 mg/day) or its equivalent should be given. The dose can rapidly be reduced when the acute process subsides. Pharmacological doses of glucocorticoids (2 mg dexamethasone every 6 h) acutely depress serum T3 levels by reducing T4 to T3 conversion. This effect of glucocorticoids is beneficial in thyroid storm and supports their routine use in this clinical setting. Propranolol controls tachycardia, restlessness, and other symptoms.

Usually rehydration, repletion of electrolytes, treatment of concomitant disease, such as infection, and specific agents (antithyroid drugs, iodine, propranolol, and corticosteroids) produce a marked improvement within 24 hours. A variety of additional approaches have been reported, but indications for their use are not well defined. For example, oral gallbladder contrast agents such as ipodate and iopanoic acid in doses of 1-2 g, which inhibit peripheral T4 to T3 conversion, might have value. Unfortunately, these agents are no longer available. Peritoneal dialysis can remove circulating thyroid hormone, and plasmapheresis can do likewise, but at the expense of serum protein loss. Orally administered ion-exchange resin (20-30g/day as Colestipol-HCl) can trap hormone in the intestine and prevent recirculation. These treatments are rarely needed.

Antithyroid treatment should be continued until euthyroidism is achieved, when a final decision regarding antithyroid drugs, surgery, or 131-I therapy can be made.

GRAVES’ ORBITOPATHY

Graves’ orbitopathy (GO) is the main and most frequent extrathyroidal manifestation of Graves’ disease, although it may less frequently occur in patients with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis or apparently without thyroid abnormalities (so-called Euthyroid Graves’ disease) (11-15).

Epidemiology

Fig. 1: Prevalence of GO in a series of 346 patients with newly diagnosed Graves’ hyperthyroidism. Moderate-to-severe GO includes one case of sight-threatening dysthyroid optic neuropathy (DON). Derived from Tanda ML et al. (17).

Data on the incidence of GO are limited (11, 14). In a population-based setting in USA, an adjusted rate of 16 cases per 100.000 per year in women and 2.9 cases per 100.000 in men was reported (16). In a recent study of a large cohort of newly diagnosed Graves’ patients, about 75% had no ocular involvement at diagnosis, only 6% had moderate-to-severe GO, and 0.3% showed sight-threatening GO due to dysthyroid optic neuropathy (DON) (17) (Figure 1). In a Danish population, moderate-to-severe GO showed an incidence of 16.1/million per year (women: 26.7; men: 5.4) (18). Ocular involvement is in most cases bilateral, although often asymmetrical, but it may be unilateral in up to 15% of cases (12, 14). As recently reviewed by the European Group on Graves’ Orbitopathy (EUGOGO), the overall prevalence of GO in Europe is about 10/10,000 patients, but the prevalence of its variants (hypothyroid GO, GO associated with dermopathy, GO associated with acropachy, asymmetrical or unilateral GO) is much lower, and recently euthyroid GO has been listed as a rare disease in Europe (19). The onset of GO apparently has a bimodal peak in the fifth and seventh decades of life, but eye disease may occur at any age (20). It is more frequent in women, but men tend to have a more severe disease (21-23), as suggested by a decrease in the female/male ratio from 9.3 in mild GO, to 3.2 in moderately severe GO, and 1.4 in severe GO (20). There is a close temporal relationship between the onset of GO and the onset of hyperthyroidism. In approximately 85% of cases GO and hyperthyroidism occur within 18 months of each other (20), although GO may both precede (about 20% of cases) or follow (about 40% of cases) the onset of hyperthyroidism (20).

The natural history of GO is poorly understood. However, in a longitudinal cohort study, spontaneous amelioration was observed in two thirds of cases, while ocular involvement did not change with time in 20% and progressed in 14% (22). The observation that mild GO rarely progresses and often spontaneously remits was recently confirmed by a large prospective study of patients with recent onset Graves’ hyperthyroidism (17) and summarized in a review of published studies (24). It is worth noting that GO seems to be less frequent than in the past. A review of the first 100 consecutive patients seen at the same joint thyroid-eye unit in 1960 and 1990 revealed a decrease in the proportion of Graves’ patients with clinical relevant GO from 57% to 32% (23); likewise, a reduction in the proportion of severe forms of GO compared to milder forms was observed (18), likely reflecting an earlier diagnosis and treatment of both hyperthyroidism and orbitopathy. It should be noted that a multicenter study carried out by the European Group on Graves’ Orbitopathy (EUGOGO) reported that 40% of GO patients had mild disease, 33% had moderate GO, and 28% had severe eye disease (25). It should be noted that these figures were clearly influenced by the fact that EUGOGO centers are all referral centers where it is likely to see more complicated cases of GO. Accordingly, a recent single-center study confirmed that most patients newly diagnosed with Graves’ disease have mild GO (26), although whether these forms are chronic remitting or a transient disease (27) or whether GO ever disappears completely (28) is unsettled. In summary, based on recent studies and reviews of the available literature, it can be concluded that GO is a rare disease, particularly in its severe expressions (19).

An important epidemiologic feature of GO is its relation with cigarette smoking (29,30). The prevalence of smokers among Graves’ women with orbitopathy is much higher than that in Graves’ women apparently without GO or in normal controls (Figure 2) (31). Smoking is a predictor of Graves’ hyperthyroidism, with a hazard ratio of 1.93 in current smokers, 1.27 in ex-smokers, and 2.65 in heavy smokers (32). In a case-control study, the odds ratio of cigarette smoking for Graves’ hyperthyroidism without GO was 1.7, but raised to 7.7 for Graves’ disease with GO (33). Whether passive smoking may have the same impact as active smoking is unsettled; however, in a recent European survey of GO in childhood, the highest prevalence of Graves’ children with GO was found in countries where the prevalence of smokers among teenagers was also highest: since >50% of children were <10 years of age, it is likely that passive smoking rather than active smoking influenced GO occurrence (34). Mechanisms whereby smoking may affect the development and course of GO are unclear. In addition to direct irritative effects and modulation of immune reactions in the orbit (35), smoking was associated with an increase in the orbital connective tissue volume as assessed by MRI (36), and with an increased adipogenesis and hyaluronic acid production in in vitro cultured orbital fibroblasts (37). Whatever the mechanism(s) involved, cigarette smoking is strong (probably the strongest) predictor of GO occurrence in patients with Graves’ hyperthyroidism (38).

Figure 2. Prevalence of smokers among women with Graves’ disease with (GO) or without (GD) associated orbitopathy. NTG: Non-toxic goiter; C: controls. Derived from Bartalena et al (31).

