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Thyroid Nodules and Cancer in the Elderly

ABSTRACT

 

Thyroid nodules and thyroid cancer are common in elderly patients and demonstrate age-specific prevalence, malignancy risk, and clinical behavior. Improved risk stratification by ultrasound characteristics and molecular testing of thyroid nodules pre-operatively has reduced the need for diagnostic surgery in many individuals. In patients with differentiated thyroid cancer, total thyroidectomy and radioactive iodine followed by thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) suppression remain the mainstays of therapy. However, newer approaches of active surveillance and thyroid lobectomy have expanded treatment options for patients with low risk differentiated thyroid cancer. Co-morbid conditions and patient preference should inform management of thyroid nodules and thyroid cancer in the elderly, with particular attention to the risks of surgery and medication adverse effects. Furthermore, the mechanisms underlying the distinct clinical behavior of thyroid cancer found in older patients, including the drivers of more advanced stage at presentation, higher recurrence risk, and greater mortality, remain poorly understood. Patients with advanced thyroid cancer may benefit from recently developed targeted and immune therapies.

 

THYROID NODULES IN THE ELDERLY

 

Thyroid nodules are common in clinical practice and present unique management issues in elderly patients. The reported prevalence of thyroid nodules in iodine sufficient regions is 1-6% as detected by palpation, or as high as 19-68% when detected by ultrasound imaging (1-5). Evaluation of thyroid nodules is increasingly a concern for general internists and endocrinologists in the context of an aging population, increased use of imaging in clinical practice, and rising obesity.

 

Thyroid nodules are more frequent in elderly patients, with a linear increase with age in both the presence of nodules and the absolute number of nodules per patient (6). Approximately 50% of individuals aged 65 years have thyroid nodules detected by ultrasonography (7). A cross-sectional survey of asymptomatic adults in Germany using ultrasonography to detect thyroid nodules demonstrated an even higher prevalence of 80% in women and 74% in men over 60 years old (4). In a prospective study of 6,391 patients referred for thyroid nodules at a large academic center, Kwong et al. showed a linear increase in the number of thyroid nodules per patient with age, rising from an average of 1.55 nodules ≥1 cm in patients age 20–29 years old to a mean of 2.21 nodules ≥1 cm in patients ≥70 years old, demonstrating a 1.6% annual increased risk for multinodularity (6).

 

Another potential contributor to this rising prevalence of thyroid nodules is the increased use of high-frequency ultrasound, CT, and MR imaging in routine clinical care, leading to the detection of asymptomatic, or incidental, thyroid nodules (4,5,7,8). Lastly, changes in population demographics over time, specifically increased rates of obesity, may contribute. Data from several ethnically diverse cohorts has identified parameters independently associated with the development of thyroid nodules, including obesity, female sex, radiation exposure, iodine deficiency, and smoking. These factors should be noted when evaluating elderly patients for potential thyroid nodules (9).

 

THYROID NODULE EVALUATION  

 

Once identified, thyroid nodules should be evaluated to determine appropriate management. The differential diagnosis of thyroid nodularity includes benign and malignant solitary nodules, multinodular goiter, autonomous functioning nodules, cysts, and inflammation or thyroiditis (10). Nodules causing thyroid dysfunction, compressive symptoms, or harboring malignancy require attention.

 

In the presence of biochemical and/or clinical signs of hyperthyroidism, a radioiodine uptake and scan should be pursued to distinguish autonomous nodules. Adjunctive data to support a diagnosis of inflammation or autoimmune destruction may include thyroid autoantibodies [anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg)]. In addition, the presence of thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins suggest a diagnosis of Graves’ disease in the presence of goiter (11).

 

Nodules without associated thyroid function abnormalities should be further evaluated to determine or exclude the presence of cancer. Guidelines from the American Thyroid Association summarize the management of non-functional thyroid nodules based upon imaging and patient characteristics (12). A general approach to evaluation of thyroid nodules is shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Approach to evaluation of thyroid nodules. Evaluation always includes measurement of thyroid function tests, including thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), and thyroid ultrasound. If hyperthyroidism is present, a thyroid uptake to exclude an autonomous functioning nodule (i.e. hyperfunctioning thyroid follicular tissue producing thyroid hormone excess). Cold nodules refer to nodules without autonomous production of thyroid hormone. Systems developed for malignancy risk stratification of thyroid nodules on ultrasound include the 2015 American Thyroid Association guidelines (ATA) and the American College of Radiology (ACR-TIRADS). Thyroid fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy should be considered for nodules with intermediate or high risk of malignancy based upon size and patient specific factors.

Thyroid ultrasound is the most important imaging modality in the assessment of thyroid nodules. Multiple systems have been developed to stratify thyroid nodules by their malignancy risk based upon ultrasound findings and provide recommendations for FNA biopsy (12-15). A systematic review and meta-analysis of eight studies including 13,092 thyroid nodules compared the diagnostic performance of four commonly used ultrasound-based risk stratification systems: the American College of Radiology Thyroid Imaging and Reporting System (ACR-TIRADS), the American Thyroid Association (ATA), the Korean Thyroid Imaging and Reporting System (K-TIRADS) and European Thyroid Imaging and Reporting System (EU-TIRADS) (12-16). This analysis found that the pooled rate of unnecessary FNA biopsies (i.e., those with a benign cytology result) was significantly lower with ACR-TIRADS (25%) when compared to ATA (51%, p<0.001) and K-TIRADS (55%, p<0.001), and not statistically different from EU-TIRADS (38%, p=0.087) (16). The diagnostic odds ratios among these four systems was similar (16). Features of thyroid nodules commonly associated with a higher risk of malignancy across these systems include solid and hypoechogenic appearance, irregular margins, microcalcifications, taller than wide shape, and evidence of extrathyroidal extension (12-15). Iso- or hyperechogenic appearance, smooth margins, and spongiform or partially cystic composition are features less associated with malignancy (12-15). Based upon ultrasound evaluation, nodules with highest risk for malignancy are recommended to have further evaluation by thyroid biopsy.

 

THYROID NODULE BIOPSY

 

Fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy is the recommended modality for sampling thyroid nodules. Cytology specimens collected by FNA are classified traditionally by the Bethesda System for Reporting Thyroid Cytopathology (17) across six categories: (i) non-diagnostic or unsatisfactory; (ii) benign; (iii) atypia of undetermined significance (AUS) or follicular lesion of undetermined significance (FLUS); (iv) follicular neoplasm or suspicious for a follicular neoplasm; (v) suspicious for malignancy; and (vi) malignant (Table 1). The risk of malignancy determined by surgical pathology is estimated across each category and used to guide decisions about continued clinical observation or treatment with surgical resection (17).

 

Table 1. Bethesda System for Reporting Thyroid Cytopathology and Associated Estimated Risk of Malignancy.

Bethesda category

Cytopathology

Cytologic descriptions

Malignancy risk

  Cancer = NIFTP

  Cancer ≠ NIFTP

Typical management

I

Non-diagnostic

 

Acellular specimen

Cyst fluid only

Obscuring factors

5-10%

5-10%

Repeat FNA

 

Ii

Benign

 

Benign follicular nodule

Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis

Granulomatous thyroiditis

0-3%

0-3%

Clinical and ultrasound follow-up

Iii

Atypia of undetermined significance (AUS) or follicular lesion

of undetermined significance (FLUS)

Atypia: Cytologic (focal nuclear changes, extensive but mild nuclear changes, atypical cyst lining cells, or ‘‘histiocytoid’’ cells) and/or architectural (predominantly microfollicles, sparsely cellular); Hurthle cells

6-18%

10-30%

Repeat FNA, molecular testing, or diagnostic lobectomy

Iv

Follicular neoplasm or suspicious for a follicular neoplasm

 

Follicular-patterned cases with mild nuclear changes (increased nuclear size, nuclear contour irregularity, and/or chromatin clearing), and lacking true papillae and intranuclear pseudo-inclusions

10-40%

25-40%

Molecular testing or diagnostic lobectomy

V

Suspicious for malignancy

 

Features suspicious for PTC, MTC, lymphoma, or other malignancy

45-60%

50-75%

Total thyroidectomy or lobectomy

Vi

Malignant

 

 

Features conclusive for malignancy:

PTC (true papillae, psammoma bodies, nuclear pseudo-inclusions)

MTC

Poorly differentiated / ATC

Non-endocrine malignancy (squamous cell, lymphoma, metastatic)

 

94-96%

97-99%

Total thyroidectomy or lobectomy

PTC, papillary thyroid carcinoma. MTC, medullary thyroid cancer. ATC, anaplastic thyroid cancer. NIFTP, noninvasive follicular thyroid neoplasm with papillary-like nuclear features.

 

In situations of non-diagnostic FNA results or indeterminate cytology (i.e., Bethesda iii or iv), repeat FNA biopsy is recommended. Additionally, three molecular tests are now available for further cancer risk stratification and can reduce the number of thyroid surgeries performed for ultimately benign lesions (18). The ThyroSeq v3 multigenomic classifer (University of Pittsburgh Medical Center and CBL PATH, Pittsburgh, PA) is a DNA based assay that detects the presence of high-risk cancer mutations and was initially developed as a rule-in test for thyroid cancer (19). The current version, ThyroSeq v3, incorporates 112 genes associated with thyroid cancer and has a reported sensitivity of 98% and specificity of 81% for detection of thyroid cancer from FNA samples (20). The Afirma genomic sequencing classifier (GSC) (Veracyte, San Francisco, CA, USA) evaluates mRNA expression associated with benign or malignant profiles and detects thyroid cancer-associated mutations (21, 22). The Afirma GSC has a reported sensitivity of 91% (95% CI, 79-98) and a specificity of 68% (95% CI, 60-76) for thyroid cancer (21). A recent randomized clinical trial compared the diagnostic performance between the Thyroseq v3 and Afirma GSC assays in 346 patients with 427 cytologically indeterminate nodules (median age, 55 years) (18). This study found that both molecular tests showed high specificity for thyroid cancer with no significant differences in diagnostic performance, leading to 49% of patients avoiding diagnostic surgery. Lastly, the combined ThyraMIR microRNA Classifier and ThyGenX Oncogene Panel (Interpace Diagnostics, Parsippany, NJ) is a cancer rule-in test that uses multiplex PCR to identify cancer-associated gene mutations and translocations, done in tandem with evaluation of microRNA expression. The test estimated negative predictive value and positive predictive value are 94% and 74%, respectively (23). As molecular testing continues to evolve, clinicians and patients will have additional tools to aid in treatment decisions.

 

AGE-SPECIFIC NODULE PREVALENCE AND MALIGNANCY RISK

 

Several studies have specifically addressed thyroid cancer risk and nodule management across the age spectrum. Kwong et al. (6) reported the rate of malignancy in a cohort of 6,391 patients referred to a large academic center who underwent thyroid ultrasound and FNA of 12,115 nodules (all ≥1 cm). With advancing age, the prevalence of clinically relevant (>1 cm) thyroid nodules increased, whereas the risk that such nodules were malignant decreased. For patients ages 20–29, 30–39, 40–49, 50–59, 60–69, and >70 years, the cancer prevalence was 22.9, 21.8, 17.1, 13.0, 13.7, and 12.6%, respectively (p<0.001). When the malignancy rate was analyzed “per-nodule,” the youngest cohort (20–29 years) demonstrated a 14.8% malignant risk per nodule at diagnosis in comparison to 5.6% in the oldest cohort (>70 y; p<0.01). Between the ages of 20 and 60 years, each advancing year was associated with a 2.2% reduction in the relative risk that any newly evaluated thyroid nodule was malignant (OR 0.972; p<0.001), and this risk of malignancy stabilized after age 60 years. However, this study also found that despite a lower likelihood of malignancy for nodules in elderly patients, these cancers were more likely to have aggressive phenotypes (6).

 

Further addressing the burden and risk of thyroid nodule evaluation in older patients, Angell and colleagues analyzed a large cohort of elderly patients (age 70 years and older) who underwent thyroid nodule evaluation over a 20-year period (24). In this study, 1,129 patients over the age of 70 years with 2,527 nodules ≥1 cm were evaluated. Thyroid cancer-specific mortality was observed in 8% of thyroid cancer patients. All such patients could be recognized during initial evaluation based on the presence of invasive tumor, extensive lymph node metastases, or distant metastases. While FNA was a safe procedure in this age-group and a benign result was obtained in two-thirds of samples, FNA led to surgery in 208 patients, of whom 93 (44.7%) had benign histopathology. These data suggest that while an identifiable group of older patients are at risk for mortality from thyroid cancer warranting aggressive treatment, many patients ≥70 years old derive little benefit or are even harmed by thyroid nodule therapy.

 

Judicious use of FNA biopsy, improved stratification of nodule cancer risk by ultrasound characteristics, and molecular testing have improved pre-operative determination of malignancy risk in patients with thyroid nodules and reduced the need for diagnostic surgery. However, a significant number of patients who undergo thyroid nodule resection for suspicious nodules are still ultimately found to have benign lesions on surgical histopathology. Particularly in elderly patients with a greater burden of co-morbid medical disease, the risk of unnecessary thyroid surgery is an important consideration.

 

DIFFERENTIATED THYROID CANCER IN THE ELDERLY

 

While thyroid nodules are relatively common in elderly patients and the vast majority are benign (24), thyroid cancer is identified in a subset. Patients and their families are often concerned about the implications of this diagnosis and disease outcomes. Several subtypes of thyroid cancer are frequently encountered and increasing information about the underlying biology of these malignancies is now available. Most thyroid cancers are identified incidentally on imaging rather than by palpation on physical examination. Rarely, symptoms of thyroid cancer can include lymphadenopathy, hoarseness from laryngeal nerve involvement, dysphagia, airway compression from mass effect, or pain; when present, these symptoms portend more advanced disease and worse clinical prognosis (25, 26). When thyroid cancer is identified, a combination of surgical, radioactive iodine, and surveillance strategies are employed and tailored to the individual patient and disease characteristics.

 

Incidence and Prevalence of Thyroid Cancer

 

Thyroid cancer currently accounts for 2.3% of all new cancers, with an estimated 44,280 new cases in 2021, but only 0.4% of cancer deaths, in the United States annually (27). In the general population, the peak occurrence is between ages 51 and 60 years (28). Thyroid cancer is more common in women than men and among those with a family history of thyroid disease (27).

 

The incidence of thyroid rose over the past few decades, from an incidence of approximately 5 new cases per 100,000 persons per year in 1975 to a peak of 15 new cases per 100,000 in 2014 (27). The rate of thyroid cancer more recently has remained near 13 to 14 cases per 100,000 (27). Notably, small (<2 cm) papillary thyroid cancers account for the majority of this increase (29), and despite a much higher incidence, the death rate from thyroid cancer has remained stable (27, 30), likely reflecting greater detection of early disease associated with a good prognosis.

 

Classification of Thyroid Cancer

 

Thyroid follicular cell-derived cancer is subdivided into several histopathologic types: papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC), follicular thyroid carcinoma (FTC), Hurthle cell carcinoma (HCC), and poorly differentiated or anaplastic thyroid cancer (31-33). Other malignancies encountered in the thyroid include medullary thyroid cancer arising from thyroid gland C-cells (discussed below), lymphoma, and secondary metastasis of other primary cancers.

 

Papillary thyroid cancer (PTC) is the most common type of differentiated thyroid cancer (DTC) accounting for approximately 80 to 85% of all cases (27, 31-33). It has a bimodal frequency, with the peak incidence being in the third and sixth decades, and it affects women three times more often than men. These carcinomas arise from the thyroid follicular cells and frequently harbor BRAF V600E mutations, produce thyroglobulin (Tg), and express the sodium-iodide symporter (NIS) with resultant radio-iodine avidity (31). A history of radiation exposure increases the risk of PTC (34-36). PTC frequently spreads via the lymphatics to the regional lymph nodes, and bilateral involvement is present in approximately one-third of the cases at diagnosis. In rare cases, metastatic disease occurs in the lungs, brain, and bone (31).

 

Micropapillary thyroid cancer, defined as a PTC less than 1 cm in diameter and confined to the thyroid, is likely to be of minimal clinical significance (37). A prospective, observation study of papillary thyroid microcarcinoma in Japan, found that in patients less than age 40 the microcarcinoma progressed to clinical disease, (defined as significant growth, size >1.2 cm, or lymph node metastases), in contrast to those over age 60, whose disease remained static (38), suggesting that in most elderly patients these lesions can be safely observed.

 

Follicular thyroid cancer (FTC) is the second most common type of DTC and constitutes approximately 10 to 15% of all thyroid cancers (27, 31, 32). Risk factors include iodine deficiency and female sex (27, 39, 40). Compared to PTC, FTC less often has cervical lymph node spread but shows a predilection for vascular invasion and distant metastasis (41). Mutations of RAS, an activator of the mitogen-activated protein kinase and PI3K-AKT pathways, and rearrangements of PPAR-γ (e.g., PAX8-PPAR-γ translocation) have been implicated in the tumorigenesis of follicular adenomas and FTC (41, 42).

 

Hurthle cell carcinomas (HCCs) account for 5% of DTC and are characterized by an abundance of dysfunctional mitochondria (>75% of cell volume) and tendency for vascular invasion (43, 44). These malignancies are more often radio-iodine refractory and aggressive in clinical behavior. Unique genetic drivers of HCC have been reported, namely widespread loss of heterozygosity, a high burden of disruptive mutations to protein-coding and tRNA-encoding regions of the mitochondrial genome, and recurrent mutations in DAXX, TP53, NF1, CDKN1A, ARHGAP35, TERT promoter, and the RTK/RAS/AKT/ mTOR pathway (45, 46).

 

Anaplastic thyroid cancer is rare and discussed separately.

 

Variation in Histopathology and Tumor Extent by Age

 

Several studies have shown variance in histopathology distribution with rising age. Lin et al. (47) conducted a retrospective analysis of 204 thyroid cancer patients aged 60 years and older; 142 (70%) thyroid cancers were well differentiated and of those 68% were PTC, 30% FTC, and 2% Hurthle cell carcinoma. Fifty-nine (29%) of the thyroid cancers were poorly differentiated (39 anaplastic thyroid, 9 metastatic cancers to the thyroid, 7 lymphoma, 4 squamous cell carcinomas, and 4 without enough cells for interpretation) and 3 (2%) were medullary thyroid cancer. This pattern is significant for fewer PTC and more FTC in elderly patients, as well as more poorly-differentiated tumors.

 

Girardi et al. conducted a retrospective study of thyroid cancer in 596 adults from 2000-2010; their results similarly showed a lower frequency of PTC among elderly patients, with a complementary increase in the frequency of FTC, poorly differentiated and anaplastic thyroid carcinoma (28). This study also demonstrated variability in other presenting features of thyroid cancer in elderly patients (age ≥ 65 years) compared to middle-aged cohorts (25-44 years or 45-64 years); specifically, there was larger primary tumor size (median 2.1 cm for elderly versus 1.5 cm in 25-44 years and 1.1 cm in 45-64 years) and higher rates of extrathyroidal disease (mean 43% for elderly versus 25.3% in 25-44 years and 28.6% in 45-64 years) (28). Lymph node metastasis was greatest at the extremes of age (<24 and >70 years).

 

Similarly, Chereau et al. evaluated histopathology and extent of disease at diagnosis in elderly (65-75 years old) and very elderly (>75 years old) patients compared to younger patients in 3,835 patients treated at an academic center from 1978 to 2014 (48). These data were notable for significantly increased primary tumor size, tumor number, extra-capsular invasion, advanced TNM stage, and lymph node and distant metastasis in the very old group (48). Collectively these studies show a pattern of more widespread disease at presentation in elderly patients and a relative increase in the frequency of more aggressive histologic subtypes.

 

Relation of Age to Mortality and Risk of Recurrence

 

Numerous studies have demonstrated increased recurrence and mortality in thyroid cancer with rising age (49-54). Indeed, age is incorporated into current clinical staging systems for differentiated thyroid cancer, including the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) 8th edition (55); Metastasis, Age, Completeness of resection, Invasion, Size (MACIS) model (56); Age, Grade, Extent, Size (AGES) score; and the Age, Metastasis, Extent, Size (AMES) score (57). In all of these staging systems, advanced age is included as a risk factor predicting worse prognosis.

 

Historic studies by Halnan (58) and Cady et al. (59) established a positive correlation between advanced age and worse prognosis in patients with DTC, later corroborated by Ito et al. (60) in a study of 1,740 patients with PTC and by Sugino et al. (61) in 134 patients with FTC. In many of these studies, worse prognosis has been defined variably as recurrence, decreased disease- or metastasis-free survival, cause-specific mortality, and/or overall mortality. Other reports have shown that the presence of lymph node involvement and extrathyroidal extension may portend a more ominous outcome in older compared to younger patients (59, 62-64). Extrathyroidal disease in older patients increased recurrence to 67% and death rates to 60% compared to those with intrathyroidal disease, while in younger patients the relative increases were 12% and 4%, respectively (59). Additionally, the risk of death with distant metastasis is greater in older compared to younger patients (96% versus 63%) (59).

 

Recently, this well-accepted tenet of thyroid cancer has been modified in two important ways, namely that age likely modifies prognosis in a continuous rather than dichotomous manner and that age itself may not be as relevant to thyroid cancer behavior as the accompanying changes in accumulated cell mutations, immune senescence, and hormone changes that accompany it (65).

 

With the 8th edition of AJCC staging for differentiated thyroid cancer, the age threshold for increased risk was raised from 45 to 55 years, based upon several reports suggesting that this increased validity for staging (66, 67). More recent data suggest that thyroid cancer mortality and recurrence prediction is more robust when age is modeled as a continuous variable, leading some to suggest the elimination of a specific age cutoff from staging completely (65).

 

In a study of 3,664 patients with differentiated thyroid cancer, Ganly et al. found that disease-specific mortality increased progressively with advancing age, without a threshold age (54). Similarly, evaluation of over 30,000 patients in the SEER database by Orosco et al. demonstrated a linear association with age and thyroid cancer death (53).

 

A review by Haymart et al. summarizes possible biologic mechanisms underlying the clinical observations of worse thyroid cancer prognosis in the elderly (51). Briefly, mortality findings may be confounded by greater comorbid nonthyroidal diseases with older age. Higher baseline levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) may accelerate tumor cell growth via stimulation of the TSH-receptor. If one presumes that thyroid cancers detected in elderly patients have had a longer time of subclinical growth and evolution compared to cancers detected in younger patients, then such tumors might have had greater opportunity to acquire genetic mutations facilitating cell cycle escape, loss of differentiated features (e.g., loss of sodium-iodine symporter and radioiodine avidity), and metastasis. In summary, there is significant observational evidence that older patients with thyroid cancer have worse clinical outcomes, though the precise effect of increasing age and the etiology of this distinct clinical behavior remain incompletely understood.