Pathogenesis

Clinical manifestations of GO reflect remodeling of the orbital space related to the enhanced orbital volume, due to an increase in retroocular fibroadipose tissue and swelling of extraocular muscles (39-41). Orbital tissues, including muscles, are infiltrated by inflammatory cells, including lymphocytes, mast cells, and macrophages. Proliferation of orbital fibroblasts and adipocytes, both in the retroocular space and in the perimysial space, is also associated with an increased production of glycosaminoglycans, which are the ultimate responsible for edematous changes both in the connective tissue and the muscles, owing to their hydrophilic nature. The relative contribution of the increase in fibroadipose tissue volume and extraocular muscle swelling is not always the same, and a predominance of either component may be observed in different patients with similar clinical features (42). Furthermore, the increase in orbital fat might be a rather late phenomenon (43). Because the orbit is a rigid, bony structure anteriorly limited by the orbital septum, the increased orbital volume deriving from cell proliferation, inflammatory infiltration and edema, results into enhanced intraorbital pressure, forward displacement of the globe (proptosis or exophthalmos), extraocular muscle dysfunction causing diplopia and/or strabismus, soft tissue changes with periorbital edema, conjunctival hyperemia and chemosis. If proptosis, which can be considered a form of spontaneous decompression, is severe, subluxation of the eye may occur. Proptosis is responsible for corneal exposure which may be particularly dangerous at night for the incomplete eyelid closure (lagophthalmos), and may result into sight-threatening corneal ulceration. The enlarged muscle volume may cause optic nerve compression (dysthyroid optic neuropathy), especially if the orbital septum is tight and proptosis is minimal. Optic nerve compression is particularly evident at the orbital apex and may be responsible for sight loss. Orbital inflammation and related anatomical changes may cause venous and lymphatic congestion that contribute to periorbital edema and chemosis. With time inflammation subsides and muscle fatty degeneration and fibrosis may contribute to further extraocular muscle restriction and strabismus, which, at this stage, can only be corrected by surgery.

GO is an autoimmune inflammatory disorder related to the thyroid and triggered by the migration of autoreactive T-helper cells into the orbit, which is infiltrated by CD4+ T cells and, to a lesser extent, CD8+ T cells, B cells, fibrocytes, mast cells, and macrophages (40, 41). Orbital fibroblasts are the main target and key effector cells in the disease (44). After recognition of one or more antigens (shared with the thyroid) on fibroblast surface, facilitated by HLA class II antigen expression on antigen-presenting cells (B cells, macrophages), CD4+ T cells secrete cytokines which activate CD8+ T cells, autoantibody-synthesizing B cells (45) and stimulate orbital fibroblasts (46).  Fibroblasts proliferate, may differentiate into myofibroblasts and adipocytes, accumulate and secrete hyaluronic acid (HA), synthesize and secrete chemoattractants (interleukin-16, RANTES, CXCL10) and a number of cytokines (interleukin-1, interleukin-6, interferon-g, tumor necrosis factor-a, interleukin-8, interleukin-10, platelet-derived growth factor, transforming growth factor-b), which concur to auto-maintain the inflammatory process (47). HA is hydrophilic and thereby attracts water and causes edema of the extraocular muscles and orbital tissue (40). Orbital fibroblasts can be differentiated based on the expression or lack of expression of a cell surface glycoprotein (thymocyte antigen-1, thy-1). Thy-1+ fibroblasts are mostly represented in extraocular muscles and produce HA, thereby contributing to extraocular muscle edema and enlargement, whereas  thy-1- fibroblasts are mainly present in connective tissue and may differentiate into adipocytes, thereby contributing to fibroadipose tissue expansion (40).

The TSH receptor (TSH-R), the ultimate cause of hyperthyroidism due to Graves’ disease, is likely the shared antigen responsible for GO. TSH-R expression has been shown in the orbital tissue of GO patients, both at the mRNA and protein levels (48, 49); however, TSH-R is also expressed in several other tissues not involved in Graves’ disease and orbitopathy (50), and, although at lower levels, in normal orbital fibroadipose tissue samples and cultures (51). On the other hand, BALB/c mice injected with spleen cells primed either with a TSH-R fusion protein or with TSH-R cDNA developed thyroiditis with blocking-type TRAb, but also showed orbital pathological changes (lymphocytic and mast cell infiltration, edema, presence of glycosaminoglycans) similar to those seen in human GO (52).  This model could not be reproduced in other laboratories. More recently a novel preclinical female mouse model of GO was established (53). In this model, some of the mice immunized by human TSH A-subunit by TSH receptor plasmid in vivo electroporation showed large infiltrates surrounding the optic nerve, increased adipogenesis, orbital muscle hypertrophy, exophtahlmos, and chemosis (53, 54). The role of the TSH-R seems to be supported also by other animal models (55-57). Another putative antigen involved in the pathogenesis of GO is the IGF-1 receptor. As recently reviewed (58), increased IGF-1 receptor levels have been reported in orbital fibroblasts as well as in B and T lymphocytes from Graves’ patients, and immunoglobulins displacing IGF-1 from its binding to the IGF-1 receptor have also been found in these patients (59). Colocalization of TSH receptor and IGF-1 receptor has been shown both in orbital fibroblasts and thyrocytes, suggesting that the two receptors might form a functional complex (60). Stimulation of the TSHR by the monoclonal TSHR-stimulating antibody, M22, could be inhibited by an IGF-1R-blocking monoclonal antibody in orbital fibroblasts (61).  Involvement of the IGF-1R is not specific for Graves’ disease, since it is implicated in other autoimmune diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis (62). Thus, although involvement of the IGF-1R in the pathogenesis of GO seems likely (63), it is tempting to speculate, for the time being, that autoimmunity to the TSH receptor be the initiating mechanism, while subsequent increased expression of the IGF-1R might be fundamental to maintain ongoing reactions in the orbit (64). Interestingly, two recent reports found that, at variance with TRAb, only a minority of patients with GO have circulating antibodies to the IGF-1R (65, 66). This may be related to the low sensitivity and specificity of tests used to detect such antibodies (62). Alternatively, it may be conceived that IGF-1 (and/or IGF-1R antibodies) locally produced in the orbit be relevant for the pathogenesis of GO (67).

Other autoantigens, including several eye muscle antigens, acetylcholine receptor, thyroperoxidase, thyroglobulin, alpha-fodrin, have been proposed as putative shared antigens, but their true role is, to say the least, uncertain (68).

The role of genetic factors in the pathogenesis of GO is not very well defined, and no striking differences have been observed between Graves’ patients with or without associated GO (69-73). An association between GO and Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC), cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen-4 (CTLA-4) or intercellular adhesion molecule 1 gene polymorphisms has been looked for, but results are not unequivocal (74-76). GO likely stems from a complex interplay between endogenous factors and exogenous (environmental) risk factors (13, 77). The latter are probably more important and include cigarette smoking, thyroid dysfunction, and, in a subset of patients, radioiodine therapy for Graves’ hyperthyroidism (13, 77). The relationship between cigarette smoking and GO has been discussed above (see paragraph on Epidemiology). Both hyperthyroidism (78, 79) and hypothyroidism (80) seem to influence negatively the course of the orbitopathy. TRAb are independent risk factors for GO and can help to predict severity and outcome of eye disease (81). Radioiodine therapy for Graves’ hyperthyroidism is associated with GO progression in about 15% of cases, although this effect may be transient (82-86). This effect is more frequently observed in patients who already have GO prior to radioiodine therapy, smoke, have high TRAb levels, or whose post-radioiodine hypothyroidism is not promptly corrected by L-thyroxine replacement therapy (13, 77). Radioiodine-associated progression of GO can be prevented by a short course of prednisone (87). Lower doses of oral prednisone (0.2 mg/Kg bw) for 6 weeks are as effective in preventing RAI-associated progression of GO as higher doses used in the past (88). Neither thyroidectomy (typically partial) nor antithyroid drugs influence the course of the orbitopathy (89-91). The above observations have important practical implications in terms of GO prevention (Table 2), because GO patients should be urged to refrain from smoking, their thyroid dysfunction (both hyper- and hypothyroidism) should be promptly corrected, and, in the case of radioiodine therapy, a short course of oral prednisone should be administered (92).

Table 2. Risk factors for the occurrence/progression of Graves’ orbitopathy and preventive   measures

 

Risk factor

 

 

Preventive measure

 

 

Cigarette smoking

 

 

Refrain from smoking

 

 

Hyperthyroidism

 

 

Restore euthyroidism by antithyroid drugs and/or obtain a permanent control by thyroid ablation (thyroidectomy, radioiodine, both)

 

 

Hypothyroidism

 

 

Restore euthyroidism by L-thyroxine replacement therapy

 

 

Radioiodine therapy for hyperthyroidism

 

 

Give oral prednisone concomitantly with radioiodine administration. Avoid leaving the patient with untreated post-radioiodine hypothyroidism

 

High TSH-receptor antibody levels

 

 

Control hyperthyroidism as soon as possible

 

Oxidative stress Give a 6-month selenium course in mild GO

 

Clinical Features

Signs & Symptoms. Clinical features of GO include soft tissue changes, exophthalmos, extraocular muscle dysfunction, corneal abnormalities, and optic nerve involvement (Figures 3-6). The NOSPECS classification (Table 3) is a useful memory aid of GO abnormalities (93). Recommendations for GO assessment in clinical practice have recently been reviewed by EUGOGO (94) and other groups (VISA classification) (95). Soft tissue changes include eyelid edema and periorbital swelling, eyelid erythema, conjunctival hyperemia and chemosis, inflammation of the caruncle or plica: their assessment and grading can be done with the aid of a color atlas (96), which can be downloaded from EUGOGO website (www.eugogo.eu). Proptosis, i.e., protrusion of the eye (exophthalmos), is usually measured by Hertel exophthalmometer; normal values are usually less than 20 mm, but vary with race, age, gender, degree of myopia, and should be established in each center or institution. Extraocular muscle dysfunction is responsible for diplopia (double vision), which can be subjectively defined as intermittent (i.e., present only when fatigued or when first waking), inconstant (i.e., present only at extremes of gaze), or constant (i.e., present also in reading positions and primary gaze); objective assessment of extraocular muscle functioning can be done by several methods, including measurement of duction  in degrees (94). Palpebral aperture may be increased due to several factors, including upper and/or lower lid retraction, and proptosis. Lid retraction and proptosis are responsible for corneal exposure, which may lead to corneal epithelium damage (punctate keratopathy), corneal ulceration and perforation. The incomplete eye closure at night (lagophthalmos) and the absence of Bell’s phenomenon (no upward eye rotation on attempted eye closure) are risk factors for corneal damage (92, 94). Intraocular pressure is often increased, particularly in upward gaze, but this abnormality rarely progresses to true glaucoma. Dysthyroid optic neuropathy, due to optic nerve compression at the orbit apex by swollen extraocular muscles, or, less frequently, to optic nerve stretching in cases of marked proptosis or eye subluxation, is a sight-threatening expression of GO. It can be diagnosed by fundoscopy showing disc swelling, reduced visual acuity, abnormal color vision test, contrast sensitivity, perimetry, visual-evoked potentials, and pupillary responses (95).

Figure 3. Female patient with moderately severe GO. Note periorbital swelling, injection of conjunctival vessels, proptosis, marked lid retraction, and proptosis.

Figure 4. Male patient with moderately severe GO. Note marked periorbital swelling, conjunctival hyperemia, esotropia (strabismus) in the left eye.

Figure 5. Male patient with moderately severe GO. Note the superior eyelid edema, mild conjunctival vessel injection, marked proptosis, and marked upper lid retraction.

Figure 6. Female patient with severe GO. Note marked periorbital swelling, palpebral hyperemia, conjunctival hyperemia, proptosis (particularly in the left eye), caruncle edema. Eye motility was markedly reduced, lagophthalmos was present, there were two corneal ulcers in the left eye, and corneal punctate staining in the right eye, reduced visual acuity in the left eye (5/10). CT scan showed enlargement of extraocular muscles (particularly medial rectus and inferior rectus) in both eyes, but no relevant compression of the optic nerve at the orbit apex.

Table 3. NOSPECS classification of eye changes of Graves’ disease

 

Class

 

 

Grade

 

 

Symptoms and Signs

 

 

0

 

 

 

 

No symptoms or signs

 

 

1

 

 

 

 

Only signs (upper lid retraction, without lid lag or proptosis)

 

 

2

 

 

 

 

Soft tissue involvement with symptoms (excess lacrimation, sandy sensation, retrobulbar discomfort, and photophobia, but not diplopia);objective signs as follows:

 

 

 

 

0

 

 

absent

 

 

 

 

a

 

 

minimal (edema of conjunctivae and lids, conjunctival injection, and fullness of lids, often with orbital fat extrusion, palpable lacrimal glands, or swollen extraocular muscles beneath lower lids)

 

 

 

 

b

 

 

Moderate (above plus chemosis, lagophthalmos lid fullness)

 

 

 

 

c

 

 

marked

 

 

3

 

 

 

 

Proptosis associated with classes 2 to 6 only (specify if inequality of 3 mm or more between eyes, or if progression of 3 mm or more under observation)

 

 

 

 

0

 

 

absent (20 mm or less)

 

 

 

 

a

 

 

minimal (21-23 mm)

 

 

 

 

b

 

 

moderate (24-27 mm)

 

 

 

 

c

 

 

marked (28 mm or more)

 

 

4

 

 

 

 

Extraocular muscle involvement (usually with diplopia)

 

 

 

 

0

 

 

absent

 

 

 

 

a

 

 

minimal (limitation of motion, evident at extremes of gaze in one or more directions)

 

 

 

 

b

 

 

moderate (evident restriction of motion without fixation of position)

 

 

 

 

c

 

 

marked (fixation of position of a globe or globes)

 

 

5

 

 

 

 

Corneal involvement (primarily due to lagophthalmos)

 

 

 

 

0

 

 

absent

 

 

 

 

a

 

 

minimal (stippling of cornea)

 

 

 

 

b

 

 

moderate (ulceration)

 

 

 

 

c

 

 

marked (clouding, necrosis, perforation)

 

 

6

 

 

 

 

Sight loss (due to optic nerve involvement)

 

 

 

 

0

 

 

absent

 

 

 

 

a

 

 

minimal (disc pallor or choking, or visual field defect, vision 20/20 to 20/60)

 

 

 

 

b

 

 

moderate (disc pallor or choking, or visual field defect, vision 20/70 to 20/200)

 

 

 

 

c

 

 

marked (blindness, i.e., failure to perceive light; vision less than 20/200)

 

 

From Werner (93).

 

 

Symptoms of GO (Table 4) include, in addition to changes in ocular appearance related to periorbital swelling and proptosis, excess lacrimation, photophobia, grittiness, pain in or behind the eyes, either spontaneous or with eye movements, diplopia of different severity with or without strabismus, blurred vision, which may clear with blinking (due to excessive lacrimation) or covering one eye (reflecting extraocular muscle impairment), or may persist (probably reflecting optic neuropathy, particularly if associated with gray areas in the field of vision). In addition to reduced visual acuity, optic nerve involvement can be heralded by decreased color perception. Diplopia may be absent if extraocular muscle involvement is symmetrical in both eyes.