 

Treatment of Differentiated Thyroid Cancer

 

Historically, differentiated thyroid cancers were treated with complete surgical resection of the thyroid gland combined with thyroid hormone suppression of TSH and radioactive iodine adjuvant therapy. More recently, recognition of the overall good prognosis and low disease specific survival in patients with DTC (68) has shifted management toward greater consideration for partial thyroid surgery, reduced use of radioactive iodine (RAI) in patients with low risk of recurrent disease, and active surveillance of some cancers. Treatment strategies for progressive or metastatic disease include repeat surgery, RAI ablation, or systemic therapies (12). A general approach to the treatment of differentiated thyroid cancers is presented in Figure 2.

Figure 2. Approach to the treatment of differentiated thyroid cancers (DTC). RAI, radioactive iodine. TSH, thyroid stimulating hormone.

Management will be influenced by patient characteristics, such as age, comorbid conditions, and preference for invasive or conservative therapy, and modalities available at the treating center. Two competing facts in older patients must be considered in selecting appropriate therapy for each individual. First, as discussed above, thyroid cancer in elderly patients is associated with more aggressive histologic features and greater lymph node spread at diagnosis. On the other hand, thyroid-cancer related mortality remains very low and treatment-associated morbidity may pose a greater risk to the elderly patient (68, 69).

 

Papaleontio and colleagues recently demonstrated that competing causes of death in older patients (>65 years) with DTC contributed more to patient mortality than the underlying diagnosis of thyroid cancer (69). Among 21,509 elderly patients with thyroid cancer identified in the SEER-Medicare database, 4168 (19.4%) died of other causes versus 2644 (12.3%) died of thyroid cancer during the study period from 2000 to 2015, with median follow-up of 50 months. Specifically for DTC patients, the likelihood of dying from other causes exceeded the likelihood of dying from thyroid cancer. A competing risks hazards regression analysis showed that heart disease [HR 1.34; CI (1.25–1.44)], chronic lower respiratory disease [HR 1.25; CI (1.17–1.34)], and diabetes mellitus [HR 1.14; CI (1.06-1.21)] were associated with death from other causes. Increased probability of death from thyroid cancer was associated with non-papillary histology [e.g., FTC HR 1.29; CI (1.12-1.48), or anaplastic HR 5.51; CI (4.82-6.31)], larger tumor size [ >4cm HR 3.35; CI (2.71-4.15)], and regional or distant metastatic disease [HR 4.59; CI (3.98-5.31) and HR 12.65; CI (10.91-14.66), respectively]. Progressively advancing age was associated with an increased probability of death from both other causes and thyroid cancer. In summary, this suggests that in elderly patients a diagnosis of thyroid cancer may not be the most significant factor influencing life expectancy. A careful discussion of treatment options, including expected benefits and risks in the context of disease burden and comorbid conditions, is warranted with each patient.

 

SURGERY

 

Patients diagnosed with DTC by thyroid FNA, or with a nodule highly suspicious for malignancy, may be referred to a surgeon for thyroid resection. Total thyroidectomy aims to remove the primary tumor and normal thyroid tissue and remains the primary initial treatment for DTC (12). Thyroid lobectomy is a more limited surgery that removes only the primary tumor and ipsilateral normal thyroid lobe. Additional exploration and removal of central and lateral neck lymph nodes suspicious for cancer metastases may be done concurrently with either procedure, as guided by preoperative imaging or intraoperative findings. The decisions to pursue surgery and the extent of surgery (i.e., total thyroidectomy versus lobectomy) in an elderly patient require individual evaluation of co-morbid illnesses and life expectancy.

 

The most common complications of thyroidectomy include hypoparathyroidism, recurrent laryngeal nerve injury, hematoma, and wound infection; high-volume thyroid surgeons have minimal to no increase in the risk of surgical complications with increasing age (70-75). However, elderly patients are more likely to receive thyroidectomy at community and low-volume sites (76) where the rate of surgical complications may be higher. In population-based studies of thyroidectomy, which may reflect more accurately the experience of many elderly patients, increasing age is associated with longer hospital length of stay (76) and readmissions after thyroidectomy (77). In the cohort of elderly and very elderly patients studied by Chereau et al. (48), the authors found no increase in thyroidectomy-specific complications (i.e., permanent hypocalcemia and recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy) with increasing age, but did find an increase in medical complications surrounding surgery, 2.3-2.7% in those over 65 years of age compared to 0.6% in those under 65 years old.

 

LOBECTOMY

 

Thyroid lobectomy may be considered in select patients with low-risk disease (12, 70). The ATA guidelines revised in 2015 suggest that lobectomy is appropriate for DTC with a primary tumor size <4 cm and without extrathyroidal extension or clinical evidence of lymph node metastasis (12). Potential advantages of lobectomy over total thyroidectomy are lower rates of surgical complications from hypoparathyroidism and recurrent laryngeal nerve damage (78). In addition, some patients do not require thyroid hormone replacement after lobectomy to achieve the recommended low normal target TSH range of 0.5-2mIU/L (79).

 

On the other hand, patients who initially undergo lobectomy, but are found to have aggressive disease features (e.g.,extrathyroidal extension, lymph node metastasis) on surgical pathology, are encouraged to undergo completion thyroidectomy. This facilitates monitoring of disease with serum thyroglobulin (Tg) and treatment with adjuvant RAI (discussed below). Because elderly patients more often have aggressive disease features and higher rates of local recurrence requiring re-operation, some recommend initial total thyroidectomy in this population (73).

 

ACTIVE SURVEILLANCE  

 

Although surgery is the accepted initial management for most DTC, active surveillance may be an alternative strategy to immediate surgery for an appropriately selected group of patients (80). Multiple international retrospective studies with long term follow-up suggest that many small (<1-1.5cm), well-differentiated PTCs, without evidence of extrathyroidal extension or metastases, have low rates of growth and progression (38, 81, 82). In a cohort of 291 US patients with low-risk PTC followed by serial ultrasonography, Tuttle and colleagues (74e) showed significant growth in only a minority of patients over a median follow-up of 25 months: volume increase of greater than 50% in only 36 (12%) patients, and size increase greater than 3 mm in 11 (3.8%) patients. Ito and colleagues (38) similarly showed in a cohort of 1235 Japanese patients with small PTCs followed with active ultrasonographic surveillance for a median of 75 months that, by 5 and 10 years, only 4.9% and 8% of patients experienced tumor growth of more than 3 mm, and 1.7% and 3.8% of patients experienced new lymph node metastases, respectively. Importantly, in a subset of patients who ultimately underwent thyroid surgery in this study, none were found to have distant metastases and no patient died of PTC, suggesting that delaying intervention until the time of growth or detection of lymph node spread did not adversely affect mortality. Active surveillance for low-risk PTC may avoid unwarranted surgery, surgical complications, RAI administration, and lifelong thyroid hormone replacement therapy and should be considered for appropriate patients, particularly those with reliable follow-up, high surgical risk, shorter life expectancy, or with concomitant medical issues that need to be addressed before surgery (80, 83).

 

RADIOACTIVE IODINE ABLATION  

 

Based upon the extent of primary disease noted on surgical pathology (i.e., tumor size, extrathyroidal extension, lymph node and vascular spread), patients can be stratified by their risk for recurrent disease. Adjuvant therapy with radioactive iodine (I131; usual dose100-150mCi) is recommended for patients with a high risk of recurrence after total thyroidectomy, and RAI should be considered for patients with an intermediate risk of recurrence (12). An analysis of 21,870 patients with intermediate-risk PTC found that adjuvant RAI therapy was associated with a 29% reduced risk of death overall with clear benefit in those over 65 years of age (84). RAI may also be used as a treatment modality in patients with persistent or recurrent RAI-avid disease who are not surgical candidates, usually requiring doses of 150mCi or higher. Finally, lower doses of RAI (30mCi) may be used to ablate remnant normal thyroid tissue and improve the utility of serum Tg tumor marker monitoring even in patients with a lower risk of recurrence. Two multicenter studies showed that an ablative dose of 30 mCi (1.1 MBq) I131 was as effective as 100 mCi (3.7 MBq); both doses were 90% effective for ablation of residual thyroid tissue (85, 86). A long-term follow-up of one of these studies (median 4.5 years) showed that the radioiodine dose selected for remnant ablation did not affect recurrence rate (87).

 

Treatment benefits of RAI should be weighed against side effects. The adverse effects of RAI therapy are increasingly recognized and include transient neck pain and swelling, decreased fertility, dry mouth and eyes, and secondary malignancy and are correlated with higher I131 doses (88).

 

In patients initially treated with lobectomy or active surveillance for low-risk DTC, surgical removal of remaining normal thyroid tissue is recommended prior to RAI use.

 

THYROID STIMULATING HORMONE (TSH) SUPPRESSION

 

Following surgery, and RAIA if indicated, patients are treated with thyroid hormone, usually with a dose of levothyroxine that suppresses serum TSH to subnormal levels. Several special considerations for the goals of thyroid hormone therapy following thyroid cancer arise in elderly patients.

 

Thyroid hormone replacement is titrated to levels sufficient to suppress pituitary secretion of TSH, which is considered a growth-promoting factor for follicular cell-derived thyroid cancers. Revised guidelines from the ATA (12) suggest individualized targets for TSH suppression in thyroid cancer, generally targeting a low to low-normal range TSH. Greater TSH suppression in more aggressive disease is balanced with greater cardiac and bone complications in elderly patients.

 

Older patients are more likely to have co-morbid cardiac disease, including arrhythmias, coronary artery disease, and heart failure, which can place them at increased risk for complications from thyroid hormone excess. A population-based study of patients taking levothyroxine for any cause, found a significantly higher risk of cardiac arrhythmias [HR 1.6 (1.10–2.33)] and cardiovascular admission or death [1.37 (1.17–1.60)] in those with a suppressed serum TSH (≤0.03 mU/L) compared to those with TSH in the normal reference interval (89). Notably, increased cardiovascular risk was not observed in patients with a low but not fully suppressed TSH (TSH 0.04 – 0.4 mU/L). Specifically, in thyroid cancer patients treated with levothyroxine with modestly suppressed TSH (mean TSH <0.35 mU/L), atrial fibrillation was common (17.5% prevalence) in those patients ≥60 years old (89).

 

Longstanding hyperthyroidism is associated with osteoporotic fractures and loss of bone mineral density. Specifically, post-menopausal women (≥65yo) with suppressed TSH levels (0.1 mU/L) due to endogenous or exogenous thyroid hormone had significantly higher rates of new hip (OR 3.6, 95% CI 1.0-12.9) and vertebral fractures (OR 4.5, 95% CI 1.3 -15.6) compared to comparable women with normal TSH levels over a 3.7 years follow-up (90). In adult patients on levothyroxine therapy, a suppressed TSH (≤0.03 mU/L) was associated with a two-fold increase in risk [HR 2.02 (1.55–2.62)] of new osteoporotic fracture compared to similar patients treated with levothyroxine with a TSH maintained in the normal reference interval (89). Studies evaluating thyroid cancer patients are limited in outcome evaluation of bone mineral density (BMD) rather than fracture incidence, but generally support similar conclusions regarding lower BMD with suppressive-dose levothyroxine therapy (91-93). In elderly patients receiving TSH-suppression therapy, dual-emission X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) monitoring of BMD should be considered based upon age and other risk factors for osteoporosis. There are no guidelines to suggest the optimal interval for DEXA screening; osteoporosis once identified should be treated using standard therapies (such as bisphosphonates or RANKL inhibitor) unless otherwise contraindicated (94).

 

Peripheral metabolism of thyroid hormone and clearance decreases with advanced age so that a lower medication dose is needed to achieve comparable serum levels (95, 96). Levothyroxine therapy is complicated further by polypharmacy in elderly patients, where commonly prescribed medications (e.g., calcium, iron) can decrease gut absorption of levothyroxine (97) or change drug metabolism (e.g., rifampicin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, amiodarone) (98). In summary, as suggested by society guidelines (12), TSH goals in thyroid cancer should be individualized and re-evaluated over time.

 

POSTOPERATIVE SURVEILLANCE

 

Recommended follow-up of DTC includes biochemical surveillance with measurement of serum thyroglobulin (Tg) and Tg antibody (Tg Ab) concentrations and structural surveillance with neck ultrasonography at clinically appropriate intervals (12).

 

Tg is a thyroid-specific protein that can be measured in blood to monitor for the presence of thyroid cancer, as well as remnant normal thyroid tissue. As such, serum Tg is used as a tumor marker for follicular cell-derived thyroid cancers, including PTC, FTC, and Hurthle cell thyroid cancer. Serum Tg levels are initially checked 4-6 weeks after total thyroidectomy, and then at intervals of 6-12 months (12). The trends of serum Tg overtime are most informative, with a rising Tg concerning for disease recurrence. While Tg levels are usually monitored in the context of a suppressed TSH, a stimulated Tg measurement may provide a more sensitive evaluation for persistent or recurrent disease (99). Finally, the measurement of serum Tg is confounded by the presence of Tg antibodies (Tg Ab), which occurs in approximately 20% of patients with DTC and can mask recurrent or persistent disease by causing falsely low or undetectable serum Tg levels (100). Evidence from retrospective studies suggests that increasing TgAb levels (measured using validated assays), compared with stable or decreasing titers, can be used as a surrogate tumor marker in these patients (100, 101). A suppressed Tg level >0.2 ng/mL after total thyroidectomy and RAI, a stimulated Tg level >2- 5 ng/mL, a rising Tg level, or the persistence of Tg antibodies, is concerning for further evaluation (12, 100). A persistently elevated (>0.2ng/mL Tg with TSH suppression or >2ng/mL stimulated Tg) or rising serum Tg or Tg Ab level should prompt concern for persistent or recurrent disease (12).

 

In patients who have not received RAI after thyroidectomy, residual normal thyroid tissue may contribute to a higher baseline Tg level after thyroidectomy. In these patients, a suppressed Tg >1ng/mL or rising Tg level should prompt concern for disease recurrence. Similarly, because of the significant volume of normal thyroid tissue remaining in patients who have undergone thyroid lobectomy, the optimal use of Tg in these patients remains uncertain.

 

DYNAMIC RISK STRATIFICATION

 

The process by which serum Tg (or Tg Ab) levels and imaging surveillance data are combined to make an evolving assessment of disease status in DTC patients is called dynamic risk stratification (12, 102). Patients are classified across the spectrum from no biochemical or structural evidence of disease to definite persistent or recurrent thyroid cancer.

 

Patients with reassuring or low risk continue on the current regimen of tumor surveillance or are relaxed to a more conservative approach. In contrast, patients in whom DRS shows an increasing risk of thyroid cancer recurrence or progression are recommended to undergo further diagnostic evaluations to localize disease and/or additional treatment. In addition, levothyroxine therapy may be adjusted for greater TSH suppression and the interval of monitoring with serum tumor markers and imaging may be shortened.

 

Specifically, patients with no biochemical or structural evidence of disease are deemed to have an “excellent response” (12, 102). TSH suppression is relaxed to the low normal range (0.5-2mIU/L) to mitigate long term adverse effects of iatrogenic hyperthyroidism and annual tumor marker surveillance with or without thyroid ultrasound usual. A “biochemical incomplete” response indicates persistent abnormal Tg values or increasing TgAb levels in the absence of localizable disease (12, 102). An “indeterminate response” is defined as nonspecific biochemical or structural findings that cannot be confidently classified as representing malignant disease (12, 102). Patients with a “biochemical incomplete’ or “indeterminate response” have a TSH goal of 0.1 - 0.5mIU/L. In patients with clear recurrent or persistent disease on imaging and elevated Tg or TgAb serum markers are classified as structural incomplete response” (12, 102). TSH is maintained suppressed below 0.1mIU/L. In these patients, and some with “incomplete biochemical” or “indeterminate response,” additional evaluation with neck ultrasonography, whole-body RAI scanning, and/or PET/CT depending on level of clinical suspicion, is recommended to localize residual thyroid tissue/cancer. Identification of abnormal lymph nodes or tumor mass can then be evaluated for possible further treatment with RAI, surgery, or targeted therapy.

 

SYSTEMIC THERAPY

 

Patients with advanced and symptomatic DTC that cannot be treated with further surgery or RAI may benefit from systemic therapy. Older cytotoxic drugs have shown little benefit for progressive, advanced, or metastatic papillary or follicular thyroid cancer while causing significant side effects. Improved understanding of the pathogenesis of these cancers is leading to the development of new agents aimed at specific oncogenic mechanisms (e.g., RET, BRAF). Currently three tyrosine kinase inhibitors (sorafenib, lenvatinib, and cabozantinib) are approved for therapy of metastatic, RAI-resistant DTC.

 

Sorafenib, an oral multi-kinase inhibitor, inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFR-1, VEGFR-2, and VEGFR-3), RET kinase (including RET/PTC), BRAF V600E, and platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) beta. In the DECISION phase 3 multicenter placebo-controlled trial of 416 patients, 409 had distant metastases: 86% in the lungs, 51% in lymph nodes, and 27% in bone (103). The group treated with sorafenib had longer progression-free survival (10.8 months) compared to the placebo group (5.8 months). At disease progression, 71% of patients in the placebo group crossed over to receive open-label sorafenib; as a consequence, overall survival did not differ between the two groups. Twenty percent of patients in the sorafenib group received other cancer therapy after the trial. The most frequent adverse events in the active drug group were palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia, diarrhea, alopecia, rash, weight loss, hypertension, anorexia, oral mucositis and pruritus. Side effects were relieved by dose reduction.

 

Lenvatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor of the VEGFRs 1, 2, and 3; fibroblast derived growth factor receptor (FGFR)s 1 through 4; PDGFRα; RET; and KIT signaling pathways. The SELECT phase 3 trial randomly assigned 261 patients to receive lenvatinib and 131 patients to receive placebo; the median age of patients in the trial was over 60 years (104). The median duration of follow-up was 17 months; 114 patients assigned placebo had progression, and 109 of them elected to receive lenvatinib. Disease progression occurred in 36% in the lenvatinib group compared to 83% in the placebo group. Median progression free survival was 18.3 months with lenvatinib versus 3.6 months with placebo. Disease response rate was 66% with lenvatinib compared with 1.5% with placebo. The benefit appeared in all subgroups, including all histologic types of tumor. Adverse events occurred in 97% of patients taking lenvatinib and in 60% taking placebo; the main adverse events were hypertension, diarrhea, fatigue, decreased appetite, palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia, proteinuria, renal failure, and thromboembolic events.

 

Cabozantinib, another kinase inhibitor, was approved for use in metastatic, RAI-refractory DTC based upon the findings of the COSMIC-311 trial (105). This study showed longer progression free survival with cabozantinib treatment (n=125) compared to placebo (n=62): median not reached (96% CI 5.7 months-not estimable [NE]) versus 1.9 months (CI 1.8-3.6); hazard ratio 0·22 (96% CI 0.13-0.36; p<0·0001). Of note, patients included in this trial must have previously progressed on prior sorafenib and/or lenvatinib therapy, and those in the placebo arm were allowed to cross over to cabozantinib therapy on disease progression. Side effects of cabozantinib were similar to other kinase inhibitors, including palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia, hypertension, and fatigue.

 

In 2020, two RET inhibitors, selpercatinib and pralsetinib, were approved for the treatment of advanced or metastatic RET-altered thyroid cancers, including medullary and follicular cell-derived. Selpercatinib (LIBRETTO-001) showed an overall response rate of 79% (95% CI, 54 to 94), and 1-year progression-free survival of 64% (95% CI, 37 to 82) in 19 patients with previously treated RET fusion-positive thyroid cancer (inclusive of PTC, Hurthle cell, poorly differentiated and analplastic) (106). The most common high grade (3-4) adverse events were hypertension, hepatotoxicity, hyponatremia, and diarrhea (106). A recently published update of LIBRETTO-001 outcomes (107), showed a persistent overall response rate of 77.3% (95% CI 54.6-92.2) with a median duratrion of response of 18.4 months (95% CI 10.1-not reached) and 68.6% (95% CI 42.8-84.6) of patients showing continued progression free survival >12 months. The efficacy evaluation for pralsetinib in patients with RET fusion–positive thyroid cancer was based on the phase I/II ARROW study (108) evaluating nine patients with RAI-refractory PTC; 56% had received prior lenvatinib and/or sorafenib and 22% had received cabozantinib and/or vandetanib. The overall response rate was 89% (95% CI 52-100), with all eight patients demonstrating partial response to treatment and effects lasting >6 months. Notable adverse events seen in thyroid cancer patients included hypertension, fatigue, cytopenia, and pneumonitis (108). Finally, larotrectinib and entrectinib are approved for metastatic or unresectable thyroid cancers with NTRK gene fusions and no alternative treatments (109, 110).

 

While not without side effects, these targeted kinase and RET inhibitors demonstrated efficacy in prolonging disease free survival in patients with metastatic, RAI-refractory DTC and should be considered in the symptomatic elderly patient with sufficient performance status and potential benefit. For differentiated thyroid cancer that progresses despite these therapies, additional treatment with external beam radiation, off label use of BRAF inhibitors, and clinical trials of immune checkpoint inhibitor therapies are sometimes utilized. These modalities are discussed below in the context of anaplastic thyroid cancer.

 

REDIFFERENTIATION THERAPY

 

Another treatment approach that has been explored in advanced, RAI-resistant follicular cell-derived thyroid cancers is the use of MEK or BRAF inhibitors for redifferentiation and restoration of RAI sensitivity. Several trials have been pursued based upon promising preclinical evidence showing increased sodium-iodine symporter expression and radioiodine uptake reinduction by modulation of the MAPK signaling pathway (111). An early phase study by Ho et al. (112) showed that in 20 patients with RAI-refractory advanced DTC, treatment with MEK inhibitor selumetinib for 4 weeks increased sensitivity to RAI uptake in 12 (60%) subjects (including 4/9 with BRAF and 5/5 with NRASmutations). Eight of 12 patients reached the pre-defined dosimetry threshold for repeat RAI therapy, of which five had an objective response and three had stable disease (112).

 

The subsequent phase III ASTRA study (113) was done to evaluate whether selumetinib given with initial RAI therapy in DTC patients with a high risk of primary treatment failure (i.e. ATA high risk of recurrence) would improve complete remission at 18 months and decrease the need for additional therapy. The addition of selumetinib to radioiodine did not improve the complete remission rate (40% vs. 38.5% in the placebo group). Another multi-center phase II prospective trial evaluating selumetinib in RAI-refractory DTC patients is currently underway (SEL-I-METRY, trial ISRCTN17468602) (114).

 

Several small studies have examined other BRAF (e.g. drabafenib) and MEK inhibitors (e.g. trametinib), alone or in combination, as reviewed recently by Buffet et al. (114). For example, Rothenberg et al. (115) showed resensitization in six of 10 BRAFV600E+ RAI-resistant thyroid cancer patients following six weeks of drabafenib therapy. In addition, following RAI therapy with 150mCi, two of the six patients showed a partial response and the remaining four had stable disease at three months. Another group, Dunn et al. (116) also evaluated vemurafenib in 10 patients with a BRAF-mutated-PTC or poorly differentiated thyroid cancer. After 4 weeks of vemurafenib, RAI uptake increased in 6/10 patients, and of four patients retreated with RAI therapy, two showed partial response and two had stable disease at six months. While a potentially promising adjuvant strategy for these challenging tumors, additional prospective evaluation is needed before this strategy can be considered within the standard of care.

 

ANAPLASTIC THYROID CANCER

 

Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma (ATC) is a rare and aggressive subtype of thyroid cancer that accounts for <1% of all thyroid cancers (27, 31). It more commonly affects the elderly, with a mean age at diagnosis of 65 years and more than 90% patients with ATC are over age 50 (31). Despite recent advances, the median overall survival remains poor, around 3–5 months, with a 1-year survival of approximately 20% (117). Aldinger et al. reported a five-year survival rate of only 7.1% with a mean survival period of 6.2 months from the time of tissue diagnosis and 11.8 months from the time of onset of symptoms (118).

 

The most frequent presenting complaint in patients with ATC is a rapidly growing mass with tightness in the neck (118). Patients may also complain of dysphagia, hoarseness, dyspnea, neck pain, sore throat, and cough. Examination of the neck usually reveals a fixed, large, firm mass, which may impair the ability to detect lymphadenopathy on clinical examination. Hemorrhage and necrosis within the tumor may result in soft, fluctuant masses. Rarely, patients with massive tumor extension into the mediastinum or lungs may present with superior vena cava syndrome or dyspnea.

 

Unfortunately, most patients with ATC present with advanced stage disease. In a retrospective study of thyroid cancers in 204 elderly (age >60 years) patients by Lin et al. (47), 75% of patients diagnosed with ATC had distant metastases to the lung, bone, mediastinum, and peritoneum at presentation. Similarly, in the cohort reported by Aldinger et al., 78 of 84 (93%) patients with ATC presented with advanced stage III and stage IV disease (118). Additional patient factors associated with worse prognosis in ATC include advanced age (>60–70 years), male gender, presence of leukocytosis (>10,000), and symptoms related to tumor mass effect, such as neck pain, dysphagia, rapidly growing neck mass. Regarding older age as a poor prognostic factor, in a cohort of 516 patients with ATC, Kebebew et al. reported a 28% greater mortality in patients over 60 years of age compared to those less than 60 years determined by multivariate analysis (117).

 

ATC often, but not always, arises from pre-existing differentiated thyroid cancer, with 20% of patients with antecedent DTC and another 20-30% with concurrent DTC (co-existent on histopathology). There is also a higher incidence of ATC in patients with endemic goiter. These associations are relevant for the treatment of ATC because driver mutations such as BRAF and RAS may be retained in the anaplastic tumor cells and can be targeted with therapy (31, 118).

 

Treatment of Anaplastic Thyroid Cancer

 

While the prognosis of ATC remains poor, treatment options to slow the progression of disease, palliate symptoms, and, in rare cases, attempt cure, are available as approved therapies and in clinical trials.

 

EXTERNAL RADIATION  

 

External radiation to the neck region is appropriate for patients with aggressive cancers that cannot be completely resected surgically (12). Schwartz et al. reported limited success in the treatment of RAI-refractory patients with extrathyroidal spread, positive surgical margins, or gross residual disease with a mean of 60 Gy (38-72 Gy); survival was less in patients with high-risk pathology, metastases, and gross residual disease (119). In the context of ATC, disease is often assumed to be radioiodine refractory, and external beam radiation may be used for preservation of vital neck structures.

 

TARGETED SYSTEMIC THERAPY AND IMMUNOTHERAPY

 

Most patients with ATC have rapidly progressive disease and should be evaluated for clinical trials when feasible as new treatments continue to be developed. Targeted therapy with inhibitors to specific gene mutations and fusions has shown some success and is the focus of numerous ongoing clinical trials. Therapies include inhibitors of BRAF, MEK, NTRK, RET, and ALK. Combination treatment with BRAF inhibitor dabrafenib and MEK inhibitor trametinib was recently approved for the treatment of BRAFV600E mutated, unresectable/locally advanced ATC, following a 69% overall response rate in a phase II open label trial of 16 patients with ATC (120).

 

Immunotherapy reagents target the impaired immune responses and immune suppression that arise in cancer allowing malignant cells to grow and spread. Immune checkpoint inhibitors are a kind of immunotherapy that block immune regulatory pathways with the goal of increasing anti-tumor immune responses and producing tumor killing by host leukocytes. Two primary classes of immunotherapy being evaluated for advanced thyroid cancer are inhibitors of cytotoxic T lymphocyte A (CTLA)-4 (such as ipilimumab) and inhibitors of programmed cell death (PD) receptor/ligand interactions (nivolumab, pembrolizumab, atezolizumab). Currently, immune checkpoint inhibitors are being evaluated alone and in combination with targeted therapies for ATC (120).

 

MEDULLARY THYROID CANCER

 

Medullary thyroid cancer (MTC) constitutes approximately 2-5% of all thyroid malignancies, but it is responsible for up to 13.4% of all deaths from thyroid cancer (30, 121). It is a well-differentiated type of tumor that arises from the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland, and therefore it is categorized as a neuroendocrine tumor. In 80% of patients, medullary thyroid cancer occurs sporadically, but in about 20% of patients there is a family history of medullary carcinoma. Familial MTC is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with nearly complete penetrance. A germline mutation in the RET proto-oncogene, which encodes a transmembrane tyrosine kinase receptor, predisposes individuals to develop hereditary MTC. In the sporadic form, the tumor occurs as a result of a mutation involving only the somatic cells. Sporadic forms of MTC are more common in older patients (mean age at presentation 47 years), while the hereditary forms of MTC are more common in younger patients (121). The prevalence of MTC is nearly equal in males and females.

 

Parafollicular cells secrete calcitonin, and in MTC this protein is greatly elevated and serum level correlates directly with the burden of disease (122). Other neuroendocrine cell products, including histamine, serotonin, prolactin, vasoactive intestinal polypeptide, and prostaglandin, can be elevated in patients with MTC and lead to systemic symptoms such as diarrhea or flushing (122). In some cases, Cushing’s syndrome may develop as a result of ectopic adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) secretion from the tumor. The typical presentation of MTC is a palpable nodule in the upper part of the thyroid lobe, and the presence of systemic symptoms is almost universally associated with distant metastases (37). In the retrospective report of 104 patients with MTC by Kebebew et al., 74% of the patients in the sporadic group presented with a thyroid mass, 16% had local symptoms (dysphagia, dyspnea, or hoarseness), and 10% had systemic symptoms (bone pain, flushing, and/or diarrhea) attributable to the cancer (121).

 

Within MTC, older age at diagnosis has been associated with a worse prognosis. Kebebew et al. followed patients with MTC for a mean time of 8.6 years and found that advanced age and stage at diagnosis were independent predictors of worse survival (121). The 5-year survival rates by stage were 100% (stage I), 90% (stage II), 86% (stage III), and 55% (stage IV). The highest survival was seen in female patients under age 45 with MTC confined to the thyroid (121). Saad et al. similarly reported that patients younger than 40 years old at diagnosis had a significantly better survival rate in MTC (122). Scopsi et al. reported a worse prognosis in patients with sporadic MTC who had extrathyroidal tumor invasion, distant metastases, or age greater than 60 years at the time of diagnosis (123). Interestingly, a more recent study that adjusted for baseline age-related mortality in the general population found no significant association with age and prognosis in MTC (124). This raises similar questions to those posed recently for differentiated thyroid cancer as to whether age truly has an independent role in prognosis for these thyroid cancers apart from the general increase in morbidity and mortality with aging.

 

Treatment of Medullary Thyroid Cancer

 

The standard treatment for MTC is surgical resection (total thyroidectomy) with regional lymph node dissection, with routine bilateral central neck dissection and consideration of lateral neck dissection in patients with large primary tumors (>1 cm) or pre-operative imaging with involved nodes. Successful complete surgical resection is associated with improved prognosis. In patients with disease restricted to the thyroid gland and without nodal involvement, the risk of recurrence and mortality is very low, compared to those with nodal disease at presentation (125).

 

Serum calcitonin and CEA levels are trended post-operatively to monitor for residual or recurrent disease, beginning around 2-3 months after surgery. A rise in either tumor marker should prompt imaging to look for recurrent disease. Radioactive iodine is not indicated in the treatment of MTC as parafollicular cells do not express NIS or concentrate iodine. Additionally, thyroid hormone replacement is required following thyroidectomy, with TSH targeted to the normal range rather than suppression (126). TSH does not stimulate the growth of parafollicular cells.

 

In patients with progressive or metastatic disease not amenable to surgery, tyrosine kinase inhibitors vandetanib and cabozantinib may be used. Vandetanib is an oral inhibitor that targets VEGFR, RET, and epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR). In the international, randomized controlled phase III ZETA trial of vandetanib 300 mg per day that included over 300 patients with unresectable, locally advanced or metastatic sporadic or hereditary MTC, progression-free survival was significantly greater for patients treated with vandetanib (hazard ratio 0.46, 95% CI 0.31-0.69 versus placebo) (127). Adverse events occurred more commonly with vandetanib compared to placebo, including diarrhea, nausea, palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia, hypertension, and headache.

 

Cabozantinib (128) is another oral tyrosine kinase inhibitor targeting MET, VEGFR2, and RET signaling pathways. The phase III international, randomized controlled EXAM trial evaluated cabozantinib versus placebo in the treatment of 330 patients with progressive, metastatic MTC, with a primary outcome of progression free survival (PFS). Median PFS was 11.2 months for cabozantinib versus 4.0 months for placebo (hazard ratio, 0.28; 95% CI, 0.19 to 0.40; P <0.001), with benefit seen across all subgroups including age, prior TKI treatment, and RET mutation status (hereditary or sporadic). Response rate was 28% for cabozantinib and 0% for placebo. Common cabozantinib-associated adverse events noted in the trial included diarrhea, palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia, decreased weight, nausea, and fatigue.

 

As discussed above, two targeted RET-fusion inhibitors have recently been approved for use in MTC: selpercatinib (106) and pralsetinib (108). Selpercatinib showed a 69% (95% CI 55-81) overall response rate and 82% (95% CI 69-90) one year progression free survival in 55 patients with RET-mutated MTC patients who previously had failed treatment with vandetanib, cabozantinib, or both (106). In addition, in 88 patients RET-mutated MTC but without prior systemic therapy, the study found a 73% (95% CI 62-82) overall response and 92% (95% CI 82-97) one year progression free survival (106). Similarly, in the phase I/II study of pralsetinib, the overall response rates were 60% (95% CI 47-63) for patients with RET-mutated MTC patients who had previously received cabozantinib or vandetanib, or both, and 71% (95% CI 48–89) in patients with treatment-naive RET-mutated MTC (108). Side effects for both RET inhibitors were similar to those seen in follicular cell-derived thyroid cancer patients discussed above.

 

Given the poor prognosis of MTC, continued development of new treatment strategies is needed and management at a center experienced with this type of cancer is recommended.

 

CONCLUSION

 

In summary, thyroid nodules and cancer are common in elderly patients and demonstrate age-specific prevalence, malignancy risk, and clinical behavior. Co-morbid conditions and patient preference should inform management of these entities in the elderly, with particular attention to the risks of surgery and medication adverse effects. More research is needed to understand the mechanisms underlying the distinct clinical behavior of thyroid cancer found in older patients, including the drivers of more advanced stage at presentation, higher recurrence risk, and greater mortality.

 

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Changing the Course of Disease in Type 1 Diabetes

ABSTRACT

 

In the U.S. alone, more than one million people are living with type 1 diabetes (TID) and approximately 80 people per day, or 30,000 individuals per year, are newly diagnosed (1, 2). Recent epidemiological studies demonstrate that the global T1D incidence is increasing at a rate of approximately 3-4% per year, notably among younger children (3, 4). Despite improvements in insulins, insulin delivery methods, and home glucose monitoring, the vast majority of those with T1D do not achieve recommended levels of glycemic control.  This is particularly true in childhood and adolescence, where a recent U.S. study reported mean HbA1c values exceeding 9.5%, and a high frequency of both DKA and severe hypoglycemia (5). In addition to the increased risk of morbidity and mortality, TID places significant emotional and financial burdens on individuals, families, and society. These realities highlight the need for both better TID therapies and the continued push towards the prevention of TID. In recent decades, research efforts have described the natural history of type 1 diabetes and expanded the ability to identify individuals at risk for the disease even before clinical onset, via the recognition of genetic markers or TID-specific autoantibodies. The increasing ability to identify the at-risk population affords researchers the opportunity to intervene at progressively earlier stages in the disease.  With the understanding that established islet autoimmunity, confirmed by the presence of multiple T1D autoantibodies, inevitably leads to clinical TID, investigative efforts are shifting towards the prevention or modification of autoimmunity.  Furthermore, with the mounting evidence that any amount of residual C-peptide improves long term clinical outcomes in TID, some therapies aim to preserve remaining beta cell function in those with clinical disease. In this chapter, we review the epidemiology of TID, genetic and environmental risk factors, the scientific underpinnings of previous and current approaches towards disease-modifying therapy, and future directions of clinical trials. 

 

EPIDEMIOLOGY OF DIABETES

 

T1D, or autoimmune diabetes, represents 5-10% of diabetes, and like autoimmunity in general, TID is increasing worldwide. The increase likely is attributable to environmental factors or epigenetic changes, as genetic changes don’t occur rapidly enough to explain such a dramatic increase. The SEARCH for Diabetes in Youth Study is a multicenter observational study investigating trends in incidence and prevalence of diabetes in American youth < age 20.  SEARCH data suggests that the prevalence of TID among non-Hispanic white youth is ~1/300 in the US by age 20 years (6). Between 2002 and 2009, the incidence of TID among non-Hispanic white youth < age 20 years increased by an average of 2.7% per year (7). Similarly, the EURODIAB study evaluated TID incidence trends in 17 European countries from 1989-2003 in youth < age 15 years, and found an average annual incidence increase of 3.9%. This trend predicts a 70% increase in TID prevalence between 2005-2020 among European youth < 15 years old (8) with the peak of diagnosis between ages 10-14 (9). While incidence and prevalence are well documented in children, TID occurs in adults as well, at a frequency that is less certain; estimates are that 25-50% of all TID cases are diagnosed in adulthood. The uncertainty likely is due to a less dramatic clinical presentation than is typically seen in children who present with TID. The incidence of TID varies tremendously by geographic location, with higher rates generally seen in countries located farther from the equator. Worldwide incidence data was reported in 2000 by the DIAMOND project (10), a WHO-sponsored effort to address the public health implications of TID. The incidence of TID between 1990 and 1994 in 50 countries is shown in Figure 1. Between 1990 and 1994, the incidence of TID in individuals aged 0-14 years in both Finland and Sardinia was 37/100,000 individuals, whereas the incidence in both China and Venezuela was 0.1/100,000 individuals, a 350-fold difference. The increased incidence coupled with reduced early mortality has contributed to the increasing prevalence of disease. 

 

Figure 1. Worldwide incidence of TID 1990-1994, used with permission from International Diabetes Federation.

 

 

WHAT IS THE RISK OF TYPE 1 DIABETES?

 

As is true for Cindy, 85% of individuals who develop TID have no family history of TID; nonetheless, a family history of the disease does increase an individual’s relative risk.  The prevalence of TID in the US non-Hispanic white population by age 20 is ~0.3%, as compared with ~5% of those with a relative with TID, a 15-fold increase in relative risk.   This relative risk is depicted in Figure 2.

 

Figure 2. Among 300 people without a family member with diabetes, 1 will have TID. Among 300 people with a family member with diabetes, 15 will have TID

 

The risk of TID among family members varies depending on who the affected family member is, as shown in Table 1.  

 

Table 1. Prevalence of TID in Individuals with a Family History of TID.

Relative with TID

Prevalence at age 20

Reference

Mother

2%

(11, 12)

Father

6%

(11, 12)

Non-twin sibling

6%

(13)

Dizygotic (fraternal) twin

10%

(13, 14)

Monozygotic (identical) twin

>50%

(15)

 

The heritability pattern suggests that both genes and environment contribute to risk.  Curiously, the risk of TID in offspring is higher if the father has TID (~6%) as compared to if the mother has TID (~2%) (11, 12). Moreover, the risk to a dizygotic twin is slightly higher (~10%) than is the risk to a non-twin sibling with similar HLA risk genes (~6%) (13, 14)  suggesting that the intrauterine environment and/or similar early life exposures may be important. Lastly, the risk to a monozygotic twin is upwards of ~50%; surprisingly the second twin’s diagnosis may occur many decades after the index twin, highlighting the complexities of gene and environmental interactions that underlie the disease (15).

 

 

 

THE NATURAL HISTORY TYPE 1 DIABETES

 

It is now understood that TID is an immune-mediated disease that begins in the setting of genetic predisposition and then progresses along a predictable path: early islet autoimmunity (one autoantibody), established islet autoimmunity (two or more autoantibodies), abnormal glucose tolerance, clinical TID with some remaining beta cell function, and finally, little or no remaining beta cell function. This understanding comes from decades of effort by multiple investigators and from participation by thousands of patients with TID and their family members.  George Eisenbarth’s description of TID as a chronic autoimmune disease, manifested by autoimmunity and a gradual linear fall in beta cell function until there is insufficient beta cell mass to suppress symptomatic hyperglycemia, has served for decades as the TID natural history paradigm (16). The “Eisenbarth” model has undergone refinements in recent years; namely, although autoimmunity and beta cell dysfunction do appear prior to diagnosis, these changes are often step-wise and non-linear.  Furthermore, beta cell destruction may not be absolute.  Nonetheless, the paradigm is largely correct and serves as the underlying rationale for TID trials. 

 

The long pre-symptomatic natural history of TID presents an opportunity to intervene earlier than is done currently.   Diabetes-specific autoantibodies can appear many years before clinical diagnosis and may reliably be used to predict disease progression.  In 2015, JDRF, the Endocrine Society, and the American Diabetes Association proposed a new TID staging system which underscores that TID begins with islet autoimmunity rather than with symptomatic hyperglycemia (17). Stage 1 TID is defined as the presence of 2 or more autoantibodies with normoglycemia; stage 2 TID is 2 or more autoantibodies, impaired glucose tolerance and no symptoms; stage 3 TID is clinical disease. The staging system is depicted in figure 3.  

Figure 3. New staging classification of Type 1 diabetes. Stages of Type 1 Diabetes. Adapted from internet image. https://beyondtype1.org/clinical-trials-and-the-type-1-diabetes-cure/final-trialnet-stages-of-diabetes-graph-2/ Used with permission.

 

HOW TO DETERMINE RISK OF TID

 

Risk of TID may be determined by the identification of autoantibodies, usually in those identified as having genetic risk through HLA testing or by family history. Autoantibodies are detectable years before the onset of clinical TID. 

 

Determining Risk: Genes

 

With the knowledge that TID runs in families and with advances in technology, investigators have described the genetic risk of TID.  TID risk is strongly linked to HLA class II DR3 and DR4 haplotypes, with the highest risk in those with the DR3/DR4 genotype.  The importance of HLA genes to TID risk highlights the role of the adaptive immune system in the development of autoimmunity.  Newer studies have discovered multiple other genes that also contribute to TID risk (18). They are largely genes known also to impact immune function; however, their contribution is dwarfed by the impact of HLA genes.  Interestingly, recent work suggests that HLA genes primarily contribute to development of autoantibodies, while non-HLA genes and environmental factors may be more important in the progression from autoantibodies to clinically overt disease (19, 20). The description of non-HLA risk genes (such as the genes for insulin, a major TID autoantigen) highlights other potential pathways to disease and potential therapies. 

Although the contribution of HLA class II risk genes overwhelms the contribution of non-HLA risk genes, the HLA contribution may be decreasing as the overall incidence of TID increases.  This suggests that in a population with non-HLA genetic susceptibility, the environment may have become more conducive to the development of TID. This was reported in a 2004 Lancet article by Gillespie, et al., in which the investigators compared the frequency of HLA class II haplotypes in a UK cohort of 194 individuals diagnosed with TID between 1922-1946 (the Golden Years cohort) to a cohort of 582 individuals diagnosed between 1985-2002 (the BOX cohort) (21). In this comparison, shown in Figure 4, 47% of individuals in the Golden Years cohort were positive for the highest risk genotype DR3-DQ2/DR4-DQ8, compared to 35% of individuals in the BOX cohort.

 

Figure 4. Decreased contribution of high-risk HLA haplotypes over time. HLA class II haplotypes in Golden Years and BOX cohorts, adapted from Gillespie et.al Lancet 2004 (21).

 

Determining Risk: Family History and Islet Cell Autoantibodies

 

Natural history studies of relatives such as Diabetes Prevention Trial (DPT-1) and Diabetes TrialNet Pathway to Prevention have helped define the risk of TID in those with a family history of TID.  Since 2000, Diabetes TrialNet has screened over 200,000 relatives of people with TID, aiming to enroll at-risk individuals in prevention trials.  Among relatives of people with TID, ~5% will have at least one of five islet autoantibodies (22). TrialNet screens for islet cell antibodies (ICA), autoantibodies to insulin (IAA or mIAA), antibodies to a tyrosine phosphatase (IA-2; previously ICA512), antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD), and antibodies to a zinc transporter (ZnT8).  With each additional autoantibody, the risk of TID increases predictably. Unsurprisingly, those with islet autoimmunity and abnormal glucose tolerance are at an even further increased risk of symptomatic T1D. The TrialNet strategy to identify islet autoimmunity among relatives of individuals with TID is shown in Figure 5. There are many other screening efforts ongoing outside of TrialNet. (23-25)

 

Figure 5. Diabetes TrialNet process for identifying relatives with islet autoimmunity.