Table 4. Symptoms associated with Graves’ orbitopathy

       

1. Changes in eye appearance, particularly eyelid or periorbital swelling, eye bulging

2. Excessive lacrimation, often more pronounced on waking

3. Incomplete closure of eyes at night (lagophthalmos), as reported by the partner

4. Photophobia, need to protect eyes with dark lenses

5. Increased eye “sensitivity” to irritative factors other than light (e.g., wind, smoke, pollution)

6. Ocular discomfort, described as grittiness, foreign body or sandy sensation, often defined as “allergy”

7. Ocular pain, either related or unrelated to eye movements

8. Neck ache, with abnormal head posture (torcicullum)

9. Diplopia

a. Intermittent: present only when tired or on waking

b.     Inconstant: present only at extremes of gaze

c. Constant: present also in primary and reading positions

10. Blurred vision

a. Disappearing with blinking

b.     Not disappearing with blinking

11. Reduced color perception

 

 

 

Clinical manifestations of GO have a profound negative impact on quality of life and daily activities of affected individuals (98). By the use of general health-related quality of life (HRQL) questionnaires, such as the SF-36 or its shorter forms, it was shown that GO is associated with significant changes in several functions, including physical functioning, role functioning, social functioning, mental health, general health perception, and bodily pain (99). Interestingly, these changes in HRQL parameters were similar to those found in patients with inflammatory bowel disorders, and even more marked than those observed in patients with diabetes mellitus, heart failure or emphysema (99). Since HRQL questionnaires are broad and may not address items specific for a given disease, a GO-specific quality of life (GO-QoL) questionnaire was developed and validated in clinical studies (99, 100-102). This questionnaire (dowloadable from EUGOGO website at www.eugogo.eu) is composed of 16 questions, 8 concerning the consequences of diplopia and deceased visual acuity on visual functioning, and 8 regarding the consequences of changes in physical appearance on social functioning. The Go-QoL is a useful tool for self-assessment of treatment outcomes for GO (103).

Activity & Severity. Definition of GO severity is somehow arbitrary and may reflect different views (11, 23). According to the most recent EUGOGO definition (92),  mild GO is characterized by one or more of the following features: minor lid retraction (<2 mm), mild soft tissue involvement, exophthalmos <3 mm above normal for race and gender, transient or no diplopia, and corneal exposure; the above features usually have a minor impact on daily life to justify immmuno-suppression or surgical treatment; moderate-to-severe GO have any one or more of the following: lid retraction >2 mm, moderate or severe soft tissue involvement, exophthalmos >3 mm above normal for race and gender, inconstant or constant diplopia; Patients in this category have an impact on daily life as to justify immunosuppression (if GO is active) or surgical intervention (if GO is inactive); sight-threatening GO is due to dysthyroid optic neuropathy (DON) or corneal breakdown, and warrants immediate intervention (Table 5) (92). Assessment of severity is particularly relevant to decide on whether a given patient should be treated by aggressive treatments (either medical or surgical) or simply by local or general supportive measures (see below).The other important feature of GO is its activity. Although, as stated above, GO natural history is not completely understood, it is commonly accepted that GO undergoes an initial phase of activity, characterized by progressive exacerbation of ocular manifestations until a plateau phase is reached; GO then tends to remit spontaneously, but remission is invariably partial. In the inactive phase (burnt-out GO), only residual ocular manifestations are present (e.g., proptosis, strabismus due to muscle fibrotic changes), but inflammation has subsided and it is unlikely that it may flare up. It is unknown how long this process takes to be completed, but it is widely believed that it takes between 6 months and two years. Recognition of the different phases of the disease is important, because active disease, basically characterized by the presence of inflammation, can respond to immunosuppressive treatments, which are largely ineffective when GO is burnt-out. Different indicators have been proposed to assess GO activity, including short duration of treatment (<18 months), positivity of octreoscan, decreased extraocular muscle reflectivity at orbital ultrasound, prolonged T2 relaxation time at MRI, increased urinary glycosaminoglycan levels, but they lack sufficient specificity and accuracy. A useful tool to assess GO activity is represented by the Clinical Activity Score (CAS), which can be calculated very easily and is recommended by EUGOGO in the assessment of GO in routine clinical practice, in specialist multidisciplinary clinics, and for clinical trials (92). In its original formulation (104) it included 10 items, which were subsequently reduced to 7 when revised by an ad hoc Committee of the four sister thyroid societies (105). (Table 6). If one point is given to each item when present, CAS, which basically reflect eye inflammation, may range from 0 (absent activity) to 7 (maximal activity); GO is generally defined active if CAS is >3.

Table 5. Assessment of severity of Graves’ orbitopathy

Degree of Ocular involvement Features
Mild GO

Minor lid retraction (<2 mm), mild soft tissue involvement, exophthalmos <3 mm

above normal for race and gender, transient or no diplopia, corneal exposure

responsive to lubricants

Moderate-to-severe GO

Lid retraction >2 mm, moderate-to-severe soft tissue involvement, exophthalmos >3  mm

above normal for race and gender, inconstant or constant diplopia

Sight-threatening GO Presence of dysthyroid optic neuropathy and/or corneal breakdown

Derived from Bartalena & EUGOGO (92)

 

Table 6. Clinical Activity Score (CAS).

       

1. Spontaneous retrobulbar pain

2. Pain on eye movements

3. Eyelid erythema

4. Conjunctival injection

5. Chemosis

6. Swelling of the caruncle

7. Eyelid edema or fullness

 

 

 

One point is given to each item, if present. CAS is the sum of single scores, ranging from 0 (no activity) to 7 (maximal activity). Active GO: CAS>3

 

 

From Mourits et al (104), modified from an ad hoc Committee of the four Thyroid sister Societies (105).

 

 

Diagnosis

Diagnosis of GO is usually easy on clinical grounds and by careful ophthalmological examination. Although not necessary in most Graves’ patients, CT scan or MRI of the orbit confirm diagnosis by showing enlarged extraocular muscles (without involvement of the tendon) and/or increased orbital fibroadipose tissue (106). Modest extraocular muscle enlargement and increased fibroadipose tissue volume are often found in Graves’ patients without clinical manifestations of ocular involvement. Orbital imaging is very useful to detect signs of optic nerve compression, which support the diagnosis of optic neuropathy. Imaging is required in asymmetrical or, particularly, unilateral forms of GO, to rule out that proptosis, periorbital swelling, inflammation, or diplopia be due to disorders other than GO (12, 106). The latter include primary or metastatic orbital tumors, vascular abnormalities (e.g., carotid-cavernous sinus fistula, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, subdural hematoma), granulomatous disorders, IgG4-related ophthalmic disease (107). Occasionally, angiograms or venograms may be required for diagnosis. Octreoscan may be useful to identify patients with active GO (106), but its role in clinical practice is limited, also in view of its high cost.

Management

Management of GO is based on a multidisciplinary approach which involves endocrinologists, ophthalmologists, orbit surgeons, radiologists and radiotherapists. In a survey of GO management based on a questionnaire distributed among members of the European Thyroid Association, European Society of Ophthalmic Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery, and European Association of Nuclear Medicine, 96% of responders stated that a multidisciplinary setting for GO management is valuable, although 21% of patients were in the end not treated in a multidisciplinary setting (108). The therapeutic approach to a GO patient should be based on both severity and activity of the disease, the former being the feature to assess first.

Mild GO. Most patients have mild GO, which does not require particularly aggressive treatments and often is self-limiting (92, 110, 111). If GO activity is modest, simple local measured can be suggested to obtain symptomatic relief until GO is burnt-out (Table 7). Photophobia can be mitigated by sunglasses; grittiness due to corneal exposure can be controlled by artificial tears and topical lubricants, particularly indicated in the presence of lagophthalmos; the latter may require taping the eyelids shut at night; eyelid retraction can be controlled (with a variable degree of success) by b-blocking drops (useful for the increased intraocular pressure) or by botulinum toxin injections (112); elevation of the bed may be helpful to reduce periorbital swelling due to congestion; mild diplopia often is controlled by prisms (if they are tolerated). Reassurance is an important issue, and the patient must be informed that his/her eye disease is unlikely to progress to more severe forms, usually stabilizes, and often ameliorates spontaneously. Control of thyroid dysfunction is fundamental, because progression often is associated with hyper- or hypothyroidism (12, 92); refrain from smoking is also essential, because it is associated with a decreased chance of developing proptosis and diplopia (113), and decreases the likelihood to develop severe GO (29). Patients who do not succeed to quit smoking by themselves, should be helped by professional stop-smoking clinics, organizations, groups, where they can receive counseling, behavioral therapies, pharmacological treatments. In a subset of patients with mild GO, the impact of GO on the quality of life is so pronounced as to justify the risk of immunosuppression (or surgery) as for moderate-to-severe GO (92). A recent randomized controlled trial performed by EUGOGO in a large cohort of patients with mild GO showed that selenium supplementation for 6 months has beneficial effects on mild GO compared with placebo and can often prevent its progression to more severe forms (114). Thus, selenium, for its anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory actions, should be considered both as a therapeutic tool for mild GO and a preventive measure (115). Whether selenium is also useful as an adjuvant therapy in patients with moderate-to-severe GO is presently unsettled.

Table 7. Management of mild Graves’ orbitopathy

 

Sign and/or symptom and/or associated problem

 

 

Therapeutic measure

 

 

Photophobia

 

 

Sunglasses

 

 

Foreign body or sandy sensation

 

 

Artificial tears and ointments

 

 

Eyelid retraction

 

 

alpha-blocking eye drops. Botulinum toxin injections

 

 

Increased intraocular pressure

 

 

alpha-blocking eye drops

 

 

Lagophthalmos

 

 

Nocturnal eye taping

 

 

Thyroid dysfunction (hyper/hypo)

 

 

Restoration of euthyroidism, as appropriate

 

 

Smoking

 

 

Refrain from smoking

 

 

Anxiety about possible further progression

 

 

Reassurance on the natural history of mild GO

Management of clinical picture and prevention of progression Selenium supplementation

 

Moderate-to-severe GO. Management of moderate-to-severe GO depends not only on severity, but also on activity of the orbitopathy (Table 8). Medical treatment is likely to be beneficial in patients with active GO, with florid signs and symptoms of inflammation, recent-onset extraocular muscle dysfunction, recent progression of the ocular abnormalities as a whole. On the contrary, in long-standing GO, with chronic proptosis and residual, stable diplopia and/or strabismus, but no no evidence of inflammation, medical treatment has little chances to produce favorable effects, and the surgical, rehabilitative approach is preferable (92). Dysthyroid optic neuropathy, the most severe expression of the orbitopathy, is a clinical, sight-threatening emergency, which requires immediate treatment. If there is no response to medical treatment (high-dose intravenous glucocorticoids), orbital decompression is warranted (92).

Table 8. Management of moderate-to-severe Graves’ orbitopathy

Treatment Validity
Glucocorticoids Established
Orbital Radiotherapy Established
Orbital Decompression Established
Rehabilitative Surgery (squint surgery, eyelid surgery) Established
Somatostatin analogs Non-validated (octreotide, lanreotide)
Intravenous immunoglobulins Non-validated
Cyclosporine Limited applications
Antioxidants Selenium (validated only for mild GO)
Rituximab Two conflicting and small randomized clinical trials
Etanercept Limited data (non-validated in randomized clinical trials)
Mycophenolate Two randomized clinical trials with positive results
Teprotumumab One randomized clinical trial with positive results
Thyroid ablation by 131-I and/or surgery Controversial

 

Glucocorticoids are the mainstay in the medical treatment of GO (12, 92, 116, 117). They have been used for decades because of their anti-inflammatory effects, but also because they exert immunosuppressive actions useful to control the course of the orbitopathy (12, 92, 116, 117). The latter include interference with the function of T and B lymphocytes, decreased recruitment of neutrophils and macrophages, down-regulation of adhesion molecules, inhibition of cytokine secretion, inhibition of glycosaminoglycan secretion. Locally (subconjunctivally or retrobulbarly) given glucocorticoids are less effective than systemically given glucocorticoids ) (11, 92), although favorable responses in terms of improvement of diplopia and reduction in extraocular muscle dysfunction have been reported with in a recent randomized clinical trial of periocular injections of triamcinolone acetate (118) . Glucocorticoids have for a long time been given mostly orally. This route of administration has several drawbacks: high doses are required every day (e.g., prednisone 60-100 mg daily as a starting dose, or equivalent doses of other steroids) (11), treatment lasts for several months (at least 5-6 months), recurrences are frequent upon drug tapering or withdrawal, side effects (particularly Cushing’s syndrome) are frequent (12, 92, 116, 117). In the last 20 years the intravenous route has become the most commonly used (101) and currently represents the first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe and active GO (92). Intravenous glucocorticoids are more effective, with a rate of favorable responses reported until few years ago of about 80-90% versus 60-65% with oral glucocorticoids (117, 119), and better tolerated than oral glucocorticoids (120). As a proof of principle, in a placebo-controlled, randomized trial, intravenous methylprednisolone (four cycles at a dose of 500 mg for 3 consecutive days at 4-week intervals) effected inflammatory changes and extraocular muscle dysfunction in 5 of 6 patients (83%) compared to only one of 11 placebo-treated patients (121) Glucocorticoids are most effective on soft tissue, inflammatory changes, recent-onset extraocular muscle dysfunction, and dysthyroid optic neuropathy, whereas proptosis and long-lasting eye muscle impairment are less responsive (11, 117). However, it should be noted that severe liver damage, heralded by a marked rise in serum concentrations of hepatic enzymes, was noted in 7 of about 800 treated patients (approximately 0.8%), three of whom died (122). The causes of this hepatotoxicity are unclear, but might include direct liver toxicity of glucocorticoids, precipitation of virus-induced hepatitis, sudden reactivation of the immune system upon drug withdrawal leading to autoimmune hepatitis. Statins are not a risk factor for liver damage associated with intravenous glucocorticoid pulse therapy for GO (123). The cumulative dose of glucocorticoids might also be important, since no cases of liver damage were reported in a recent randomized clinical trial in which lower, but equally highly effective, doses of glucocorticoids were employed (124). In this trial, the cumulative dose of methylprednisolone was 4.5 grams, subdivided in 12 weekly 2-hour infusions (500 mg for the first 6 infusions, 250 mg for the remaining 6 infusions) (124). A questionnaire-based surgery carried out among members of the European Thyroid Association showed a wide heterogeneity in the regimens of intravenous glucocorticoid therapy for moderate-to severe and active GO (125). A recent mullticenter, randomized clinical trial of a large cohort of patients with moderate-to-severe and active GO showed that a cumulative dose of about 7.5 g of methylprednisolone was associated with more favorable treatment outcomes than lower doses (about 5 g or 2.25 g), but also caused adverse events more frequently (126). Thus, the cumulative dose should somehow be tailored to the severity and activity of GO, reserving the highest dose to patients with most severe expressions of the disease.  In any case, the current recommendation is that the cumulative dose of glucocorticoids per course should not exceed 8 grams (92). Response to intravenous glucocorticoids may occur early in the course of the intravenous course, but also later; accordingly, the lack of response after the first 5-6 infusions is not an indication to stop the treatment (127). Adverse events of high-dose glucocorticoid treatment remain a relevant issue (128). Accordingly, patients should be treated in specialized centers under strict medical surveillance (92). Intravenous glucocorticoid treatment of Graves’ ophthalmopathy is not associated with secondary adrenocortical insufficiency. (129, 130),presumably because it is given for a limited period and intermittently.