 

Natural history studies have shown not only that islet autoimmunity predicts TID risk, but also that islet autoantibodies usually appear early in life; 64% of babies destined to develop T1D before puberty will have antibodies by age 2 and 95% by age 5 (26). Furthermore, the data from both prospective birth cohort studies (27) and cross-sectional studies(28) (29) (30, 31) is remarkably consistent and suggests that the risk of progression from established autoimmunity to clinical TID is in the range of 40% after 5 years, 70% after 10 years, and 85% after 15 years. This risk over time is depicted in Figure 6. The key understanding from natural history studies is that essentially all individuals with confirmed islet autoimmunity will eventually develop clinical T1D at a rate of 11% per year.

 

 

Figure 6. Established islet autoimmunity inevitably progresses to clinical T1D. Extrapolated data from multiple studies in genetically at-risk individuals; Ziegler et al. JAMA 2013; DPT-1 Study Group Diabetes 1997; Sosenko et al. Diabetes Care 2014; Mahon et al. Pediatric Diabetes 2009

 

Identifying individuals with islet autoimmunity has two potential benefits; namely, the opportunity to monitor closely for disease progression, conferring a reduced risk of morbidity and mortality at the time of TID diagnosis, and the identification of individuals who are eligible for prevention trials.  It is perhaps underappreciated that there is potentially a direct clinical benefit to identifying those with islet autoimmunity.  Individuals with islet autoimmunity followed regularly until clinical diagnosis present with lower HbA1c and experience less DKA than those diagnosed in the community (Table 2) (32-36). For this reason, since 2009, the ADA has recommended that all individuals with a relative with T1D be counseled about the opportunity to be screened for diabetes autoantibodies in the context of a clinical research trial (37).

 

Table 2.  Individuals Diagnosed with T1D While Enrolled in a Clinical Trial have Less Morbidity at the Time of Diagnosis. (32-36)

 

STUDY

HbA1c at time of TID diagnosis

% with DKA at time of TID diagnosis

 

Enrolled in study

Usual care

Enrolled in study

Usual care

SEARCH

 

 

 

25.5%

BABYDIAB

8.6%

11.0%

3.3%

29.1%

DPT-1

6.4%

 

3.7%

 

DAISY

7.2%

10.9%

< 4%

 

TEDDY < age 5

 

 

13.1%

 

SEARCH < age 5

 

 

 

36.4%

BABYDIAB < age 5

 

 

 

32.3%

 

STRATEGIES TO BRING SCREENING FOR RISK TO CLINICAL PRACTICE

 

Screening relatives does identify a population of those at risk for clinical T1D; however, at least 85% who get T1D have no relatives with disease.  Thus, to truly prevent all T1D, testing of the general population would have to occur.  This could be done with current technology by testing all babies for genetic (HLA) risk at birth and then following with antibody testing.  The Population Level Estimate of type 1 Diabetes risk Genes in children (PLEDGE) study enrolls newborns from the general population and offers one-time genetic testing and follow-up autoantibody testing at 2 and 4 years of age (38). The study aims to demonstrate feasibility and to develop evidence to support eventual inclusion of a T1D screening program in standard primary care.

 

Other studies, such as The Environmental Determinants of Diabetes in the Young (TEDDY) study, the Diabetes Autoimmunity Study in the Young (DAISY), and the Global Platform for the Prevention of Autoimmune Diabetes (GPPAD) are exploring similar methodologies to screen and monitor for risk (24, 39, 40).  However, with an increasing number of individuals developing T1D even without the high-risk HLA types, such approaches may still miss some destined to develop disease. 

 

An alternative risk detection strategy for those without a family history may be to perform point-of-care antibody testing in a routine pediatric visit.  Since almost all who will develop diabetes before puberty will have antibodies by age 5; such testing could be done at age 4-5 and perhaps once again in the teenage years.  This method will still miss those who develop T1D before this age, but would likely be a cost-effective approach to finding those at risk.  If these at-risk subjects are monitored regularly until development of clinical disease they would benefit from reduced morbidity at time of diagnosis even if a prevention therapy were not yet available.

 

There are many ongoing projects aimed at screening members of the general population for diabetes autoantibodies even without prior HLA testing (23, 25, 41, 42).

 

As risk-screening programs employ varying assays and recruit from different populations, interpretation and translation of results is unclear. It is not yet known whether those found to be autoantibody positive through one program will experience the same rates of T1D progression and/or benefit from the same therapies as individuals who have participated in other screening and intervention efforts.

Source: (37)
 
 

PRENATAL INFLUENCES  

 

The prenatal environment can have profound effects on the developing fetus. With the recognition that antibodies often develop early in life and that essentially all those with established islet autoimmunity (two or more autoantibodies) will eventually develop TID, investigators have looked to the prenatal period to search for factors that could contribute to disease development in utero.  As shown in Table 3, decades of observational studies have yielded inconsistent results.  Yet this remains an important area of investigation and one that may lead to primary prevention strategies for T1D. The Environmental Determinants of Islet Autoimmunity (ENDIA) study is an ongoing prospective birth cohort study in Australia that enrolled infants and unborn infants of first degree relatives with T1D. Biologic samples including blood, stool, and saliva will be collected longitudinally for investigation of factors including viral exposures during pregnancy and early childhood, maternal and fetal microbiome, delivery method, maternal and early infant nutrition, pregnancy and early childhood body weight, and both innate and adaptive immune function. In 2018, the ENDIA study completed target enrollment of ~1500 subjects, who will be followed regularly until the development of islet autoimmunity (43).

 

Table 3.  Potential Prenatal Influences on TID Risk

Pre-natal or intrauterine exposure

Relative risk to offspring

Reference

Maternal age

Inconsistent data

(44-46)

Birth weight > 2 SD above norm (~4000g)

Inconsistent data

(47-51)

Birth weight < 2 SD below norm (~2500g)

Inconsistent data

(49-51)

Birth order: second and later borns

Inconsistent data

(46, 52, 53)

Birth interval < 3 years

Inconsistent data

(46, 54)

Caesarean delivery

Inconsistent data

(51, 55, 56)

Pre-eclampsia

Inconsistent data

(51, 57)

Pre-term delivery (<37 weeks gestation)

Inconsistent data

(51, 58)

Maternal vitamin D supplementation

Inconsistent data

(59-62)

Maternal antibiotic use

No association

(53, 63)

maternal BMI/pregnancy weight gain

No association

(51, 64)

Maternal omega 3 fatty acid supplementation

No association

(60, 65, 66)

 

Source: (67)

Investigators also have studied the early childhood period for clues to the causes of islet autoimmunity and TID; these have included both observational studies and randomized clinical trials. Such influences might be divided into early nutritional exposures and early microbial/infectious exposures, both of which can affect development of the normal immune system.

 

The inconsistent findings relating to environmental factors reported from observational studies and clinical trials led to the design and implementation of a large international comprehensive evaluation of genetically at-risk babies using cutting edge technologies to study genetics, genomics (gene function), metabolomics, and the microbiome. The Environmental Determinants of Diabetes in the Young (TEDDY) is an international prospective birth cohort study that recruited almost 8,000 babies at increased risk for TID (based on HLA and family history) from Finland, Germany, Sweden, and the US from 2004-2010.  Information on environmental exposures such as diet (including breastfeeding history), infections, vaccinations, and psychosocial stressors will be collected. Participants will be followed until the age of 15 for the development of islet autoimmunity or TID. The wealth of data from this study will provide a foundation for future randomized clinical trials (24). One interesting finding reported in December 2019 is that there are subtle differences in the gut microbiome—such as, persistent stool enterovirus B species--in children who develop islet autoimmunity compared to children who do not develop autoimmunity (68).

 

EARLY NUTRITIONAL EXPOSURES

 

Breastfeeding

 

The hypothesis that human breastmilk may protect against future TID development was presented as early as 1984 (69). Since then, there have been several prospective cohort studies to suggest that breastmilk lowers the risk of islet autoimmunity and TID, including the German BABYDIAB/BABYDIET study (70), the Colorado-based DAISY study (71), and the Norwegian MIDIA study (72), but others show no effect (73).  Although the data on whether breastmilk is protective against TID isn’t clear, it certainly isn’t harmful.  Given the well-established general benefits of breastfeeding, patients may safely be advised to follow the American Academy of Pediatrics’ guidelines related to infant feeding. The mechanism by which breastmilk may lower the risk of TID is uncertain, but one theory suggests that breastmilk has positive effects on the infant microbiome. The microbiome is discussed in greater detail below.  

 

Cow’s Milk and Bovine Insulin Exposure

 

In contrast to considering breastfeeding as potentially beneficial in protecting against autoimmunity, it was hypothesized that early introduction of cow’s milk or cow protein might accelerate disease.  This concept was tested in the Trial to Reduce IDDM in the Genetically at Risk (TRIGR) which asked whether weaning to hydrolyzed casein (which is free of bovine proteins including insulin) formula (n=1081) instead of regular cow’s milk formula (n=1078) in genetically at-risk infants could prevent or delay TID.  Though the TRIGR pilot study was suggestive of benefit, no benefit was seen in the fully powered study (74) (75). Similarly, The Finnish Dietary Intervention Trial for the Prevention of Type 1 Diabetes of (FINDIA) suggested that weaning to hydrolyzed cow’s milk formula was not effective in reducing the appearance of autoantibodies, though they did report that a patented cow’s milk formula specifically removing bovine insulin appeared to be beneficial in this pilot study (76).  While additional studies may be informative, current data does not support that weaning to hydrolyzed cow’s milk formula is protective against islet autoimmunity. 

 

Gluten Exposure

 

Both BABYDIAB (77) and DAISY (78) were observational studies that suggested an association between introduction of gluten and islet autoimmunity.  However, these studies had different results as to the timing of gluten introduction. Similarly, no effect was found in the BABYDIET study; a randomized controlled trial that asked whether delayed introduction of gluten to 6 vs 12 months would affect the risk of diabetes autoimmunity (79, 80).

 

Vitamin D and/or Omega 3 Fatty Acids

 

Vitamin D is an important component of a normal immune response; moreover, the higher incidence of TID in northern climates suggests that vitamin D deficiency could contribute to autoimmunity and TID.  However, data from observational studies is mixed on whether vitamin D and/or omega 3 supplementation is beneficial or not (60, 81-86). A pilot randomized trial of omega 3 supplementation to pregnant mothers and infants failed to demonstrate a profound immunologic effect of treatment (87). With routine vitamin D supplementation recommended for infants (88), it is unlikely that a fully powered randomized trial would be feasible to assess the impact on autoimmunity. 

 

MICROBIAL EXPOSURES

 

The Hygiene Hypothesis

 

Parallel to the rising incidence of TID and other autoimmune diseases, there has been a worldwide trend towards urbanization, increased standard of living, smaller family sizes, less crowded living conditions, safer water and food supplies, less cohabitation with animals, wide use of antibiotics, childhood vaccination, etc.  While these trends are generally considered improvements in human existence, the so-called “hygiene hypothesis,” proposed by Strachan in 1989 (89) suggests a possible downside; that is, that early microbial exposures might have a protective effect via the early education of the immune system and the development of normal tolerance to self-antigens.   Data cited in support of the hygiene hypothesis comes from comparisons between eastern Finland and Russian Karelia (Figure 7) (90-92).

 

Figure 7. Border between Finland and Russian Karelia, with a 6-fold difference in the incidence of TID, from "Karelia today”. The countries share a common border and ancestry and thus have similar geography, climate, vitamin D levels, and prevalence of HLA risk haplotypes. However, Finland has 6-fold higher incidence of TID. This markedly higher rate of TID is accompanied by a much lesser rate of infectious disease. In Finland as compared to Karelia 2% vs 24% had hepatitis A; 5% vs 24% had toxoplasma gondii; and 5% vs. 73% for helicobacter pylori. There is an ongoing study aiming to better understand the mechanisms that may underlie these differences.

 

The Microbiome

 

Another possible interface between microbial exposure and human disease is through the microbiome; that is the gut flora established within the first 3 years of life (93).  It has been hypothesized that perturbations in normal early microbiome development might pre-dispose to disease whether through direct modulation of innate immunity or via alteration of intestinal permeability and the downstream effects on adaptive immunity.   Interestingly, it appears that the gut microbiome is less diverse and less “protective” in individuals with islet autoimmunity or recent onset TID (94-96).  Whether this difference is cause, effect, or correlation isn’t known.   Nonetheless, multiple factors might affect the early intestinal microbiome, some of which also have been shown to correlate with risk of islet autoimmunity and TID.  For example, breastfeeding can alter the intestinal microbiome of the infant by increasing the number and diversity of beneficial microbiota (97, 98). As previously discussed, multiple prospective observational studies suggest that breastfeeding protects against future development of islet autoimmunity and TID, but there’s no evidence to connect this directly to the infant microbiome.  

 

Viral Infections

 

A viral etiology for initiation of autoimmunity is an attractive idea; a beta cell trophic virus could contribute to disease by directly killing beta cells, by leading to a chronic infection which triggers an immune response, or by molecular mimicry in which self-antigens are erroneously recognized as viral epitopes targeted for destruction.  Notably, these possible mechanisms would not necessarily point to a particular virus; any virus widespread in a population could theoretically lead to autoimmunity in genetically susceptible individuals if encountered at a vulnerable time in immune system or beta cell development.  With the notable exception of congenital rubella which is associated with type 1 diabetes (99), other data relating viruses to initiation of autoimmunity is less conclusive.  While some studies have reported viral “footprints” in islets from individuals who have died from TID, these have not been consistently confirmed.  Similarly, many studies have focused on enteroviruses, including coxsackie B, due to observations suggesting seasonal variation in antibody development that is reminiscent of the timing of such infections (100) (101), yet this remains controversial.  Aside from a viral role in the initiation of autoimmunity, others have proposed that acute viral infections may impact the transition from islet autoimmunity to clinical TID due to increased insulin demand during infections.  Patients commonly report an acute viral illness preceding the diagnosis of TID, and the clinical onset of TID more commonly presents in the fall and winter months in both the northern and southern hemispheres (102); but this does not imply a causal relationship.

 

Vaccinations

 

In recent decades, an increasing number of parents in Western countries have declined routine childhood vaccination of their children, which has created a situation with significant personal and public health consequences.  Multiple high-quality studies have thoroughly investigated vaccinations and TID, and none have found any association with islet autoimmunity or TID (103-107)

 

Sources: (88, 103-108)

DISEASE-MODIFYING THERAPY FOR PRECLINICAL TID

 

As previously discussed, the ability to recognize autoimmunity (via the detection of autoantibodies) in subjects even before the clinical onset of T1D affords the possibility of designing trials specifically for the high-risk population. One might consider established islet autoimmunity not only a marker of impending T1D, but a condition in its own right.  Just as hypertension warrants treatment to prevent stroke and myocardial infarction, in the future, TID may be treated in its earliest stages to prevent symptomatic hyperglycemia.  Some potential strategies are discussed in the following section. 

 

Many TID studies have tested antigen-based therapies.  With this type of therapy, the concept is that administration of a specific antigen could shift the immune response towards tolerance of the antigen.  For example, in allergy desensitization therapy, small amounts of antigen are repeatedly administered to ‘teach’ the immune system to be tolerant of the foreign protein so that the immune system no longer reacts.  In TID, the aim is to administer self-antigens in order to tolerize the immune system to beta-cell-derived proteins and downregulate the immune attack. Theoretically this can be done through oral, nasal, subcutaneous, or parenteral administration of antigen, with or without repeated dosing. Conceptually, antigen therapy should be more effective early in the disease process (i.e., to prevent progression from islet immunity to symptomatic disease rather than in those already clinically diagnosed) and thus most studies have targeted the at-risk population. 

 

Perhaps the most rigorously tested antigen therapy for pre-clinical T1D is insulin, as in the GGAP-03 POInt, DPT-1, TrialNet oral insulin, DIPP, and INIT II trials, described next. The JDRF-funded GGAP-03 POInT Trial, a primary intervention dose-finding study, is evaluating whether or not early exposure to oral insulin, even before those with high genetic risk develop autoantibodies, may confer greater benefit. Results are expected in early 2025. Preliminary results from the pre-POINT pilot trial suggest that higher doses of oral insulin may elicit greater immunologic response (109). In the Diabetes Prevention Trial (DPT-1), 372 family members of T1D probands who were positive for both ICA and mIAA were assigned to receive either daily oral insulin or placebo (110).  While this trial did not meet its primary endpoint, post-hoc analysis showed a delay in disease onset in participants with the highest levels of insulin autoantibodies. Specifically, those with a mIAA titer ≥80nU/ml showed a 4.5 year delay in disease onset and those with a mIAA titer ≥300nU/ml showed a 10 year delay in disease onset (111, 112). In response to these intriguing findings, Diabetes TrialNet launched a larger study to determine whether or not these results could be replicated  While the fully-powered TrialNet study showed no benefit to oral insulin in the primary cohort of more than 300 individuals, an independently-randomized cohort of 55 antibody positive individuals who had low first phase insulin response at baseline had a significant delay in disease progression in those treated with oral insulin (113). This intriguing finding raised the possibility that oral insulin may benefit those who are closer to clinical diagnosis; that is, those with more active disease.

 

In addition to studying oral insulin, the DPT-1 evaluated the effect of parenteral insulin on individuals who were considered to have the highest risk for T1D. These participants were ICA positive with abnormal beta-cell function (dysglycemia on an OGTT or low first phase insulin response on IVGTT). These 339 high risk participants were assigned to either close observation or low dose subcutaneous ultra-Lente insulin in addition to annual four-day continuous insulin infusions. While the therapy was found to be ineffective in preventing the progression to T1D, there was no excessive hypoglycemia, and a subset analysis found a temporary decrease in the immune response to beta cell proteins (114).

 

To date, trials with intranasal insulin have proven safe but ineffective in preserving insulin secretion. The Type 1 Diabetes Prediction and Prevention Study (DIPP), a randomized controlled trial evaluating the effects of intranasal insulin in children with high-risk genotypes and autoantibody positivity, was negative. When intranasal insulin was administered soon after the detection of autoantibodies, there was no delay in the progression to T1D (115). Similarly, the Intranasal Insulin Trial II (INIT II), which tested a different dose and dosing schedule of nasal insulin in a phase II prevention trial, showed that intranasal insulin was safe and induced an immune response, but this did not alter the progression to T1D. Participants were first-degree relatives of T1D probands with autoantibody positivity  (116, 117).

 

Another approach to antigen therapy is to use a plasmid to transfer DNA into cells, where it encodes for a given antigen, a technique that should decrease the anti-inflammatory response from intravenous, subcutaneous, oral, or nasal antigen delivery. This technique is being tested in the TrialNet TOPPLE T1D Study, a phase 1 trial launched in 2021 to evaluate the safety of a plasmid therapy called NNC0361-0041 in adults with recent-onset T1D. NNC0361-0041 encodes for four different human proteins: pre-proinsulin (PPI), transforming growth factor β1 (TGF-β1), interleukin-10 (IL-10), and interleukin-2 (IL-2) (118). In preclinical trials in NOD mice, the treatment was well-tolerated and led to beta cell preservation. If this phase 1 trial shows no safety concerns, then a larger study of the same treatment is planned to assess whether or not NNC0361-0041 can slow disease progression in the at-risk human population.

 

Antigen therapy may be more effective in both new-onset and at-risk populations when combined with other immune-modulating agents. Such combination trials are currently underway. In late 2020, enrollment was completed for a phase 1b/2a study assessing the safety and tolerability of different doses of an oral therapy called AG019 administered alone or in association with teplizumab infusions (see below) in individuals with recent-onset T1D. AG019 consists of live Lactococcus lactis bacteria, genetically modified to secrete human proinsulin and human interleukin 10. Results are pending (119).

 

While some trials have tested antigen-based therapies to treat islet immunity and prevent progression to clinical disease, others are building on successful studies of immunomodulating therapy in individuals with recently diagnosed TID. Examples include abatacept (Orencia; CTLA4 Ig) and teplizumab (Anti-CD3), both of which have been shown to slow loss of beta cell function post diagnosis. (See Recent Clinical Trials with Compelling Results and Figure 8). TrialNet recently completed enrollment of a placebo controlled trial testing abatacept in individuals with Stage 1 TID with results expected in late 2021 (120). In 2019, TrialNet published results of its placebo-controlled trial testing teplizumab in 76 individuals with Stage 2 TID. The trial demonstrated that a two-week course of teplizumab delayed the onset of clinical type 1 diabetes by two years and halved the rate of clinical diagnoses (121). This trial was highly significant in that it was the first ever to show that clinical type 1 diabetes can be delayed in children and adults at high risk. The latest findings from this trial, published in March of 2021, show ongoing delay of diabetes in the teplizumab treated group, with a median time to diagnosis of approximately 60 months (5 years) vs. approximately 27 months (2.3 years) in the placebo group (122).  Teplizumab has been granted Breakthrough Therapy Designation by the FDA, and the manufacturer of teplizumab is pursuing full FDA approval. 

 

Table 4. Clinical Preconceptions are Not Always Correct

AGE OF DIAGNOSIS: TID IS DIAGNOSED IN CHILDHOOD AND T2D IS DIAGNOSED IN ADULTHOOD.

At least 25% of people with TID are diagnosed as adults.  T1D is not “juvenile” diabetes.

WEIGHT: PEOPLE WITH TID ARE THIN, AND PEOPLE WITH T2D ARE OVERWEIGHT.

At least 50% of people living with TID in the US are overweight or obese, a statistic which mirrors the general US population.   Excess weight doesn’t prevent autoimmunity! 

CLINICAL PRESENTATION: THE ONSET OF TID IS DRAMATIC, AND INSULIN IS IMMEDIATELY REQUIRED FOR TREATMENT.

While this is generally true, the presentation of TID tends to be less abrupt in adults (in whom beta cell destruction is more gradual).  Moreover, insulin isn’t always required immediately, especially in adults or in overweight individuals, where treatments to improve insulin sensitivity such as weight loss and/or metformin, may be sufficient to control blood glucose for a limited period of time.

RESIDUAL INSULIN SECRETION: PEOPLE WITH TID HAVE AN ABSOLUTE INSULIN DEFICIENCY.

At the time of diagnosis, essentially all people with TID have clinically significant amounts of C-peptide.  Furthermore, among those with > 40 years of TID, 6-16% have a non-fasting C-peptide level ≥0.017 nmol/L.

AUTOIMMUNITY: IF YOU DON’T FIND ANTIBODIES, IT’S NOT TID.