Orbital radiotherapy is the other non-surgical mainstay in the management of GO (131). The rationale for its use and the indications are quite similar to those of glucocorticoids; in addition, irradiation exploits the radiosensitivity of T lymphocytes which infiltrate the orbit (131). Irradiation is currently carried out by linear accelerators, using a cumulative dose of 20 Gray fractionated in 10 daily 2-Gray doses over a 2-week period (131), although other regimens (and lower doses) might be equally effective (132). Favorable responses have been reported in about 60% of treated patients (131). Recent years have witnessed a lively debate on the true effectiveness of orbital radiotherapy (133, 134). However, the results of several randomized studies confirmed, with one exception, its efficacy (132, 135-138). In addition, orbital radiotherapy is a safe procedure devoid of relevant short-term and long-term side effects or complications (139, 140). Preexisting retinopathy associated with diabetes mellitus or hypertension represents a contraindication to its use (92). As for glucocorticoids, orbital radiotherapy is mostly effective on soft tissue inflammatory changes and recent-onset extraocular muscle dysfunction (131). Orbital radiotherapy can be used either alone or in combination with glucocorticoids. The association exploits the prompter effect of glucocorticoids and the more sustained action of irradiation; in two randomized prospective studies, combined therapy (using oral glucocorticoids) proved to be more effective than either treatment alone (141, 142). Whether the combination of intravenous glucocorticoids and orbital radiotherapy is more effective than intravenous glucocorticoids alone is presently unsettled. For this reason the recent guidelines for the management of moderate-to-severe and active suggest the combination of orbital radiotherapy and oral glucocorticoids as a second-line treatment in the case of a partial or absent response to intravenous glucocorticoids (92).

Cyclosporine, used in GO for its immunosuppressive properties, has been reported in only two randomized and controlled studies (143, 144) . Cyclosporine has a lower efficacy than glucocorticoids as a single-agent therapy, although a combination of both drugs might be more effective than either treatment alone (143, 144). Thus, the use of cyclosporine might be maintained in patients who are relatively resistant to glucocorticoids in whom persistent GO activity warrants continuing medical intervention (145). Side effects of cyclosporine are not negligible and should be carefully considered. As for orbital radiotherapy, no studies have compared the combination of cyclosporine and intravenous glucocorticoids. Therefore, the association of oral glucocorticoids and cyclosporine is considered an alternative option when the response to intravenous glucocorticoids is poor (92).

Rituximab is a CD20+ B-cell depleting monoclonal antibody originally used for B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, but then utilized for autoimmune B-cell (and T-cell) driven autoimmune disorders. This drug has been used for GO in small and uncontrolled preliminary studies (reviewed in refs. 146 and 147). The rationale for using rituximab is sound, based on our understanding of pathogenesis of GO. The available data suggest that rituximab may have favorable effects on moderate-to-severe and active GO, with relatively low adverse event rate (146, 147). Two small, single-center, randomized clinical trials have recently been published. They produced conflicting results, because the first one (148) showed no difference in the effect of rituximab compared to placebo (148), whereas the second one (149) showed that rituximab was as effective as intravenous glucocorticoids in inactivating GO and was not associated with a flare-up of the disease, not infrequently seen after withdrawal of glucocorticoids. The reason for this conflicting results remains elusive and larger multicenter studies are warranted to clarify this issue (150), nevertheless rituximab may be considered as a possible second-line treatment in the case of a partial or absent response to intravenous glucocorticoids (92). Rituximab is contraindicated in patients with overt or impending dysthyroid optic neuropathy (92).

Two recent randomized clinical trials have evaluated the effect of mycophenolate, an immunosuppressant agent inhibiting both T cells and B cells, widely used for the prevention of organ transplant rejection, but also for autoimmune disorders. The first, single-center study showed that mycophenolate mofetil was more effective than intravenous glucocorticoids on moderate-to-severe and active GO, but the experimental design had several limitations (151). The second, large, multicenter study carried out by EUGOGO demonstrated that the combination of mycophenolate sodium and intravenous glucocorticoids was more effective than intravenous glucocorticoids alone (152). The safety profile at the dose used (720 mg/day for 6 months) appears to be good (153). Therefore mycophenolate sodium may represent a useful tool for the management of GO.

Teprotumumab is a monoclonal antibody inhibiting the IGF-1 receptor. Because the latter seems to be involved in the pathogenesis of GO (154), teprotumumab might play a role in the management of the disease. A recent placebo-controlled randomized clinical trial showed that teprotumumab is more effective than placebo in reducing the CAS (155). The most striking effect was marked reduction in the exophthalmos (155), a feature of GO which is very poorly modified by whatever medical treatment. This study is not devoid of limitations and further studies are warranted before it can be included among the tools for the management of active and moderate-to-severe GO (156).

Orbital decompression is a milestone in the management of GO. It is aimed at increasing the space available for the increased orbital content by removing part of the bony walls of the orbit and/or the orbital fibroadipose tissue (157). It is indicated in patients who have impending sight loss due to optic neuropathy and do not respond promptly to intravenous glucocorticoids (157). Other important indications for decompressive surgery are represented by corneal damage due to eyeball exposure in patients with marked proptosis, or by recurrent subluxation of the globe, which may stretch the optic nerve and cause sight loss (157). In recent years, thanks to the improved surgical techniques and the diminished surgical risk, the indications for orbital decompression have expanded, including also correction of residual cosmetic problems (157, 158). Several techniques of orbital decompression are available, aimed at removing part of one, two, three or four orbital walls (floor, roof, lateral wall, medial wall) as well as part of the retroorbital fibroadipose tissue. The different surgical options should be discussed with the patient, as well possible complications of the procedure, particularly the de novo occurrence or worsening of diplopia, particularly frequent after extensive removal of the orbital floor (157, 159). Removal of fibroadipose tissue can be done together with or without bone removal, but removal of fat alone is associated with a lower reduction of proptosis (159).