There are five well-characterized antibodies associated with TID; most commercial laboratories don’t measure all five, so the results can be misleading.  In addition, up to 10% of those with newly-diagnosed TID may not have antibodies.  While these individuals may have a monogenic form of diabetes (http://monogenicdiabetes.uchicago.edu), it is also possible that they have autoimmunity not detectable with current antibody measurements.

Sources: (5, 123, 124)

 

IMPORTANCE OF BETA CELL PRESERVATION IN LIGHT OF RISKS OF THERAPY

 

The preservation of residual beta cell function, as measured by C-peptide, has repeatedly been demonstrated to be clinically important in those with T1D, warranting ongoing efforts to develop therapies to prevent beta cell destruction both in individuals with islet autoimmunity and in those with new-onset disease. In addition to its primary finding that intensive insulin therapy results in better outcomes (125, 126), the landmark Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) showed that among intensively treated subjects, those who had ≥ 0.20 nmol/l stimulated C-peptide initially or sustained over a year had fewer complications, including 79% risk reduction in progression of retinopathy (127, 128).  Importantly, these benefits were seen in the face of markedly less severe hypoglycemia. Subjects in the intensive insulin therapy group with ≥ 0.20 nmol/l C-peptide had about the same frequency of severe hypoglycemia as those in the standard care group; a 62% relative reduction as compared to those who received intensive therapy without this level of C-peptide. Subsequent analyses have demonstrated that even lower levels of preserved beta cell function in DCCT subjects were protective against complications (129).  Importantly, a beneficial effect of preserved insulin secretion was also recently reported in those with type 2 diabetes. Endogenous insulin deficiency was strongly associated with hypoglycemia and a limited ability to control HbA1c in Type 2 subjects in the ACCORD study (130). Together, these data strongly support the concept that preserved insulin secretion coupled with intensive insulin therapy can reduce diabetes complications while averting the severe hypoglycemia that has been a limiting factor in attaining glycemic control.              

Islet transplant studies confirm a positive association between C-peptide secretion and a lower risk of hypoglycemia.  Subjects eligible for islet transplantation are largely individuals suffering from severe hypoglycemic unawareness.  Vantyghem et al. showed that while significant beta cell function was required to improve mean glucose, lower glucose excursions, and result in insulin independence in transplant patients, only minimal beta cell function was needed to abrogate severe hypoglycemic events (131). 

 

Additionally, post islet-cell transplant patients with higher as compared to absent or minimal C-peptide levels are more likely to maintain fasting blood glucose values in the 60-140mg/dL (3.3 – 7.8 mmol/l) range, HbA1c values <6.5% (47.4 mmol/mol), and insulin independence after transplantation (132). The DCCT showed similar metabolic benefits in those with residual C-peptide. In this trial, patients with C-peptide ≥ 0.2nmol/l had lower fasting glucose and HbA1c values. A 9-year longitudinal analysis showed that for every 1 nmol/l increase in baseline stimulated C-peptide, there was an associated 1% reduction in HbA1c among intensively treated DCCT participants (133). Such positive clinical outcomes in those with preserved C-peptide reinforce the significance of efforts to protect beta cell function.

 

Of course, the benefits of beta cell preservation must be weighed against the intrinsic risks of therapies used to preserve C-peptide. Two therapies in particular highlight the challenges of balancing benefits with risk.  First, one of the initial immunomodulatory therapies used in T1D was cyclosporine, a general immunosuppressant. Treatment with cyclosporine induced remission from insulin dependence in children with recently diagnosed TID, with half of participants not requiring insulin after a full year of treatment (134). Unfortunately, the risks of using this drug were deemed to outweigh the benefits. Continuous effectiveness required continuous therapy, which induced nephrotoxicity (134).

 

More recently, studies with autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) in the new onset population have further highlighted the risks of more aggressive approaches to treatment.  Although the pooled data from HSCT trials suggests that this therapy imparts a high diabetes remission rate, the remission is not durable, and there are significant risks associated with the treatment, including neutropenic fever, serious infection, gonadal failure, and even death (135).

 

Importantly, there are dozens of immunotherapeutic agents or combinations of agents that are safely used in current clinical practice in other autoimmune diseases.  For example, adults and children with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) are routinely treated with immunotherapy, an approach that has markedly transformed the lives of many living with this disease. Similarly, the aim for T1D is to use disease modifying therapies prudently and safely to truly improve the lives of those living with T1D. Possible approaches may include short term therapy aimed at inducing a long-term effect (tolerance), intermittent therapy, or limited doses of chronic therapy.  Some of these methodologies are described below.

 

CLINICAL TRIALS WITH COMPELLING RESULTS IN NEW-ONSET T1D

 

Selecting therapies for clinical trials is based on multiple factors.  We can now take advantage of the tremendous advances in understanding the disease process and basic and applied immunology.  As illustrated in Figure 8, there are now therapies that target specific mechanisms underlying disease. Trials are considered in the context of what is known about safety of the therapy and efficacy in animal models, pilot studies, and other autoimmune diseases.  Using these approaches, we have succeeded in altering disease course without the excessive risk previously described. 

Figure 8. Major pathways leading to beta cell destruction and potential mechanisms underlying the use of selected therapies. Both CD4 and CD8 T effector cells infiltrate and impair/destroy beta cells along with inflammatory cytokines such as IL 21, IL-1 and IL12/23. Anti-IL21/Liraglutide, Golimumab, Ustekinumab, Anakinra, and Canakinumab are aimed at blocking these inflammatory pathways. Activation of Teff cells depends upon presentation of antigen to naïve T cells which result in both Teff turning the immune response “on” and Treg cells turning the immune response “off”. Rituximab decreases B cells and therefore decreases the presentation of antigen to the immune system. Abatacept blocks co-stimulation and oral insulin (and other antigen therapy including the use of antigen specific dendritic cells) alters the response to self-antigen. The aim in both cases is to deviate the response to Treg cells or keep Teff cells from fully activating. ATG and anti-CD3 agents modulate and/or deplete activated T cells. Alefacept has a similar mechanism although primarily aimed at memory T cells. By blocking IL-6, Tocilizumab should change the balance of immune activation towards T regulatory cells. Similarly, GSCF, IL-2 (at the “right dose”), and infusion of Treg cells should preferentially increase Treg cells.

It is well established that T1D is the result of an immune-cell mediated destruction of the pancreatic beta cells. Many research efforts have thus targeted T-cells as well as the cells with which they interact.  As in secondary prevention trials, anti-inflammatory agents, antigen therapies, and immunomodulatory drugs have all been used in tertiary prevention studies, which are designed to stop further beta cell destruction in the new onset population, therefore preventing complications. In addition, cellular therapies have been tested in this population.  Excitingly, several therapies have now been shown to safely alter the disease course, particularly in the period soon after drug administration, allowing treated subjects to retain more C-peptide than controls 1-4 years later (Figure 9). Thus, while not yet ready for clinical use by endocrinologists, it is likely that immunotherapy with these or other agents will become a part of T1D new onset clinical care in the future.

 

Otelixizumab and Teplizumab (anti-CD3)

 

Some success in beta cell preservation has been shown with Teplizumab (hOKT3gl Ala-Ala) and Otelixizumab (ChAglyCD3), both of which are humanized Anti-CD3 monoclonal antibodies directed against the CD3 portion of the T-cell receptor. These drugs are distinct from OKT3, an anti-T cell agent with significant short term adverse effects. A study with Otelixizumab showed preserved insulin secretion for up to four years after 80 new-onset participants were treated with a single 6-day course of drug (136, 137). At 6, 12, and 18 months, the treatment group showed more residual beta cell function and a delay in the rise in insulin requirements as compared to the placebo group.

 

Similarly, in 2002, Herold et al. reported that a single 14-day course of Teplizumab given within the first 2 months of diagnosis resulted in more residual beta cell function at 12 months as compared to untreated individuals (138). While the effect of the therapy appeared most pronounced early on, follow-up of study participants continued to show differences in insulin production between treated and control subjects at 2 and 5 years after drug administration (139).In the AbATE Trial, a second course of Teplizumab was given 12 months after the first. In this study, C-peptide loss was delayed by an average of 15.9 months in treated subjects versus control subjects at 2 years (140). Finally, the Protégé Trial was a large phase III, placebo controlled randomized trial.  While this study failed to meet its primary endpoint, post-hoc analysis found preserved beta cell function in a subset of the recent onset individuals who received Teplizumab as compared with placebo (141). As previously discussed, TrialNet  found that 14 consecutive daily infusions of Teplizumab successfully delayed the progression from  stage 2 T1D  to stage 3 TID in family members by up to 3 years (122). Additionally, in [i]2019 Provention Bio launched Recent-Onset Type 1 Diabetes Trial Evaluating Efficacy and Safety of Teplizumab (PROTECT), a phase 3 trial (n=300) comparing two courses of 12 daily infusions of either teplizumab or placebo. The two courses are administered either 6 or 12 months apart.  Results of the PROTECT study will provide additional safety and efficacy data for use of teplizumab in T1D.

 

Rituximab (anti-CD20)

 

In addition to anti-T cell therapies, investigators have studied anti-B-cell agents. A placebo controlled, double masked, randomized trial with Rituximab (anti-CD20) found that a single course of drug preserved C-peptide for 8.2 months in the drug-treated group compared to the placebo-treated group (142). The precise mechanism of action of Rituximab remains unclear, although it is believed that this therapy may reduce the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines or inhibit B lymphocyte antigen presentation, thus inhibiting the cascade of events leading to T-lymphocyte activation.  Other anti-B-cell agents are being considered for study.

 

ATG-GCSF

 

In 2019, TrialNet completed a 3-arm study (n=82) of ATG compared to ATG and granulocyte colony stimulating factor (GCSF) compared to placebo. GCSF was combined with ATG to test whether GCSF may facilitate the return of T-regs following ATG-induced lymphocyte depletion. The 2-year C-peptide AUC was significantly higher in ATG treated subjects compared to placebo treated. Interestingly, GCSF did not provide additional benefit compared to ATG alone (143). Given the demonstrated benefit of low-dose ATG in stage 3 T1D, TrialNet may study this therapy in those with earlier stage disease.

 

Abatacept (CTLA4 Ig)

 

Abatacept works through co-stimulatory blockade; that is, the interruption of the interactions between different components of the immune system that propagate an immune response.  A placebo-controlled, double-masked, randomized trial in the new onset population showed that when Abatacept therapy was provided continuously over 2 years, treated individuals benefited from a 9.6-month delay in beta cell destruction (144). Like the anti-B cell and anti-T cell therapies, the effect of Abatacept therapy on insulin secretion was most pronounced soon after initiation of drug.  Importantly, while continued loss of beta cell function occurred over the remaining treatment period, when the drug was withdrawn, no acceleration of disease progression was seen (145). These findings set the stage for testing a shorter course of therapy in those with early stage T1D (stage 1 or stage 2).  TrialNet is now studying Abatacept therapy in this population with the aim to prevent or slow onset of clinical disease (120).

 

Alefacept (LFA-3 Ig)

 

The T1Dal study assessed the use of Alefacept (LFA-3 Ig) in the new onset population in a placebo-controlled, double-masked, randomized trial.  It was expected that Alefacept would target the memory cells of the immune response and mechanistic studies indicated that this was the case.  Unfortunately, there was insufficient drug available to fully complete the study.  As such, while there was a trend, the difference in C-peptide secretion measured at 2h between treated and control subjects was not statistically significant at 1 year.  However, Alefacept therapy did preserve the 4h C-Peptide AUC at 1 year with lower insulin use, and also reduced hypoglycemic events, suggesting at least some efficacy (146). Moreover, further data found a positive effect of therapy 2 years after randomization (147).

 

Cytokine and Anti-cytokine Therapies

 

IL-1: It has been recognized for many years that the cytokine IL-1, a key factor in the inflammatory response, can injure beta cells.  However, in recently diagnosed patients, two Phase 2 trials with different anti-IL-1 therapies (Anakinra and Canakinumab) failed to preserve beta cell function (148).

 

IL-2: IL-2 is necessary for immune cell proliferation, but the amount of IL-2 needed to promote T regulatory cells differs from that needed to promote T effector cells. A pilot study using IL-2 in T1D subjects aimed to exploit this difference and even exaggerate it by combining the therapy with Rapamycin, which selectively blocks T effector cells, thus resulting in an augmentation of T regulatory cells.  Indeed, a marked increase in T regulatory cells was seen.  Unfortunately, a transient decrease in beta cell function was also observed, leading to the trial’s early termination (149). It was suggested that (150) the decrease in beta cell function may have been due to IL-2 simulation of eosinophils and natural killer cells and it has thus been postulated that giving a lower dose or alternative form of IL-2 may more selectively augment Tregs. This was suggested by a small (n=24) study which defined an IL-2 dose range that was both safe and able to induce Treg expansion (151).

 

IL-6 is another important cytokine in the immune cascade.  It promotes a particular type of T effector cell (Th17 cells), and some patients with T1D have an exaggerated response to IL-6.  Tocilizumab blocks the IL-6 receptor and is effective (and approved for clinical use) in adult and pediatric arthritis patients. The Tocilizumab (TCZ) in New-onset Type 1 Diabetes (EXTEND) trial was a randomized trial in adults and children (n=136) with new onset T1D, completed in 2020. While the study confirmed the safety of tocilizumab, it did not demonstrate efficacy in new onset T1D, as measured by 2-hour C-peptide AUC in response to standardized MMTT (150).

 

IL12 and IL23 may indirectly contribute to the etiopathology of T1D, as they are involved in the production of IFN λ and IL-17, key cytokines in the generation of Th1 and Th17 effector cells. Ustekinumab is a monoclonal antibody that blocks a subunit common to IL12 and IL23 and is currently approved for treatment of psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease. Its efficacy to preserve C-peptide is being tested in a Canadian Phase 2/3 study in adults with recently diagnosed T1D (152, 153).

 

Anti-TNFα: The results of the T1GER Study, which assessed the effects of the anti-TNFα medication golimumab on beta cell function in 84 youth with new-onset T1D, were published in November, 2020.  Participants aged 6-21 received either subcutaneous golimumab or placebo via injection in a 2:1 randomization for 52 weeks. At week 52, endogenous insulin production was significantly higher in the treatment group (0.64±0.42 pmol per milliliter vs. 0.43±0.39 pmol per milliliter, P<0.001) and exogenous insulin use was significantly lower. There was no significant difference in mean HbA1c or number of hypoglycemic events between groups, although there were more hypoglycemic events that met adverse event criteria in the treatment group. The promising results of this trial may warrant further investigation of anti-TNFα agents (154).

 

Anti-IL-21: A recent trial funded by Novo Nordisk investigated combination therapy with anti-interleukin (IL)-21 antibody and liraglutide (to improve β-cell function) as a means of enabling β-cell survival. 308 participants were randomly assigned to receive either anti-IL-21 plus liraglutide, anti-IL-21, liraglutide, or placebo (77 assigned to each group). Compared with placebo (ratio to baseline 0·61, 39% decrease), the decrease in MMTT-stimulated C-peptide concentration from baseline to week 54 was significantly smaller with combination treatment (0·90, 10% decrease; estimated treatment ratio 1·48, 95% CI 1·16-1·89; p=0·0017), but not with anti-IL-21 alone (1·23, 0·97-1·57; p=0·093) or liraglutide alone (1·12, 0·87-1·42; p=0·38). It is important to note, however, that 26 weeks after cessation of therapy, both the liraglutide monotherapy group and the combination therapy group showed increased C-peptide loss, perhaps suggesting that while liraglutide may transiently augment insulin secretion in the peri-diagnostic period, it is not beneficial to long-term beta cell function or survival (155). 

 

OTHER APPROACHES

 

Cellular Therapy

 

Several clinical trials have tested administration of cells as compared to pharmaceutical agents with the aim of preserving beta cells.  These include administration of antigen specific dendritic cells which are thought to restore immune tolerance by exploiting the role of dendritic cells in presenting antigen to the immune system (156).  Autologous mesenchymal stromal cells (MSCs) are considered to have immunomodulatory properties and have also been examined and shown  preliminary safety and proof of concept information in a pilot study (157). Other investigators have infused participants with T-regulatory cells (Tregs).  These cells, which can come from saved umbilical cord blood or by expanding the patient’s own cells, should increase the number of Tregs, thereby altering the immune balance with T-effector cells and preventing further beta cell injury.  Small studies to date have had conflicting results (158-160);

 

Therapies Directed at Components of the Innate Immune System

 

General anti-inflammatory agents have been tested as single agents in stage 3 TID and may be used in combination with other therapies in the future. For example, alpha-1-antitrypsin (A1AT) is a serum protease inhibitor that broadly suppresses pro-inflammatory cytokines such as IL-1, TNF-α, and IL-6.  It has been tested in stage 3 TID, where it appears safe and well-tolerated (161). Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) has been proposed as a “vaccine” for those with T1D, citing the concept that BCG stimulation of innate immunity would alter the cytokine attack on beta cells. Notably, BCG is widely used, particularly in Europe, as a vaccine to prevent tuberculosis. Despite this broad usage, there is no epidemiological evidence that BCG administration has impacted the incidence of T1D. Moreover, a large, placebo controlled randomized trial demonstrated that BCG has no effect on insulin secretion, insulin requirements, or HbA1c in individuals with new onset T1D (162). Finally, the tyrosine kinase inhibitor imatinib (Gleevac), developed to treat leukemia, has several effects supporting its use in autoimmunity and T1D. The initial proposed mechanism of action is that the therapy reduces innate inflammation (163). However, other studies suggest it may also directly improve beta cell secretion (164). In a recent multicenter, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study, 64 newly diagnosed adults were treated with either a 26-week course of imatinib or placebo in a 2:1 ratio. The study met its primary endpoint, showing preserved c-peptide secretion in the treatment group at 12 months. However, this effect was not sustained out to 24 months. Additionally, during the 24-month follow-up, 71% of participants who received imatinib had a grade 2 severity or worse adverse event. Imatinib might offer a novel means to alter the course of type 1 diabetes, but care must be taken to monitor for toxicities. Further trials to define an ideal dose and duration of therapy and to evaluate safety and efficacy in children or the at-risk population should be considered (165).  

 

LESSONS FROM TRIALS WITH DISEASE MODIFYING THERAPIES

 

The trials that have successfully altered the course of disease by changing the rate of loss of C-peptide, even if for a brief period of time, have taught us much about the immune system and the natural history of T1D. First, it appears that the time of administration in the course of T1D may determine the effectiveness of a therapy as there appears to be a window during which agents may elicit the greatest effect upon the autoimmune process. Interestingly, in the cases of rituximab, otelixizumab/teplizumab, alefacept, ATG, golimumab, anti-IL-21, and abatacept, each of which has a different mechanism of action, treatment effected a marked delay in beta cell destruction/dysfunction initially, but thereafter, rates of decline in C-peptide paralleled those of the placebo groups (136, 140, 142-144, 155, 165, 166). Collectively, these observations suggest a difference in immune activity soon after diagnosis as compared with later on in the disease course (see Figure 9).

Figure 9. Stylized representation of selected new onset clinical trial results. Studies with positive outcomes, whether using a single course of treatment (136, 140, 142) or continuous therapy (144) appeared to have the most pronounced effects early after treatment started. See text for details.

Because of the time-dependent nature of the therapeutic response, the traditional approach of testing therapies in those with new-onset T1D before moving them “upstream” for use in treating autoimmunity may not be optimal.   Several medications or combinations of medications are more likely to be effective earlier in disease.  Thus, demonstration of efficacy in new onset trials should not be required before testing whether therapies can effectively treat islet autoimmunity. 

 

The results of several trials have demonstrated that not all T1D patients are alike, and they vary in their response to therapy.  For instance, in the Abate trial, 45% of subjects treated with teplizumab appeared to respond to the drug, showing almost no change in C-peptide secretion at two years, whereas 55% were deemed “non-responders” as their C-peptide secretion was not distinguishable from controls. Post-hoc analysis suggests that responders had lower A1C levels, less exogenous insulin use, and fewer Th-1-like T cells than non-responders (140). Next, post-hoc analysis from the Protégé trial revealed that C-peptide preservation was better in teplizumab treated patients who were aged 8-17, randomized within 6 weeks of diagnosis, had mean C-peptide AUC > 0.2nmol/l, A1c< 7.5%, and insulin dose < 0.4 units/kg/day (167). Last, as previously discussed, upon initial analysis of DPT-1 data, oral insulin did not appear to prevent T1D in the at-risk population. However, subsequent analysis showed a marked delay in diabetes development among those participants who had high titer anti-insulin autoantibodies (111). These results suggest that individualized therapies, which take into account a patient’s unique characteristics, are not only a possibility, but may be a necessity.

 

Participant age also appears to play a role in response to therapy, suggesting that optimal disease modifying agents may differ between pediatric and adult populations. Pre-teen children have less C-peptide at diagnosis than older children and adults.  All age groups of children have a markedly different rate of fall of C-peptide than adults in the first year after diagnosis (168). Additionally, prior to diagnosis, children progress much faster through the preclinical stages of disease.  Specifically, children with early autoimmunity (1 antibody) are more likely to develop established autoimmunity (2+antibodies) than adults; and children with established autoimmunity with or without abnormal glucose tolerance progress more rapidly to clinical diabetes than adults (169). Historically, the FDA has required that therapies first be tested in the adult population before they may be approved for use in the pediatric population.  However, this approach may prevent researchers from identifying therapies that may only be viable in pediatric populations.  Changing this paradigm was the focus of a recent American Diabetes Association consensus conference on disease modifying therapy (169). 

 

In the next few years, not only will new agents be tested, but the community will build on these results by using them in selected individuals (personalized medicine), in combination trials, and at different stages of disease.  Each step takes us closer to clinical use of a disease modifying agent.