Rehabilitative surgery includes surgery for strabismus or eyelid retraction. Extraocular muscle surgery is aimed at correcting residual diplopia after medical and/or surgical treatment of GO. Timing of surgery is crucial, because it should not be performed when GO is active, but when it has been inactive for 6 months (160, 161). The goal of eye muscle surgery is to align the eyes, avoiding abnormal head posture and restoring single binocular vision in primary and reading positions; multiple operations may be required to achieve this goal. Eyelid surgery may rarely be an emergency procedures in patients with exposure keratitis and corneal ulcerations, but it usually is carried out to correct eyelid malposition after medical treatment or orbital decompression. Eyelid surgery usually constitutes the last step of rehabilitation (161).

Thyroid ablation. The question of whether in a patient with GO, Graves’ hyperthyroidism should be treated by non-ablative (i.e., thionamides) or ablative (i.e., radioiodine therapy, thyroidectomy, both) therapy is unanswered (162, 163). Supporters of thyroid ablation justify this approach by mentioning the pathogenic link between thyroid and orbit: removal of thyroid-orbit shared antigen(s) and autoreactive T lymphocytes might be beneficial to the eye (162); supporters of non-ablative thyroid treatment suggest that control of thyrotoxicosis by antithyroid drugs may be associated with a reduction of autoimmune phenomena which might be reflected by an amelioration of ocular conditions; furthermore, once triggered, GO might proceed independently of thyroid treatment (163). Two retrospective studies showed that total thyroid ablation (thyroidectomy followed by radioiodine therapy, as in thyroid cancer) was associated with an improvement of clinical GO (164, 165). A recent randomized, controlled clinical trial demonstrated that, as compared to total thyroidectomy alone, total thyroid ablation is followed by a better outcome of GO in patients given intravenous glucocorticoids (166). A follow-up study of this cohort recently showed that in the long run total thyroid ablation was no better than total thyroidectomy alone, although it was associated with a prompter achievement of the best possible result obtainable by medical treatment and with an earlier possibility to submit the patient to rehabilitative surgery (147). Other cohort studies emphasized the opportunity to postpone definitive treatment of hyperthyroidism until GO is cured (168, 169). Thus, the optimal thyroid treatment in patients with GO still is a dilemma (170-172).

THYROID DERMOPATHY AND ACROPACHY

Thyroid dermopathy (also called pretibial myxedema or localized myxedema) is an uncommon extrathyroidal manifestations of Graves’ disease (less frequently of chronic autoimmune thyroiditis) (13, 173). It almost always occurs in Graves’ patients who also have GO. In a review of 178 consecutive patients with thyroid dermopathy, only 4 patients had no evidence of eye disease (174). However, in a community-based epidemiologic study, only 4% of GO patients also had thyroid dermopathy, although the latter was more frequent in patients with severe GO (175). It is more common in older than in younger patients, with a large preponderance in women (176). Skin lesions are edematous and thickened plaques, typically localized in the pretibial area; however they can be less frequently found in other skin areas, such as feet, toes, upper extremities, shoulders, upper back, nose. Prevalent localization in the pretibial area is related to mechanical and dependent position. The occurrence of lesions in less common sites is often preceded (triggered?) by local trauma (177, 178). There can be three clinical types: nodular, diffuse, and elephantias-like.(179, 180) (Figures 7-9).

Fig. 7: Thyroid dermopathy. Courtesy of Dr. Vahab Fatourechi, Mayo Clinic

 

Fig. 8: thyroid dermopathy. Courtesy of Dr. Vahab Fatourechi, Mayo Clinic

 

Fig. 9: Thyroid dermopathy. Courtesy of Dr. Vahab Fatourechi, Mayo Clinic

Histopathologically, skin lesions are characterized by the accumulation of activated fibroblasts (and, to a lesser extent, mast cells), with a markedly increased production of glycosaminoglycans in the dermis and subcutaneous tissues (181). Whereas in normal skin approximately 5% of the acid mucopolysaccharides are hyaluronic acid, in pretibial myxedema this amount increases to 90%. Glycosaminoglycans are responsible for fluid retention, subsequent compression and occlusion of lymphatic vessels, and lymphedema (182). Thus, as in GO, fibroblasts seem to play a central role in the pathogenesis of localized myxedema. This notion is further supported by the finding of limited variability of T cell receptor V gene usage in pretibial myxedema, pointing to a primary immune response of antigen-specific T lymphocytes (183). Furthermore, as is the case with acropachy, lymphocytes do recognize local fibroblasts. IgG from patients with pretibial myxedema was shown to stimulate proteoglycan synthesis by human skin fibroblasts (182). As for GO, TSH-R has been implicated in the pathogenesis of localized myxedema. TSH-R is expressed in peripheral skin fibroblasts from patients with localized myxedema, both at the mRNA and protein level (13). However, TSHR is expressed also in skin from normal subjects (183, 184). Likewise, TSH-R immunoreactivity was detected in cultured fibroblasts from pretibial myxedema, although the specificity of this finding remains to be established. As mentioned above, IgG from Graves’ patients with localized myxedema was reported to stimulate glycosaminoglycan production in cultured skin fibroblasts (183), but this data is not unequivocal, because IgG from normal subjects were equally effective in other studies (185). To summarize, although pathogenic mechanisms remain to be fully elucidated, localized myxedema appear to result from autoimmune reactions leading to fibroblast proliferation and increased glycocosaminoglycan secretion.

From a clinical standpoint, localized myxedema presents as light-colored (sometimes yellowish brown) skin lesions, frequently with an orange peel texture (Figures 7-9). Skin lesions may be characterized by hyperpigmentation and hyperkeratosis. They usually represent only a cosmetic problem and are asymptomatic, but sometimes they may be associated with itching and pain, or may be functionally important, e.g., they may cause problems to wear shoes, especially the elephantiasic form of localized myxedema. Localized myxedema may remain stable, but frequently improves with time, partially or completely (13). Many cases of mild localized myxedema do not require any treatment, but in moderately severe lesions or when there is cosmetic concern, topical glucocorticoids applied with occlusive plastic dressing produce beneficial effects in a relevant proportion of patients (13). If necessary, treatment is repeated until clinical remission occurs (13). When localized mxedema is severe and extensive, steroid pulse therapy, or decongestive physiotherapy, a combination of manual lymphatic drainage, bandaging, exercise, and scrupulous skin care, may be tried (13). No substantial effect was reported by long-term octreotide treatment in three patients with localized myxedema (186). Two studies on the use of intravenous IgG in a small number of patients have reported discrepant effects (reviewed in 13). Thus, measures such as compression bandaging and topical glucocorticoids still are the most cost effective treatments for localized myxedema.

Acropachy is a very uncommon extrathyroidal expression of Graves’ disease, usually associated with severe GO (13) and localized myxedema (13), thus reflecting severity of the autoimmune process. It seems more common in women than in men (13). It is characterized by clubbing of fingers (Fig. 10) and toes, with concomitant soft-tissue swelling of hands and feet. These abnormalities are usually painless and may be asymmetric (13). As for GO, there seems to be a strong relation with cigarette smoking. X-ray of affected sites shows soft-tissue swelling and subperiosteal bone formation. There is currently no treatment that can solve the esthetic and (less frequent) functional abnormality of thyroid acropachy, which occasionally may remit spontaneously in the long-term.