 

RESIDUAL INSULIN SECRETION

 

Traditional teaching holds that all subjects with T1D will eventually lose all of their beta cells.  This statement is no longer true; multiple lines of research demonstrate that a proportion of those even with longstanding T1D may have residual beta cell function.  The Joslin Medalist study showed that 67% of 411 T1D subjects at least 50 years from diagnosis had at least minimal (0.03 nmol/l) random serum C-peptide levels. Of these individuals, 2.6% had random serum C-peptide ≥ 0.20 nmol/l. Post-mortem analysis of pancreata from these same subjects revealed that insulin positive cells were noted in 9/9 pancreases studied (170).  Since many of the Joslin Medalists were diagnosed at a time when life expectancy was markedly reduced in those with T1D, it was felt that this was a unique population, not representative of the majority of people with T1D and that the preservation of C-peptide itself may have contributed to their long-term survival.  However, multiple studies have now confirmed that C-peptide is present in a significant proportion of individuals with T1D.  At the time of diagnosis, essentially all individuals (both youth and adults) have clinically significant levels of C-peptide (123, 168, 171). Two years after diagnosis, more than 66% of individuals retain these high levels (168). Unfortunately, with increasing duration of disease, the proportion of those with detectable C-peptide falls (124, 168, 170). However, as recently reported by Davis et al. (124), about 6-7% of those even more than 40 years from diagnosis have measurable C-peptide and more sensitive assays can actually detect C-peptide in a greater proportion of individuals.  Moreover, like the pancreata from the Joslin cohort, studies from those who have had T1D for at least 4 years have shown that residual (insulin-positive) β-cells can be found in ~ 40% of T1D pancreases upon autopsy (172).  Careful studies of post-mortem samples using new technologies have suggested that insulin-positive cells may be scattered in the exocrine tissue, raising the tantalizing possibility that new beta cells could emerge.  Longitudinal studies of those long from diagnosis with low levels of C-peptide are underway to better understand variation over time.

 

There are two important take-aways from these new data. First, the presence of C-peptide does NOT rule out a T1D diagnosis.   Yet, this data should not be over-interpreted; most individuals will eventually lose essentially all of their C-peptide secretion.  The Davis study showed that 93% of those diagnosed as children had absent or extremely low levels of C-peptide >20 years from diagnosis (124).

 

To date, there are no therapies that have regenerated beta cells in humans.  It is abundantly clear that mouse and human beta cells are markedly different, and therapies touted to grow cells in mice have not had such effects in humans.  Instead of regeneration, replacement of dead or dysfunctional beta cells may be a viable option.  Beta cell replacement is currently done through either whole pancreas or islet transplantation in conjunction with immune therapies to suppress the alloimmune (tissue rejection) and autoimmune (initial disease process) response.  While outside the scope of this chapter, it has been recently recommended that those with severe hypoglycemic unawareness be referred for islet transplant (173). Other efforts to replace beta cells include placing them in capsules to allow viability and function while blocking immune cells from entering the capsules.  These efforts remain experimental. 

FUTURE CONSIDERATIONS

 

Despite advances in glucose monitoring and insulin delivery, the daily psychological and financial burden of disease on individuals, their families, and society together with the persistence of complications and reduced life span demand a paradigm shift.

 

As of 2021, we know much about the natural history of disease.  We know that antibodies can develop early in life and that essentially all of those with established islet autoimmunity will develop clinically overt disease.  We also know that identifying these individuals is of significant clinical benefit.  Those with islet autoimmunity followed carefully until diagnosis have markedly less morbidity at the time of diagnosis and lower HbA1c values. Family members of T1D probands should be made aware of their disease risk and should be offered autoantibody screening and enrollment in monitoring trials. Correspondingly, patients with TID should be informed of the opportunity to have their relatives screened for TID risk in the setting of a clinical research study.

 

While the interaction of humans with their environment must contribute to disease; how this occurs is still being elucidated.  It is likely that there are many different paths by which individual gene/environment interactions result in T1D; suggesting that dissecting this heterogeneity will provide better insights and therapies.

 

Whatever the primary cause, we know that the immune system is involved in disease progression. There have been successes in delaying beta cell destruction. Looking ahead, we will likely see the development of more targeted immunotherapies as well as more trials with combination therapies. Advances in treating childhood cancers have relied upon combining multiple approaches; this will be mimicked in T1D as well.  More studies will be done in those with islet autoimmunity and variations in dose and route of administration of drugs will be tested in the search for greater efficacy.  With newer and safer drugs, studies are likely to test chronic intermittent treatment for both islet cell autoimmunity and in new-onset TID to prevent further beta cell loss.  Future studies will reflect the heterogeneity of TID.  As medicine in general becomes more personalized, TID disease modifying therapies will target those most likely to benefit, whether because they are more likely to respond to therapy, or because their underlying disease is predicted to be worse. 

 

Yet, there are non-scientific barriers to the use of disease modifying therapies for either islet cell autoimmunity or new-onset TID.  One barrier is the lack of familiarity with these therapies amongst clinicians.  Immune-modulating medications are used routinely by rheumatologists; whereas endocrinologists and others who care for people with TID are generally less comfortable with these therapies.  This lack of familiarity exaggerates the risks and minimizes the benefits of immune-modulating medications.  If we consider islet cell autoimmunity a silent disease in the same way that we consider hypertension a silent disease, then it makes sense to prevent the consequences of that disease, such as hyperglycemia in the case of islet cell autoimmunity, or cardiovascular disease in the case of hypertension.  Similarly, if we consider new-onset TID in the same way we consider JIA, our goal in TID is to preserve beta cell function, just as in JIA, the goal is to preserve joint function. 

 

With a shift in mindset and training, and in anticipation of successful clinical trials, one can envision a not-too-distant future in which endocrinologists might use immune modulating therapies to treat their patients who have islet cell autoimmunity and/or new-onset TID.   

 

Table 5. How to Keep Informed About Research Opportunities

TrialNet

http://www.trialnet.org/

Offers free autoantibody screening to relatives of individuals with type 1 diabetes. If autoantibody positive, participants may be eligible for a diabetes prevention or preservation trial.

Offers New-onset trials to preserve beta cell function in those with new onset T1D (typically within 100 days of diagnosis)

ClinicalTrials.gov

https://clinicaltrials.gov/

Offers a complete registry of clinical trials being conducted in the US and worldwide. Provides an online search tool that allows users to search for clinical trials for which they might be eligible.

JDRF’s Clinical Trial Finder

 

Clinical Trials

JDRF is a global organization funding T1D research aimed at improving the lives of those living with the disease. JDRF has created a search tool that matches potential participants with enrolling trials.

Immune Tolerance Network

 

http://www.immunetolerance.org/

Offers clinical trials aimed at developing new therapeutic approaches for many immune-mediated diseases, including T1D.

 

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Risk of Fasting and Non-Fasting Hypertriglyceridemia in Coronary Vascular Disease and Pancreatitis

ABSTRACT

 

Cardiovascular disease (CVD) remains a major cause of mortality in the Western world and in spite of the reduction of CVD risk by the use of lipid lowering agents per current treatment goals there remains substantial residual and absolute risk of CVD in high-risk populations. Focus on elevated triglyceride (TG) levels deserves renewed attention, particularly as one-third of all adults in the United States suffer from elevated TG and a growing number of people are diagnosed with metabolic syndrome or type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM). The dyslipidemia of metabolic syndrome and T2DM is characterized by low high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-c) concentrations and marked elevations in triglyceride rich lipoproteins (TRL). There has been growing data that points towards an association of fasting and non-fasting triglycerides with CVD, including a number of genetic studies suggesting causality. However, the association of TG as an independent risk faster in CVD is confounded by its inverse metabolic relationship with high density lipoprotein (HDL-c) and the heterogeneity of TG lipoproteins. Current guidelines suggest diagnosis of hypertriglyceridemia based on fasting levels where length of fast is recommended to be 9-12 hours. Although non-fasting TG levels may be a better indicator of risk, the lack of standardization of non-fasting TG measurements, lack of specific reference ranges, and the variability of postprandial lipid measurements have hampered their routine clinical use. Current guidelines focus mainly on LDL-c levels; however, lowering TG may provide additional benefit for CVD prevention. Lifestyle changes including dietary changes and exercise play an important role in treatment of hyperlipidemia. Pharmacological agents used in treatment of hypertriglyceridemia include niacin, fibrates, fish oil and statins. Most guidelines recommend treating elevated TG for prevention of pancreatitis. This article will discuss the role of elevated TG in pancreatitis and CVD risk.

 

INTRODUCTION

 

Cardiovascular disease (CVD) remains a major cause of mortality in the Western world, especially in individuals with obesity, metabolic syndrome, and type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM). With increasing incidence of metabolic syndrome and T2DM worldwide, the global burden of CVD will also increase (1). In spite of the reduction of CVD risk by 25-35% with the use of lipid lowering agents, especially statins, there remains substantial residual and absolute risk of CVD in high-risk populations such as T2DM (2). Elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL-c) is a well-established CVD risk factor and has been the primary target for lipid lowering treatment. However, growing evidence suggests that an elevated triglyceride (TG) level is also an independent risk factor (34)  Borderline high TGs or high TGs defined by National Cholesterol Education Program (NCEP) Adult Treatment Panel III (ATP III) as TG concentration (150 – 199 mg/dl) and (200 – 499 mg/dl) respectively are present in 30% of the US adult population (5) and these levels have been associated with increased CVD. The dyslipidemia of metabolic syndrome and T2DM is characterized by raised TG concentrations, low high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-c) concentrations and marked elevations in triglyceride rich lipoproteins (TRL). This triad is termed mixed or atherogenic dyslipidemia (6). Impaired metabolism of TRLs in the postprandial state have been observed in insulin resistant states such as visceral obesity, metabolic syndrome, and T2DM and this has been linked to the development of atherosclerosis (7).

 

Severe hypertriglyceridemia and very severe hyperlipidemia defined by Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guideline on Evaluation and Treatment of Hypertriglyceridemia as TG concentration (1000 – 1999 mg/dl) and (>2000 mg/dl) carries an increased risk for pancreatitis (8). Case series and uncontrolled studies have shown that severely elevated TG levels are associated with the chylomicronemia syndrome and an increased risk of pancreatitis. Serum TG levels of 1000 mg/dl and higher have been observed in 12% to 38% of patients with acute pancreatitis (9). Hence, understanding the role of hypertriglyceridemia in CVD, chylomicronemia syndrome and risk of pancreatitis is important.

 

METABOLISM OF TRIGLYCERIDE RICH LIPOPROTEINS AND TRIGLYCERIDEMIA

 

Triglyceride Rich Lipoprotein Metabolism

 

Triglyceride rich lipoproteins (TRL) consist of chylomicrons carrying triglycerides from the diet, VLDLs synthesized in the liver, and their respective remnant particles. After a fatty meal, dietary triglycerides are hydrolyzed in the intestine to free fatty acids and monoglycerides. Fatty acids and monoglycerides are then absorbed by enterocytes and resynthesized to form triglycerides. Triglycerides within the intestinal enterocytes are assembled with apolipoprotein (apo) B-48 into large chylomicrons which are released from the cells into the lymphatic system. They access the plasma via the thoracic duct and are rapidly metabolized by lipoprotein lipase (LPL) to yield chylomicron remnants. These are taken up by remnant receptors and by LDL receptors in the liver. Free fatty acids liberated by the action of LPL are available to adipose tissue for storage and to other tissues (e.g., skeletal muscle, heart) for use as energy substrates. Lipids derived from chylomicron remnants, from de novo lipid synthesis, and from lipolysis of adipose tissue are reassembled in the liver as very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) particles, which are secreted into the plasma. VLDL particles are metabolized by LPL to yield intermediate density lipoprotein (IDL) particles, which are metabolized by LPL and hepatic lipase to yield low density lipoprotein (LDL) particles. IDL can be taken up by the liver through an apo E-dependent process, and LDL is taken up by the liver through the binding of apoB100 to LDL receptors. Small VLDL particles, IDL particles, and LDL particles may be taken up by peripheral tissues to deliver nutrients, cholesterol, and fat-soluble vitamins (1011). For more details see (12).

 

Hypertriglyceridemia 

 

Hypertriglyceridemia is a normal physiological state that occurs post ingestion of a meal where lipids undergo the above-mentioned metabolism. In insulin- resistant states there is an exaggerated lipid response leading to pathological hypertriglyceridemia which is thought to be atherogenic. In insulin-resistant states there is an increase in the production of VLDL by the liver and decreased hepatic uptake of VLDL, IDL and LDL. There is a reduction in LPL activity resulting in high triglyceride concentrations, especially in the postprandial state. The over secretion of VLDL, which competes with chylomicron remnants for clearance through the common pathway, can exacerbate the post prandial response. The large amount of TRLs and their prolonged residence time in the circulation leads to increased exchange of cholesteryl ester for triglycerides between TRL and LDL or HDL particles mediated by cholesteryl ester transfer protein (CETP). This process enriches LDL and HDL with triglyceride, and these particles are subsequently more readily hydrolyzed by hepatic lipase resulting in smaller, denser LDL particles and lower concentrations of HDL (13). These abnormalities result in a characteristic dyslipidemia in insulin resistant states, which is now recognized to be atherogenic.

 

Apo C-III

 

Apolipoprotein C-III (APOC3) has a key role in lipoprotein metabolism and regulation of triglyceride levels. APOC3 is synthesized in the liver and transported on triglyceride-rich lipoproteins. It inhibits LPL mediated hydrolysis of triglycerides, and at high concentrations can also inhibit hepatic lipase activity. In addition, APOC3 impairs the hepatic uptake of triglyceride rich lipoproteins by remnant receptors. Thus increased APOC3 levels are an independent risk factor for CVD (14-16); genetic variants of APOC3 leading to lower levels are associated with reduced risk for CVD (17-19).

 

ANGPTL

 

Angiopoietin-like proteins (ANGPTL) are regulators of lipoprotein metabolism. ANGPT3 and ANGPTL4 are natural inhibitors of LPL. Loss of function variants in these proteins have been associated with decreased triglyceride levels and decreased CVD. Murine studies have found that suppression of ANGPTL3 decreases atherosclerosis (20).

 

Severe Hypertriglyceridemia 

 

In severe or very severe TG levels (> 1000 mg/dl), which occur as a result of defective lipolysis or excessive production of endogenous triglyceride, the LPL removal system is saturated. There is decreased degradation of dietary TGs incorporated into chylomicrons and rapid increase of TG levels post fat-rich meals (worsened by dietary simple sugars, fructose, and alcohol) in susceptible individuals causing pancreatitis. The mechanism by which hypertriglyceridemia causes pancreatitis is not understood, but could include local accumulation of free fatty acids and serum hyperviscosity (821).

 

HYPERTRIGLYCERIDEMIA AND RISK OF PANCREATITIS AND CHYLOMICRONEMIA SYNDROME

 

Severe hypertriglyceridemia (> 1000 mg/dl) is an infrequent laboratory finding and is generally associated with genetic disorders of lipid metabolism or TG levels exacerbated by secondary causes. Familial chylomicronemia is a rare monogenic disorder than can cause severe hypertriglyceridemia.(109) It is defined as presence of chylomicronemia (TG > 1000 mg/dl) along with one or more of the following: eruptive xanthomas, lipemia retinalis, or abdominal findings of pain, acute pancreatitis and/or hepatosplenomegaly (22). Multifactorial chylomicronemia syndrome (MFCS) which is a much more common cause of severe hypertriglyceridemia is caused by the accumulation of genetic, non-genetic and environmental factors (109). Individuals with severe hypertriglyceridemia may present with these classic findings and pancreatitis or may be asymptomatic. The mechanisms by which hypertriglyceridemia may lead to acute pancreatitis are not known. Possible mechanisms include intra-pancreatic hydrolysis of high triglycerides by pancreatic lipase leading to accumulation of fatty acids in the pancreas which may be toxic and lead to inflammation and ischemia. Another proposed mechanism is increased viscosity by high chylomicron levels leading to ischemia (23). A study looking at the frequency of signs and symptoms of hypertriglyceridemia including pancreatitis found that the incidence of pancreatitis and eruptive xanthomas was low unless TG levels were significantly elevated, e.g. > 1700 mg/dl (20 mmol/l); patients with extreme hypertriglyceridemia had a combination of primary and secondary factors (T2DM, obesity, alcohol intake, pregnancy) contributing to their high TG levels (24). Murphy et al. in their cohort study estimated the risk of pancreatitis with differing degrees of TG elevations and showed that the crude incidence of pancreatitis was 0.91 per 1000 person years (95% CI, 0.76 – 1.09) in individuals with TG levels <150 mg/dl, 1.24 (95% CI, 1.07 – 1.44) with TG levels 150 – 499 mg/dl and 2.48 (95% CI, 1.79 – 3.42) with TG levels >500 mg/dl (25). Increased incidence is seen with increased TG levels. The level of TG at which pancreatitis can be attributed to hypertriglyceridemia is not well defined nor is the level of TG reduction that is associated with reduced risk known. A study by Lindkist et al. (23) looked at the association of moderately elevated serum TG levels and acute pancreatitis. In this study, 33,260 individuals were followed for median 25.7 years where overall incidence of acute pancreatitis in the cohort was 35.5/100,000-person years. There was a statistically significant association between TG levels and risk of pancreatitis with adjusted HR for pancreatitis of 1.21 (95% CI, 1.07 – 1.36) per 1 mmol/l (~88.5 mg/dl) increment in TG and a significant increased risk for acute pancreatitis in individuals with TG levels > 1.64 mmol/l (145 mg/dl). The analysis in this study was restricted to individuals with TG levels < 6 mmol/l (530 mg/dl) producing statistically significant results and showing that TG levels much lower than previously believed can be associated with increased risk of acute pancreatitis. Another study evaluated the association between lower follow-up TG levels and the incidence of recurrent clinical events for patients with severe hypertriglyceridemia (>500 mg/dl). This study included 41,210 individuals with < 1% having a history of pancreatitis. Individuals with severe hypertriglyceridemia with follow up TG levels <200 mg/dl experienced a lower rate of recurrent pancreatitis episodes, with an adjusted rate ratio of 0.45 (95% CI, 0.34 – 0.60) compared to those with TG levels >500 mg/dl (26). There is an increased risk of pancreatitis with severe hypertriglyceridemia and in individuals with elevated dietary TG levels and in some cases pharmacological intervention is necessary to prevent severe complications such as pancreatitis.

 

HYPERTRIGLYCERIDEMIA AS A CARDIOVASCULAR RISK FACTOR

 

Epidemiological Data Supporting TG as a CVD Risk Factor

 

The association of elevated TG values with CVD remains controversial. Establishing TG level as an independent risk factor for CVD is confounded by its inverse metabolic relationship with HDL-c and the heterogeneity of TG risk lipoproteins. Growing evidence suggests that an elevated TG level is an independent risk factor for CVD and represents an important biomarker of CVD risk because of their association with atherogenic remnant particles. A meta-analysis by Hokanson and Austin (4), showed increased plasma TG levels are associated with a significant increase in risk of CVD independent of HDL-c level. An overall relative risk (RR) for CVD of 1.32 for men and 1.76 for women per 1 mmol/L (~88.5 mg/dl) increase in TGs was noted. However, this analysis was limited to Caucasian study subjects. A non-overlapping meta-analysis involving data from 26 prospective studies in Asian and Pacific populations reported a RR for CVD of 1.8 (95% CI, 1.49 – 2.19), comparing subjects in the top fifth with the bottom fifth of triglyceride levels (27). Sawar et al. (28) reported data from two prospective cohort studies: the Reykjavik study and the European Prospective Investigational of Cancer (EPIC) - Norfolk study, which together comprised 44,237 western middle-aged men and women and total of 3582 incident cases of CVD. Comparing individuals with TGs in the top tertile with the bottom tertile, the adjusted odds ratio for CVD was 1.76 (95% CI, 1.39 – 2.21) in the Reykjavik study and 1.57 (95% CI, 1.10 – 2.24) in the EPIC-Norfolk study. However, adjustment for HDL-c substantially attenuated the magnitude of association of TG level with CVD. They also performed an updated meta-analysis of the Western population studies adding information to include a total of >10,000 CVD cases from 29 Western prospective studies involving a total of > 260,000 participants, and report an adjusted odds ratio of 1.72 (95% CI, 1.56 – 1.90) comparing top and the bottom tertiles of TG values (28). A more recent meta-analysis by Murad, et al. (9), included 35 studies with total of 927,218 subjects who suffered 132,460 deaths and 72,654 cardiac events, myocardial infarctions or pancreatitis; with odds ratio of 1.80 (95% CI, 1.31 – 2.49) for cardiac events, 1.31 (95% CI, 1.15 – 1.49) for myocardial infarctions and 3.96 (95%, CI 1.27 – 12.34) for pancreatitis.

 

Genetic Data Linking TG to CVD

 

Recent human genetic studies show that elevated TGs and TRLs are causal risk factors for CVD. A Mendelian randomization study based on several genetic variants affecting remnant cholesterol and/or HDL showed that a 1 mmol/l (39 mg/dl) increase in non-fasting remnant cholesterol is associated with a 2.8-fold causal risk for ischemic heart disease, independent of reduced HDL cholesterol (29). A meta-analysis of 46 lipid genome-wide-association studies (GWAS) together comprising >100,000 individuals of European descent identified four novel loci associated with CVD that were related to HDL-c and TG levels suggesting elevated TG metabolism may also be associated with CVD risk (30). Another large Mendelian randomization study based on a single APOA5 variant (-1131T>C) that regulates TG showed an association with CVD risk. The odds ratio for coronary heart disease was 1·18 (95% CI 1·11–1·26; p=2·6×10−7) per C allele, which was concordant with the hazard ratio of 1·10 (95% CI 1·08–1·12) per 16% higher triglyceride concentration recorded in prospective studies (31). This finding is similar to that seen in the study by Jorgensen et al. (32), where doubling of genetically raised remnant cholesterol and TG levels due to APOA5 genetic variants was associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarctions. In addition, a study using individuals from the Copenhagen City Heart Study with genetic variants in lipoprotein lipase (LPL), tested whether low concentrations of non-fasting triglycerides were associated with reduced all-cause mortality in observational analyses (n = 13,957). The results showed that each genetically-derived 1 mmol/l (~88.5 mg/dl) reduction in TG levels was associated with a halved risk of all-cause mortality (33). Two large studies examining the relationship between the gene encoding apolipoprotein C3 (APOC3) found that loss of function mutations in APOC3 were associated with low levels of triglycerides and reduced risk of CVD (1719). ANGPTLs have also been linked to CVD. A large human study found that individuals with loss of function variants in ANGPTL3 had lower triglyceride levels, as well as lower levels of HDL-c and LDL-c compared to control subjects, and decreased odds of CVD (20). Similarly, individuals with loss of function variants of ANGPTL4 also had lower triglyceride levels and decreased risk for CVD (34). A study by Ference et al did a randomization analysis of a total of 654,783 participants to determine if there was any association with risk of CVD per unit of change in ApoB from either LDL-C lowering variants in the LDL receptor gene (LDLR) or triglyceride-lowering variants in the lipoprotein lipase gene.  It showed that there was a similar decrease in risk of CVD per unit difference in ApoB from either triglyceride-lowering LPL variants or LDL-C lowering LDLR variants. For each 10-mg/dL lower level of ApoB-containing lipoproteins, the LPL score was associated with 69.9-mg/dL lower plasma triglyceride levels while the same 10-mg/dL lower level of ApoB-containing lipoproteins, the LDLR score was associated with only a 14.2-mg/dL lower plasma LDL-C level and 1.9-mg/dL. This suggests that one will need to lower plasma triglyceride levels by a much greater degree to achieve the same benefits on cardiovascular disease as lowering LDL-C levels and could explain why studies of triglyceride lowering drugs have given ambiguous results. To be noted, the results from this study are from genetic variants and not lipid lowering therapies (106). These studies strongly point to a causal effect of elevated TG and TRLs with CVD.

 

Clinical Trial Evidence Supporting Lowering TG Reduces CVD

 

Results with clinical outcomes trials of fibrate therapy have been variable but primarily indicate a reduction in CV events. Post hoc analysis of several of these trials provides consistent evidence showing a clinical benefit in subgroups with elevated TG levels. A meta-analysis of the effect of TG lowering in 18 trials providing data for 45,058 participants showed that fibrate therapy produced a 10% RR reduction (95% CI 0-18) for major cardiovascular events (p=0.048) and a 13% RR reduction (95% CI 7-19) for coronary events (p<0.0001) (35). The Helsinki Heart Study (HHS) , a primary prevention trial showed that in an average follow up of 5 years, there was a 34% (95% CI 8.2-52.6, P =0.02) RR reduction in CVD in those treated with gemfibrozil compared to placebo (36). In an 18 year follow up of this study, individuals randomized to gemfibrozil had a 24% adjusted RR reduction (p=0.05) in CVD, and individuals with elevated TG and body mass index (BMI) showed significant benefit from treatment with gemfibrozil. Those with TG level in the highest tertiles had a 71% lower RR of CVD mortality (p <0.001) (37). The Bezafibrate Infarction Prevention (BIP) study assessed the role of fibrates in secondary prevention.  The initial reports showed no significant RR reductions in CVD outcomes in bezafibrate treated vs. placebo-treated subjects. However, a post-hoc analysis of individuals with TG >200 mg/dl demonstrated significant RR reduction by 39.5% (p=0.02); there was no significant RR in those with TG values < 200 mg/dl (3839). In a subgroup analysis of patients in the BIP study by Tenebaum at al. (40), patients with CVD, metabolic syndrome and TG > 150 mg/dl experienced significant benefits from the treatment with bezafibrate. Bezafibrate was associated with a reduced risk of any MI and nonfatal MI with HRs of 0.71 (95% CI, 0.54-0.95) and 0.67 (95% CI, 0.49-0.91), respectively. The cardiac mortality risk tended to be lower in patients taking bezafibrate (HR, 0.74; 95% CI, 0.54-1.03). The Veterans Affairs High-Density Lipoprotein Intervention (VA-HIT) involved 2531 males with CVD with low HDL-c and relatively low LDL-c who were treated with gemfibrozil or placebo and monitored for 5.1 years. Gemfibrozil safely reduced the risk of death from CVD or nonfatal myocardial infarction by 22 percent (41). For every 100 mg/dl increment in baseline TG there was a 14% increase in coronary risk (p=0.045). Further, those with highest tertile of TG values (>180 mg/dl) exhibited a more marked decrease in coronary risk with gemfibrozil compared with those in lower tertiles (42). In the Action to Control Cardiovascular Risk in Diabetes (ACCORD) lipid study using statin + fibrate combination therapy, fenofibrate + simvastatin had no effect on the primary outcome vs. simvastatin alone for all patients. However, in the fenofibrate + simvastatin group, there was a 31% reduction in CV risk in the subgroup with baseline TG levels in the upper tertile vs. simvastatin monotherapy (1).

 

These studies demonstrate that fibrate therapy leading to a reduction in TG levels prevents coronary events. Many of these studies also show improvements in HDL-c levels which may contribute to the improvements in CVD seen; however, recent HDL-c raising studies (using CETP inhibitors) have not found improved cardiovascular benefits suggesting that the decrease in TG levels contributed to the reduction of CVD seen in the fibrate studies.

 

Post-Prandial TG as a CVD Risk Factor

 

There is also growing evidence that postprandial hypertriglyceridemia may be a better indicator of the presence or development of CVD than fasting hypertriglyceridemia.  In the Women’s Health Study, a prospective cohort of 26,330 initially healthy women with over 11 years of follow up, it was observed that higher non-fasting TG levels were strongly associated with an increased risk of future cardiovascular events independent of baseline cardiac risk factors, levels of other lipids, and markers of insulin resistance. The concentrations of lipids and apolipoproteins differed minimally when measurements were performed on non-fasting compared to fasting blood samples, except for TG, which were higher when non-fasting. There was a > 4-fold increased risk of a cardiovascular event among individuals with postprandial TG concentrations peaking at 2-4 hours following a meal. This study showed that HDL-c, TG, total cholesterol/HDL-c ratio, and apolipoprotein B predict CVD when measured in non-fasting samples. By contrast, total cholesterol, LDL, and non-HDL cholesterol, in addition to apolipoprotein B-100 and B-100/A-I ratio, may provide less useful CVD risk information when measured non-fasting (4344). In a Norwegian study which included 42,600 women and 43,641 men ages 20 – 50 years at inclusion, with a mean follow-up of 27 years, non-fasting TG were positively associated with CVD death in both genders, with hazard ratios being higher in women than in men. However, after adjustment for cholesterol, systolic blood pressure and smoking, and in a sub-sample also HDL-c, the associations were distinctly attenuated (45). In another study, the Copenhagen City Heart Study, a prospective cardiovascular study of the Danish general population initiated in 1976, 7581 women and 6391 men who had lipids measured at baseline in 1976-1978, were followed for up to 31 years without losses to follow-up, and most were not taking lipid-lowering therapy. The study found that the cumulative incidence of myocardial infarction, ischemic heart disease, and death increased with increasing levels of non-fasting TG levels. Non-fasting TG level were a better predictor of coronary heart disease in women whereas non-fasting cholesterol level was a better predictor in men. However, non-fasting cholesterol levels were not found to be associated with total mortality (4647). A Japanese study which included 4,988 participants with diabetes already on statin therapy, evaluated the relationship between fasting and non-fasting triglycerides and cardiovascular events.  It showed that cardiac events were associated with elevated fasting and non-fasting TG.   However, the study found that non-fasting TG was more helpful for risk assessment for future CVD instead of fasting TG (103). Data from these studies provide evidence for a link between non-fasting TG and cardiovascular disease and support the concept that non-fasting TG levels may strongly predict the risk of cardiovascular events.

 

Mechanisms by Which TG are a CVD Risk Factor

 

The exact mechanism by which TG may promote vascular disease remains to be elucidated. A possible explanation for TG being associated with increased CVD is that elevated levels of postprandial TG may indicate a high content of TRLs derived from chylomicrons and VLDL. Given their relatively small size, these TRLs can enter the arterial wall, and contribute to the formation of foam cells and thus cause atherosclerosis.  The remnant particles under normal conditions are rapidly taken up by the liver. However, in people with the metabolic syndrome or T2DM, hepatic clearance of remnant particles can be delayed and thus there is a predisposition towards increased production of remnant particles and small dense LDL and HDL particles. Thus, increased production along with prolonged exposure of circulating remnant particles enhances the possibility for the particles to be trapped in the arterial wall. Accordingly, remnant lipoproteins have been shown to increase the risk of atherosclerotic heart disease. This suggests a need to direct attention towards diagnosis and treatment of high TG levels in conjunction with treating high cholesterol levels (48). These studies also draw importance to further investigate independent association of fasting and non-fasting hypertriglyceridemia in CVD.

 

PREVALENCE AND ASSESMENT OF HYPERTRIGLYCERIDEMIA

 

Prevalence of Hypertriglyceridemia

 

There is high prevalence of hypertriglyceridemia in the US which necessitates periodic assessment of TG levels, especially in individuals with increased risk. A study looking at 5680 subjects, greater than or equal to 20 years of age who participated in the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey from 2001 and 2006 evaluated the epidemiology of adults with hypertriglyceridemia. This study reports about 67.8% of the study participants had a normal TG level (<150 mg/dl), 14.2% had borderline high TG levels (150 – 200 mg/dl) and 16.3% had high TG levels (200 - 500 mg/dl). The prevalence of severe high TG (500 – 2000 mg/dl) was noted to be 1.7% equating to about 2.4 million Americans. Three participants were noted to have TG levels > 2000 mg/dl. The participants with severe high TG tended to be men (75.3%), non-Hispanic whites (70.1%), and aged 40 to 59 years (58.5%), and more than 14% of those reported having diabetes mellitus, and 31.3% reported having hypertension (49). A study published in 2018 surveyed 9593 American adults between 2007-2014 to determine the TG levels in patients taking and not taking a statin.  It showed almost one-third of people taking statins have unsatisfactory TG levels, as well as one-fourth of overall US adults (104).

 

Assessment of Hypertriglyceridemia

 

Plasma lipids and lipoproteins are generally measured in the fasting state and guidelines for therapy for CVD prevention are based on these measurements. The Endocrine Society clinical practice guidelines on evaluation and treatment of hyperlipidemia suggest diagnosis of hypertriglyceridemia based on fasting levels where length of fast is recommended to be 12 hours (8). In insulin resistant states postprandial TG may be more relevant to CVD risk. To assess postprandial TG there is a need to identify an accurate and standardized methodology to measure postprandial triglycerides and TRLs. Currently, the lack of standardization of non-fasting TG measurements, lack of specific reference ranges and the variability of postprandial lipid measurements have hampered their routine clinical use (50). A Fat Tolerance Test (FTT) has been used to assess post prandial lipoproteins.  An expert panel suggests that individuals with fasting TG concentrations between 1-2 mmol/l (89-180 mg/dl) would have better risk assessment by being tested with a FTT than with just fasting TG.  Individuals with fasting TG concentration of less than 1 mmol/l (88.5 mg/dl) commonly do not have exaggerated and delayed response of TGs to a FTT, whereas individuals with elevated fasting TG values above 2 mmol/l (180 mg/dl) are expected to have an exaggerated and delayed response of TG to a FTT. These two patient populations would not benefit from a FTT for better risk assessment (51).

 

Fat Tolerance Testing 

 

Given that humans spend most of their awake time in a post prandial state, various factors including fasting concentrations of serum TGs, time of the day when test is undertaken, the fat content and quality of FTT need to be considered. An expert panel statement recommends measuring total TGs to evaluate the post prandial lipemia response 4 hours after a standardized FTT performed after an 8 hour fast. There has been significant variability in the fat- rich meal used for FTT ranging from dairy products, eggs, oils to liquid formulations. An expert panel suggests a FTT meal consisting of 75 g fat including both saturated and unsaturated fatty acids (51). ApoB-48 is an alternative marker for the assessment of post prandial hypertriglyceridemia as it measures the number of circulating chylomicrons and their remnants after a meal (there is one ApoB-48 per chylomicron particle). The level of ApoB-48 is very low compared to ApoB-100 in the fasting state but it increases after a FTT. However, the lack of internationally recognized standardized assays and reference ranges, limited availability of the ApoB-48 assay, and high costs limit the utilization of ApoB-48 in clinical settings (5052).

 

Secondary Causes of Hypertriglyceridemia

 

Individuals found to have any elevation of fasting TG should be evaluated for secondary causes including endocrine conditions and medications (Table 1) (5354). Patients with untreated diabetes, obesity, and insulin resistant states commonly have elevated TG levels (5556). Other endocrine disorders such as hypothyroidism, Cushing’s disease, and growth hormone deficiency can also be associated with elevated TG levels (8). TG levels can also significantly increase during pregnancy owing to estrogen-induced stimulation of the secretion of hepatic TRLs (57). In women with underlying disorders of TG metabolism, this increase in TG levels during pregnancy can be associated with pancreatitis and fetal loss. Alcohol intake increases hepatic fatty acid synthesis and decreases breakdown resulting in increased hepatic VLDL secretion and hypertriglyceridemia. Lipodystrophies, either primary or as seen in HIV treated patients or with other diseases is also associated with hypertriglyceridemia (8). There are several monogenic autosomal recessive disorders that lead to hypertriglyceridemia (table 1). LPL deficiency, apo CII deficiency and GPIHBP1 loss of function mutations are associated with impaired LPL activity and present in young patients with increased risk of chylomicronemia and pancreatitis. Additional genetic syndromes in the differential diagnosis of hypertriglyceridemia include mixed or familial combined hyperlipidemia (FCHL), type III dysbetalipoproteinemia and familial hypertriglyceridemia (FHTG) (5859). Hypertriglyceridemia can also be polygenic. Many patients have multiple genetic variants and combined with environmental factors, can cause hypertriglyceridemia (107). However a study with 563 patients with severe hypertriglyceridemia showed that 14.4% had heterozygous rare variants known to cause hypertriglyceridemia while 3.8% of the control group had these variants as well indicating that these variants are incompletely or partly penetrant. Polygenic risk can now be assessed by a polygenic score.  An elevated score increases the probability of developing hypertriglyceridemia, but it is not an absolute predictor of developing hypertriglyceridemia (107). Many drugs also raise triglyceride levels (table 1). Oral estrogens increase the hepatic secretion of VLDL causing an increase in serum TG levels (60). Other medications include Tamoxifen/Raloxifene, retinoids, beta blockers, thiazide inhibitors, corticosteroids, immunosuppressants, antipsychotics and antiretroviral protease inhibitors (8). If possible, individuals with secondary hypertriglyceridemia should have the secondary cause addressed, and such individuals may then not need primary, TG-lowering therapy. However, secondary causes of hypertriglyceridemia cannot always be addressed, in which case providers should consider TG-lowering therapy.

 

Table 1. Causes of Hypertriglyceridemia

Disorders

Drugs

Monogenic*

Hypothyroidism

Uncontrolled Diabetes

Obesity

Chronic renal failure

Nephrotic syndrome

Pregnancy

HIV

Cushing’s syndrome

Lipodystrophy

Inflammatory disease – rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, psoriasis, etc.

Alcohol

Estrogens

Beta blockers

Tamoxifen/Raloxifene

Glucocorticoids

Atypical anti-psychotics

Cyclosporine

Protease inhibitors

Lipoprotein lipase deficiency

Apolipoprotein CII deficiency

Apolipoprotein AV deficiency

GPIHBP1 deficiency

Lipase Maturation factor 1 (LMF1)

*autosomal recessive disorders

 

GUIDELINES FOR TRIGLYCERIDE EVALUTION AND MANAGEMENT

 

The Endocrine Society Clinical Guidelines

 

The Endocrine Society Guidelines recommends that the diagnosis of hypertriglyceridemia be based on fasting serum triglyceride levels and defines TG levels of 150 to 199 mg per dL as mild hypertriglyceridemia; 200 to 999 mg per dL as moderate; 1,000 to 1,999 mg per dL as severe; and 2,000 mg per dL or greater as very severe hypertriglyceridemia. The screening for elevated triglyceride levels for all adults is recommended as part of a lipid panel at least every five years. These guidelines recommend against the routine measurement of lipoprotein particle heterogeneity. The guidelines also recommend screening patients with hypertriglyceridemia for secondary causes (medications, alcohol use, endocrine diseases, renal disease, liver disease) and that patients with primary hyperlipidemia be evaluated for family history of dyslipidemia and CVD. The guidelines recommend the use of non-HDL-c (goal 30 mg/dl higher than the LDL-c goal) for both risk stratification and as a target for therapy in patients with moderate hypertriglyceridemia.  Initial treatment of patients with mild to moderate hypertriglyceridemia should include lifestyle therapy. For patients with severe to very severe hypertriglyceridemia, dietary modifications in combination with drug treatment should be considered. A fibrate is recommended as a first-line agent in patients with severe or very severe hyperlipidemia (8).

 

American Association Of Clinical Endocrinologists (AACE) Guidelines

 

Similar to other guidelines, the AACE clinical practice guidelines recommend evaluating all adults >20 years of age for dyslipidemia every 5 years for risk assessment with a fasting (9 to 12-hour fast) lipid profile. In addition, it recommends more frequent assessments for patients with a family history of premature CVD. However, unlike other guidelines, AACE also recommends Apo B measurements to assess for residual risk in patients with increased TG levels (>150 mg/dl) or low HDL-c levels (< 40 mg/dl). TG levels less than 150 mg/dl are defined as normal, 150 – 199 mg/dl as borderline high, 200 – 499 mg/dl as high, and levels >500 mg/dl or greater as very high, and AACE recommends maintaining TG levels less than 150 mg/dl.  Fibrates are recommended for the treatment of severe hypertriglyceridemia (>500 mg/dl) and lifestyle changes including physical activity, weight loss, and smoking cessation are recommended as first line therapy in moderate hypertriglyceridemia (61).

 

American Heart Association (AHA) Statement on Triglycerides and Cardiovascular Disease

 

In 2011, AHA published a scientific statement addressing TG and CVD; however, this statement is not intended to serve as a specific guideline. In this statement optimal fasting TG level is defined as < 100 mg/dl as a parameter of metabolic health and they suggest screening for non-fasting TG for those with high fasting TG levels. A non-fasting level of <200 mg/dl corresponds with a normal (<150 mg/dl) or optimal (<100 mg/dl) fasting TG level and requires no further testing. The AHA statement uses fasting TG levels to define levels between 150 – 199 mg/dl as borderline high, 200 – 499 mg/dl as high and levels >500 mg/dl as very high. Intensive lifestyle changes are recommended to be most crucial in the management of hypertriglyceridemia and reductions of 50% or more in TG levels may be attained through intensive therapeutic lifestyle change (58).

 

National Lipid Association (NLA)

 

The National Lipid Association guidelines recommend obtaining a fasting or a non-fasting lipoprotein profile in all adults (>20 years) every 5 years. It defines TG level of <150 mg/dl as normal, 150 – 199 mg/dl borderline high, 200 – 499 mg/dl as high and levels of >500 mg/dl as very high. The NLA Expert Panel views non-HDL-c as a better primary target for medication than LDL-c and recommends levels of non-HDL-c < 130 mg/dl as the desirable level of atherogenic cholesterol for primary prevention of CVD and non-HDL-c <100 mg/dL for high risk patients or patients with ASCVD.  An elevated TG level is not a target of therapy, except when very high (>500 mg/dl). NLA recommends that when TG levels are between 200 – 499 mg/dl, the targets of therapy are non-HDL-c and LDL-c to reduce risk of CVD events and when TG levels are very high (>500 mg/dl, and especially if >1000 mg/dl), reducing the concentration to <500 mg/dl to prevent pancreatitis becomes the primary goal. The NLA recommends lifestyle interventions as first step in efforts to reduce triglycerides. If drug therapy is indicated NLA guidelines recommend using fibric acids, omega-3 fatty acids, or nicotinic acid as first line agents if fasting TG level is >1000 mg/dl. For patients with TG levels of 500 – 999 mg/dl a triglyceride-lowering agent or a statin is considered reasonable and for TG level between 200 – 499 mg/dl a statin generally is considered fist-line drug therapy with addition of a  triglyceride-lowering agent if non-HDL-c is not at goal post initiation of statin (62).

 

European Society of Cardiology (ESC)/European Atherosclerosis Society (EAS) Guidelines

 

Similar to the above-mentioned guidelines, ESC/EAS guidelines also recommend checking lipid levels in the fasting state. The specific target for non-HDL-c is recommended to be 0.8 mmol/L (~30 mg/dl) higher than the corresponding LDL-c target and TG level < 1.7 mmol/L (~ 150 mg/dl). TG levels above 10 mmol/L (~ 880 mg/dl) are considered to be clinically significant for the risk of pancreatitis and treatment is recommended. In patients with hypertriglyceridemia the ESC/EAS guidelines recommend that the first step is to consider possible causes of hypertriglyceridemia and to evaluate for total CVD risk; the primary goal is to achieve LDL-c target based on the total CVD risk. The use of pharmacologic agents is recommended in patients with TG levels > 2.3 mmol/L (~ 200 mg/dl) who cannot lower them by lifestyle changes and/or if the subject is at high risk of CVD. Statins are recommended as the first choice to reduce both total CVD risk and moderately elevated TG levels. In high-risk patients with TG levels between 1.5-5.6 mmol/L (135-499 mg/dL) while already on statin therapy, use of icosapent ethyl 2x2 g/day can be considered (63). Patients who present with ACS and those whose LDL-C are not at goal on maximally tolerated statin and ezetimibe, addition of PCSK9 inhibitor should be considered.

 

TG Assessment Strategies

 

The different guidelines in general recommend screening for lipids using a fasting lipid profile, screening for secondary causes of dyslipidemia, and focusing on lifestyle interventions as the first approach to lower elevated TG. A practical approach is to request fasting lipid panels on patients, but to obtain non-fasting (random) panels if fasting samples cannot be provided. For any patient with a TG level that is elevated (for example, > 200 mg/dl), screen for secondary causes and address these if possible. For significantly elevated TG (e.g., > 500 mg/dl) consider the addition of TG-lowering therapy, with the goal of preventing any further elevations increasing the risk for pancreatitis. For individuals with moderately elevated TG (e.g., 150-500mg/dl) then we recommend consideration of TG-lowering therapy on an individual basis. For example, individuals with existing CVD or at high CVD risk, or those with very low HDL levels might be candidates for therapy; whereas in those with low CVD risk, or desirable HDL levels, additional focus on lifestyle interventions to lower TG may be the appropriate first line of therapy. The use of non-HDL cholesterol levels can help guide decisions.