Fig. 10: Thyroid acropachy. Courtesy of Dr. Vahab Fatourechi, Mayo Clinic

 

CLINICAL ABNORMALITIES OF THE HEART

The biochemical actions of thyroid hormone on the heart are described in Chapter 10.

Hyperthyroidism is usually associated with relevant cardiovascular symptoms and changes in cardiovascular hemodynamics (186, 187).Thyrotoxicosis increases the demands on the heart both by chronotropic and inotropic alterations. Cardiac output is markedly increased owing to increased stroke volume and rapid heart rate (186, 187). It is possible that the metabolic efficiency of heart muscle is decreased (186, 187). Irritability of the heart is increased. Investigation with stress echocardiography shows in hyperthyroidism impaired chronotropic, contractile, and vasodilatatory cardiovascular reserves, that are reversible upon conversion to euthyroidism (188). In a recent, large, matched case-control study, cardiovascular symptoms and signs, including palpitations, chest pain, dyspnea, cough, orthopnea, displaced apex, cardiac murmur, chest wheeze/crepitus were much more frequent in hyperthyroid patients than in controls, and some of them persisted despite effective restoration of euthyroidism by antithyroid drug treatment (182). This common finding of cardiovascular alterations in hyperthyroid patients may result from thyroid hormone excess itself, by hyperthyroidism-related worsening of preexisting cardiovascular disorders, or by the occurrence of novel cardiovascular abnormalities (186, 187). The importance of cardiovascular abnormalities is underscored by the observation that mortality of hyperthyroid patients is increased, mainly due to cardiovascular events (189, 190). Similar conclusions were reached also in a community-based study of elderly people (191), in which, however, definition of hyperthyroidism was based on the finding of low/suppressed serum TSH, which may not necessarily reflect thyroid hormone excess, but rather be the result of non-thyroidal illness syndrome.

Mitral valve prolapse was found more commonly in hyperthyroid patients (43%) than in controls (18%) (190). This increased incidence might be due to increased adrenergic tone, autoimmunity, or the augmented cardiac output associated with thyrotoxicosis. Most patients with thyrotoxicosis are adults. Many, especially those with toxic nodular goiter, are in the 50- to 70-years age group, which has a relatively high incidence of organic heart disease anyway (192). Thus, it is not surprising that cardiac abnormalities are prominent among the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. Frequent premature beats and paroxysmal tachycardia sometimes appear in thyrotoxic patients and may be disturbing to the patient. Atrial fibrillation occurs in thyrotoxicosis with or without preexisting heart disease, but it is more frequent in older patients (193), probably reflecting an increase in the prevalence of underlying cardiac abnormalities of ischemic or different origin (194). It may be paroxysmal or persistent during the thyrotoxic period. Attempts to correct this arrhythmia to normal in patients with persistent atrial fibrillation are usually unsuccessful while they are hyperthyroid. Once euthyroidism has been restored, atrial fibrillation may revert spontaneously or may be converted pharmacologically or by electroconversion. About two-thirds of patients undergo spontaneous reversion to sinus rhythm after receiving therapy for thyrotoxicosis, usually within 4 months; later on, spontaneous conversion is unlikely (195). It is wise to always evaluate thyroid function in clinically euthyroid patients with atrial arrhythmias with or without heart disease, because in about 20% of patients TSH tests and/or FT4 point to an overactive thyroid and in 50% of these patients normal sinus rhythm resumes after treatment with antithyroid drugs (195). It is widely accepted that subclinical hyperthyroidism is associated, in individuals aged 60 years or more with a 3-to-5-fold increased risk of developing atrial fibrillation (195).

Congestive heart failure is a frequent complication in thyrotoxic patients with pre-existing organic heart disease, particularly if old (196-198). In the elderly hyperthyroid patient, cardiac symptoms may so dominate the clinical picture that diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis may be overlooked. Careful attention should be given to this possibility in all patients with congestive heart failure, especially if goiter is detected (196). Congestive heart failure may occur in patients who have no detectable preexisting organic heart disease (199). Overt hyperthyroidism may cause ventricular dilatation and persistent tachycardia, which may lead to heart failure and fatal events (200). It is often difficult to establish whether an underlying heart disease is present in a hyperthyroid patient who also has a disorder of rhythm, a cardiac murmur, or congestive heart failure, because all these conditions may be ascribed to thyrotoxicosis per se. It is frequently gratifying to observe normalization of cardiac findings once euthyroidism has been restored.

In hyperthyroidism, owing to the increased metabolic demand, angina can be worsened if pre-existing, or induced de novo (186, 201, 202). Evidence of myocardial lactate production when the heart is paced at an accelerated rate (203), and normal coronary arteries are found at angiography after episodes of angina or infarction (203), have suggested that changes in thyrotoxicosis are due to an imbalance between O2 demand and supply rather than to arterial obstruction. This possibility is corroborated by the finding that coronary artery spasm of an otherwise normal vessel may occur during thyrotoxicosis (202).

Cardiac abnormalities found in Graves' disease often are entirely reversible, except that longstanding atrial fibrillation due to hyperthyroidism is not always convertible after euthyroidism is restored. It has become evident that even in the mildest forms of thyrotoxicosis subtle cardiac abnormalities may be present. Thus, in patients with so-called "subclinical" thyrotoxicosis, i.e. suppressed TSH and normal serum free T4 and T3 concentrations, due to multinodular, autonomous goiter or TSH-suppressive T4 treatment, mean basal 24-h heart rate is increased, there is an augmented risk of atrial premature beats and atrial fibrillation, and left ventricular function and wall thickness are increased (204).There is controversy whether TSH suppressive T4 treatment leads to functional cardiac abnormalities (204, 205).

Treatment of heart failure in the presence of thyrotoxicosis does not differ from its treatment in euthyroid patients, but it may be more difficult. Rest, salt restriction, diuretic therapy, digitalization and administration of afterload-reducers, like angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, betablockers, aldosterone antagonists and other specific measures, are in order (186, 196). Larger than normal doses of digoxin are required, but there is probably no change in the toxic-to-therapeutic dose ratio. Atrial fibrillation may be controlled by digoxin, propranolol, or both. Electroconversion is usually successful only after thyrotoxicosis has been resolved for a few months (206).

Hyperthyroidism should be controlled as expeditiously as possible. Congestive heart failure is a contraindication to operation. Most patients with thyrotoxicosis and clinically relevant heart disease are now treated with RAI. This treatment may be preceded by a 3-to-6-month course of antithyroid drug therapy to deplete their glands of stored thyroid hormone, a program that lessens any chance of an exacerbation of the heart disease caused by a radioiodine-induced release of thyroid hormone from the gland. Administration of 131I followed by antithyroid drugs, and potassium iodide or ipodate, that also inhibit T4 to T3 conversion, may be used in severely ill patients in whom a prompt response is needed. This method is described in Chapter 11.

Propranolol has been used successfully in the control of tachycardia, and also in patients with congestive heart failure if tachycardia appeared to be adding substantially to the problem. In these instances, possible depression of myocardial contractility by the drug was outweighed by the benefit derived from controlling the rate. In such circumstances, one must proceed with caution and often digoxin should be added.

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