 

MANANGEMENT OF HYPERTRIGLYCERIDEMIA

 

Lifestyle Intervention

 

Studies have shown that the consumption of a Western diet which includes highly processed, calorie-dense and nutrient poor foods leads to an exaggerated lipemia. In addition, factors such as physical inactivity, cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol intake, and obesity worsen lipemia (51). Hence, the control of secondary factors and lifestyle changes are considered to be the first line approach of the clinical management of both fasting hypertriglyceridemia and post prandial hyperlipidemia. Appropriate dietary changes include limiting fat content, caloric restriction resulting in weight loss, restriction of alcohol intake, and increased exercise are fundamental for management of hypertriglyceridemia (5051). The type of carbohydrate consumed may affect serum triglycerides and a diet rich in simple carbohydrates and sugar-sweetened beverages is associated with hypertriglyceridemia. As compared with starches, sugars, particularly sucrose and fructose, tend to increase serum triacylglycerol concentrations by about 60%. Because fructose bypasses a major rate-determining step in glycolysis, a high influx of fructose to the liver promotes triacylglycerol synthesis and VLDL production (64). The effects of sucrose or fructose on fasting TG may be more pronounced in men, sedentary overweight individuals, or those with the metabolic syndrome. Sucrose and fructose also increase postprandial TG levels and may augment the lipemia associated with fat-containing meals (65).  There is mounting evidence that physical activity lowers risk for CVD (66). Mestek et al. (67)reported that aerobic exercise lowered the postprandial triglyceride response to a high fat meal in subjects with metabolic syndrome. The effects of exercise in reducing postprandial lipemia are seen both in an acute setting right after exercise as well as delayed effects through the next day. Additionally, exercise does not need to be a single continuous bout but instead could be spread out throughout the day. Accumulated physical activity appears to be as effective in lowering postprandial TGs concentrations (68) as a single bout. The mechanisms leading to decreased triglyceride levels post meals are not completely understood and need further investigation.

 

Statins

 

Statins are the most widely used lipid lowering agents and have beneficial effects on cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. Statins are effective in lowering non-HDL-c, mainly because of their LDL lowering action and to a certain extent lowering TG levels. The higher the baseline TG levels, the greater the TG lowering effect. Available data also indicate that statins can reduce postprandial TG values (51). Statins inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, hence up-regulate the LDL receptor due to the intracellular depletion of cholesterol in the liver. Increased numbers of LDL receptors may improve removal of TRL remnants in postprandial state. It is also postulated that statins inhibit VLDL synthesis (70).  Parhofer et al (71)showed that 10 mg of atorvastatin per day for 4 weeks improves, but does not normalize, post prandial lipoprotein metabolism in hypertriglyceridemic patients. Other studies have also shown that atorvastatin improved fasting as well as postprandial lipemia (7273).

 

Fibrates

 

Fibrates have the most pronounced effect on lowering plasma TG levels of currently available lipid lowering therapies. Through activation of peroxisomal proliferator activated receptor (PPAR) alpha, fibrates decrease triglycerides by increasing LPL activity and decreasing apolipoprotein CIII production leading to increased lipolysis. Fibrates also increase fatty acid oxidation in the liver leading to a decrease in VLDL secretion (51). The Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guidelines on Evaluation and Treatment of Hypertriglyceridemia recommend that a fibrate be used as a first line agent for reduction of TGs in patients at risk for triglyceride- induced pancreatitis (8). The ACCORD trial evaluated the benefit of adding fenofibrate to simvastatin therapy concluded that the addition of fenofibrate in patients with diabetes did not reduce the rate of CVD events. However, in the fenofibrate + simvastatin group there was a significant reduction in cardiovascular risk in the subgroup with clinically significant dyslipidemia marked by elevated TG levels and low HDL levels (74). Rosenson et al. reported that fenofibrate treatment for 6 weeks significantly decreased both postprandial hypertriglyceridemia and the inflammatory response after the ingestion of a test meal consisting of a milkshake including standardized fat content (68% of energy) that was adjusted to body surface area (50 g/m2) in patients with hypertriglyceridemia and the metabolic syndrome (75). In a small study (n = 10), bezafibrate was shown to significantly decrease postprandial endothelial dysfunction and elevations of both exogenous and endogenous triglycerides in patients with metabolic syndrome (76). The effects of fibrates in decreasing postprandial TRLs may play a role in their vascular protective effects.

 

Niacin

 

Niacin decreases TG levels and has pronounced effects on increasing HDL concentration. The mechanism of action of niacin remains unclear, but it is proposed that niacin decreases triglyceride synthesis and hepatic secretion of VLDL. The Coronary Drug Project was a randomized controlled trial that looked at the role of immediate-release niacin as a solo agent for coronary prevention. The Coronary Drug Project showed that niacin was associated with a significant reduction in cardiovascular events (7778).  Studies have shown that both immediate-release and extended-release niacin suppress postprandial hypertriglyceridemia (7980). The Atherothrombosis Intervention in Metabolic Syndrome with Low HDL/High Triglycerides: Impact on Global Health Outcomes (AIM-HIGH) trial showed that the addition of niacin to statin therapy in patients with CVD and LDL cholesterol levels of less than 70 mg per deciliter had no incremental clinical benefit during a 36-month follow-up period, despite significant improvements in HDL cholesterol and triglyceride levels (2). However, a trend towards benefit (hazard ratio 0.74; p=0.073) was found for the subset of patients with both the highest TG levels and lowest HDL levels (>198 and <33mg/dl respectively) (81). Lipids in this study were measured in fasting state. Similarly, the Heart Protection Study 2-Treatment of HDL to Reduce the Incidence of Vascular Events (HPS2 –THRIVE) study, which compared niacin + laropiprant (a prostaglandin D2 receptor antagonist used as an anti-flushing agent) + statin vs statin alone did not find added benefit of niacin. However, this lack of additional benefit may be related to the patient population studied which did not have elevated TG levels (82)and a possible benefit may be seen for subjects with both elevated TG and low HDL. Further studies are needed to access the effects of niacin on hypertriglyceridemia in metabolic syndrome and patients with T2DM.

 

Ezetimibe

 

Ezetimibe is a cholesterol lowering agent that inhibits the intestinal absorption of cholesterol (83). Recent studies show that ezetimibe alone or in conjunction with statins also reduces postprandial hypertriglyceridemia. Masuda, et al. showed that ezetimibe significantly decreased triglycerides in the fasting state along with a decrease in postprandial elevations of cholesterol and TG levels in the chylomicrons (CM) size range, suggesting that the postprandial production of CM particles was suppressed by ezetimibe (84). In a study by Olijhoek et al, combination therapy with low dose simvastatin and ezetimibe was shown to preserve post-fat load endothelial function when compared to treatment with high-dose simvastatin monotherapy in male metabolic syndrome patients (85). The Improved Reduction of Outcomes: Vytorin Efficacy International trial (IMPROVE-IT), a multicenter, randomized, double blind trial of 18,144 moderate-high risk patients stabilized following ACS, was conducted to investigate if the addition of ezetimibe to a statin improves cardiovascular outcomes relative to statin monotherapy in these patients. The results from this study suggest that the addition of ezetimibe to statin therapy improves cardiovascular outcomes, but likely via further LDL-c lowering (86).

 

Fish Oil

 

Omega 3 polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) have dose dependent TG lowering effects resulting from variety of mechanisms including decreased VLDL secretion and improved VLDL TG clearance (87). In the Japan EPA Lipid Intervention Study (JELIS) trial, 18,645 patients in Japan were recruited between 1996 and 1999 and assigned to receive either 1800 mg of eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) daily with statin or statin only.  A 19% relative reduction in major coronary events (p = 0.011) was seen in patients in the EPA group. Unstable angina and non-fatal coronary events were significantly reduced; however, sudden cardiac death and coronary death did not differ between the groups (88). Two recent trials, REDUCE-IT and STRENGTH studied the effects of high dose omega-3 fatty acids and had differing results. The REDUCE-IT trail with 8,179 patients showed a decrease in major cardiac events with high dose icosapent ethyl (4g/d EPA), while the STRENGTH trial with 13,086 patients showed no effects on cardiac events with high dose EPA/DHA carboxylic acid (4g/d). (98,99) A difference in the two studies could be due to the EPA levels achieved in each study. REDUCE-IT achieved an EPA level of 144 (mg/mL) while the STRENGTH trial achieved an EPA level of 89.6 (mg/mL) (105). Another issue is that in the REDUCE-IT trial, mineral oil was used as the placebo in the control group which resulted in higher atherogenic lipoproteins in that arm. This raised concerns that both the negative effects from the mineral oil in the control group and the positive effects of EPA in the treatment group underlies the observed reduction in major cardiac events seen in the trial.  However, Olshansky et al reviewed eight studies that used mineral oil as a placebo which showed no evidence that mineral oil in the dosage used in the REDUCE-IT trial had any effect on clinical outcomes. (108) Given the opposite results of the two trials, further investigation is needed in regards to EPA levels and drug formulations. A secondary analysis of the STREGNTH trial showed no cardiovascular benefits at the highest levels of DHA or EPA (99). A meta-analysis which includes the REDUCE-IT and STRENGTH trails show that there was a higher risk of atrial fibrillation in groups treated with omega-3 fatty acids than placebo. (100). This necessitates further evaluation in the potential adverse effects of omega 3 fatty acids.

 

 

A few studies have examined the effects of fish oil supplementation on postprandial lipemia and found that fish oil use decreases fasting and postprandial triglyceride levels (8990). A study looking at the effect of fish oil, exercise and the combined treatments on fasting and postprandial chylomicron metabolism showed that combining fish oil with chronic exercise, reduced the plasma concentration of pro-atherogenic chylomicron remnants; in addition it reduced the fasting and postprandial TG response in viscerally obese insulin resistant subjects (91).

 

For additional information on drugs to treat hyperlipidemia see the chapters on triglyceride lowering drugs and cholesterol lowering drugs in Endotext (9293).

 

New Therapies on the Horizon

 

APOC3 is a CVD risk factor due to its association with increased triglyceride levels. Antisense oligonucleotides (ASOs) are novel therapeutic agents that bind mRNA leading to its degradation. An ASO to APOC3 was found to lower APOC3 and triglyceride levels. A RCT evaluating this ASO in patients with hypertriglyceridemia (fasting triglyceride levels between 350-2000 mg/dl if not on triglyceride-lowering therapy, or 225-2000 mg/dl if on a fibrate) found that it led to reductions in triglyceride levels of 30-71% over the 13-week trial period. After the ASO was discontinued triglyceride levels returned towards baseline levels over the next 13 weeks. There were no safety concerns in this trial (94). In the APPROACH trial 66 patients with monogenic chlyomicronemia were randomly given a placebo or volanesorsen (300mg once weekly). The group treated with volanesorsen had TG levels lowered to less than 750 mg/dl in 77% of the patients at 3 months compared to 10% in patients treated with the placebo (101). A common side effect with volanesorsen is thrombocytopenia and it is currently only approved for use in Europe. (101) Studies using this approach to target triglycerides as a CVD risk factor are ongoing. Furthermore, inhibition of APOC3 may be a therapeutic option in individuals with LPL deficiency (95); at present there are no effective therapies except for extreme dietary restrictions for these individuals.

 

ANGPTL3 is another potential target for triglyceride lowering. Genetic causes of decreased activity are associated with lower triglyceride, HDL, and LDL levels as well as a decreased risk for CVD. A small trial using a human monoclonal antibody to target ANGPTL3 reported decreases in triglycerides up to 76% (20).  A recent study by Harada-Shiba et al, a phase 1 study took a total of 96 Caucasian and Japanese patients and randomized them to receive varying doses and routes of evinacumab or placebo. In the evinacumab cohorts, reduced triglycerides were rapidly seen in a dose-dependent manner. The study showed no serious or severe treatment emergent adverse events (102). Further clinical trials using either monoclonal antibody or antisense technology are ongoing.

 

Other Treatments

 

Emerging evidence suggests that incretin-based therapies not only improve post prandial glucose levels in diabetic patients, but may also pay a role in postprandial lipid metabolism (96). Recent trials have found cardiovascular protection for some of these agents (see (97). Improved understanding of the physiology and mechanism thorough which postprandial hypertriglyceridemia leads to increased cardiovascular events will help identify new targets in future.

 

CONCLUSION

 

Recent data strongly indicate that fasting as well as non-fasting hypertriglyceridemia is a risk factor for atherosclerosis and CVD. Current treatment goals aimed at lowering LDL-c still do not eliminate residual risk of CVD. Current guidelines focus mainly on LDL-c levels and correction of hypertriglyceridemia is not the aim of current treatment. However, focus on elevated hypertriglyceridemia deserves renewed attention, particularly as one-third of all adults in the United States suffer from elevated TG and growing number of people are diagnosed with metabolic syndrome or T2DM. There is need for more studies specifically testing the benefits of lowering hypertriglyceridemia. Additionally, the usefulness of “fat tolerance test” using a standardized meal, analogous to a glucose tolerance test, warrants further evaluation as potential indicator of a metabolic state identifying individuals at higher risk for cardiovascular events. Given the association with CVD, elevated postprandial TGs levels may represent a particularly attractive therapeutic target and further studies particularly looking at effect of various lipid lowering agents on postprandial along with fasting TGs are necessary.

 

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Hyperprolactinemia

ABSTRACT

Hyperprolactinemia is the most common hypothalamic-pituitary dysfunction, being an important cause of irregular menses and infertility amongst young women. Clinical and laboratory investigation is crucial to determine hyperprolactinemia etiology and to indicate the proper treatment. Prolactinoma is the most common cause of pathological hyperprolactinemia. Physiological and pharmacological causes must be ruled out. Macroprolactinemia is a laboratorial pitfall and must be ruled out in asymptomatic hyperprolactinemic individuals. Usually, treatment is not necessary. Hook effect is another laboratory pitfall that may underestimate prolactin levels confounding the differential diagnosis between macroprolactinomas and pseudoprolactinomas. Clinical treatment with dopamine agonists is effective in 80 to 90% of hyperprolactinemic patients leading to normal serum prolactin levels and tumor reduction. Normoprolactinemia after dopamine agonist (DA) withdrawal is possible in around 30% of cases. Hypogonadism and infertility are usually reversed upon prolactin level normalization due to DA treatment, allowing pregnancy in most patients. In micro and intrasellar macroprolactinomas, DA can be withdrawal after pregnancy confirmation. Dopamine agonists are usually well tolerated. Nevertheless, valvopathy and psychiatric side effects should be actively evaluated. Surgical treatment may be indicated in resistant/intolerant patients and symptomatic apoplectic tumors. Radiotherapy is rarely performed and must be reserved to control tumors growing in an aggressive fashion. Temozolomide is an alternative treatment for resistant/aggressive prolactinomas not responding to high doses of dopamine agonists, multiple surgeries, and radiotherapy.

 

INTRODUCTION

 

Prolactin secreting pituitary tumors are the most common type of hormone secreting pituitary tumors (1). They are also the only pituitary tumors which can be effectively managed primarily by medical means (2). Therefore, their identification and diagnosis are imperative to avoid unnecessary pituitary surgery.

 

PROLACTIN SECRETION

 

Prolactin is secreted by the lactotrophs in the anterior pituitary gland. Prolactin secretion is regulated by the hypothalamus. Unlike the other anterior pituitary hormones, however, the hypothalamic influence is predominantly of tonic inhibition (3).

 

The hypothalamus secretes prolactin-release-inhibiting factors (PIF) and prolactin-releasing factors (PRF). PIF is predominantly exert by dopamine, with GABA having a minor role (4). Prolactin controls its own secretion through a short loop negative feedback, stimulating tuberoinfundibular dopamine (TIDA) cells.  Nevertheless, the nature of the physiological PRF is unclear. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP), serotonin, histamine, oxytocin, and estrogens can act as a PRF. Other neurotransmitters and neuropeptides can also modulate prolactin secretion including endothelin, TGF beta1, angiotensin, somatostatin, substance P, neurotensin, calcitonin, EGF, natriuretic atrial peptide, bombesin, cholecystokinin, acetylcholine and vasopressin (5).

 

CAUSES OF HYPERPROLACTINEMIA

 

Disorders causing elevated prolactin levels is shown in Table 1. The causes of hyperprolactinemia may be considered, in a simplified fashion, as resulting from four basic abnormalities. In some patients, however, it is not possible to elucidate the cause of hyperprolactinemia, discussed below (6). Also, stress from venipuncture can cause slight increase in serum prolactin levels in asymptomatic individuals and a normal serum prolactin measured after resting for 30 minutes can rule out this condition (7). Nevertheless, routinely resting before venipuncture is usually not recommended (8).  In addition, prolactin should not be measured after a seizure, which could increase hormonal level (6).

 

­Table 1. Etiology of Hyperprolactinemia

Pituitary Disease

Prolactinomas

Acromegaly 

Clinically nonfunctioning pituitary adenomas 

Empty Sella syndrome            

Hypophysitis

Hypothalamic Disease        

Craniopharyngiomas

Meningiomas 

Germinomas 

Other tumors 

Sarcoidosis 

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

Neuroaxis irradiation

Vascular 

Pituitary Stalk Sec­tion

Medications

Phenothiazines

Butyrophenones

Atypical Antipsychotics

Tricyclic Antidepressants

Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors

Reserpine

Methyldopa

Verapamil

Metoclopramide

Neurogenic

Chest wall/Breast lesions

Spinal Cord lesions

Other

Pregnancy

Breast-feeding

Hypothyroidism

Renal Insufficiency

Adrenal Insufficiency

Ectopic prolactin production

Familial hyperprolactinemia (mutated prolactin receptor)

Untreated phenylketonuria

Macroprolactinoma

Idiopathic

 

Hypothalamic Dopamine Deficiency

 

Diseases of the hypothalamus, such as tumors, arterio-venous malformations, and inflammatory processes such as sarcoidosis result in either diminished synthesis or release of dopamine. Furthermore, certain drugs (e.g., alpha-methyldopa and reserpine) are capable of depleting the central dopamine stores.

 

Defective Transport Mechanisms

 

Transection of the pituitary stalk results in impaired transport of dopamine from the hypothalamus to the lactotrophs. Pituitary or stalk tumors with abnormal blood supplies, or their pressure effects, may interfere with the circulatory pathway from the hypothalamus down the pituitary stalk to the normal lactotrophs, or a tumor, producing effective dopamine deficiency due to a functional stalk section. Besides tumors, infections, and inflammatory diseases such as hypophysitis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis can also cause pituitary stalk disconnection.

 

Lactotroph Insensitivity to Dopamine

 

Dopamine receptors have been found on human pituitary lactotroph adenoma cells. Receptor sensitivity to dopamine could be diminished, which would explain the lack of response to increased endogenous dopamine stimulation. However, an obvious response of the receptors to pharmacologic dopamine agonists (DA) makes this possibility less likely. Certain drugs act as dopamine-receptor-blocking agents, including phenothiazines (e.g., chlorpromazine), butyrophenones (haloperidol), and benzamides (metoclopramide, sulpiride, and domperidone). These drugs block the effects of endogenous dopamine and thus release lactotrophs from their hypothalamic inhibition. This sequence of events results in hyperprolactinemia. Table 2 summarizes the most common drugs causing hyperprolactinemia (5,9).

 

Table 2. Drugs Related to Hyperprolactinemia

Drug

Causing hyperprolactinemia

Not causing hyperprolactinemia

Antipsychotics

 

 

typical

Haloperidol Chlorpromazine,

Thioridazine, Thiothixene

 

atypical

Risperidone, quetiapine, olanzapine

Clozapine, aripiprazole, ziprasidone

Antidepressants

 

 

 

Tryclicic: clomipramine

 

 

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors: pargyline, clorgyline

 

 

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors: Sertraline, Fluoxetine, Paroxetine

 

Other psychotropics

Buspirone, Alprazolam

 

Other substances

Opiates and cocaine

 

Antihypertensive medications

Verapamil, methyldopa

 

Gastrointestinal medications

Metolopramide, domperidone

 

Sexual steroids

Estrogens

 

 

Stimulation of Lactotrophs

 

Hypothyroidism may be associated with hyperprolactinemia. If hypothyroidism results in increased TRH production, then TRH (which can act as a PRF) could lead to hyperprolactinemia. Estrogens act directly at the pituitary level, causing stimulation of lactotrophs, and thus enhance prolactin secretion. Furthermore, estrogens increase the mitotic activity of lactotrophs, increasing cell numbers. Pregnancy and lactation are physiological causes of hyperprolactinemia. Injury to the chest wall can also lead to hyperprolactinemia. This results from abnormal stimulation of the reflex associated with the rise in prolactin that is seen normally in lactating women during suckling (6).

 

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS OF HYPERPROLACTINEMIA

 

The symptoms associated with hyperprolactinemia may be due to several factors: the direct effects of excess prolactin, such as the induction of galactorrhea (10) or hypogonadism (11), the effects of the structural lesion causing the disorder (i.e. the pituitary tumor), leading to, for example, headaches, visual field defects, or external ophthalmoplegia (12); or associated dysfunction of the secretion of other anterior pituitary hormones.

 

The incidence of galactorrhea in hyperprolactinemic patients is between 30% and 80%, depending on the skill of the examiner and the degree of estrogen deficiency. Approximately 50% of women with galactorrhea, however, have normal prolactin levels. As mentioned below, it is particularly those patients with very high prolactin levels, i.e., greater than 100ng/mL (2000mU/L), who often have no galactorrhea. Thus, galactorrhea is an inconsistent marker of hyperprolactinemia (10).

 

Women with hyperprolactinemia usually present with menstrual abnormalities – amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea – or regular cycles with infertility. Occasionally, patients may present with menorrhagia. Menstrual disorders are often not seen with mild hyperprolactinemia but it is unusual not having  menstrual problems if serum prolactin is greater than 180 ng/mL (3,600 mU/L) (13).

 

In contrast, men often present late in the course of the disease with symptoms of expansion of their pituitary tumor (i.e., headaches, visual defects, and external ophthalmoplegia) or symptoms from secondary adrenal or thyroid failure. Nevertheless, these men can present with sexual impairment for many years before their diagnosis. It is unknown if macroprolactinomas are more commonly seen in men due to these delayed diagnosis and/or if prolactinoma´s pathogenesis is different in men (14). In contrast to women in whom microprolactinomas are most commonly seen, macroprolactinomas are usually found in men and the serum prolactin levels are usually much higher than those in women (15).

 

Occasionally, the syndrome may occur in prepubertal or peripubertal children, when it may present with delayed or arrested puberty or with headache and/or visual field defects or with growth arrest. Children and adolescents often present with aggressive prolactinomas, especially in boys (16). Genetic conditions such as MEN 1 and familial isolated pituitary adenomas (FIPA) should be considered (17).

 

DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS

 

It is important to exclude other causes of hyperprolactinemia: pregnancy, lactation, hypothyroidism, use of drugs that either deplete central dopamine or block dopamine receptors, and renal or hepatic failure. Ruling out these important causes, and any hypothalamic lesion, three common diagnostic possibilities remain: the presence of a microadenoma, macroadenoma, or no visible tumor at all. If patients do not harbor an identifiable tumor, they are described as having idiopathic hyperprolactinemia. It is likely, however, that patients with this condition may harbor small microprolactinomas, which were undetected with less sensitive imaging tools used in the past, and even with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (3).

 

A microadenoma is described as having a maximum diameter of up to 10mm (the maximal diameter of the normal pituitary gland) while a macroadenoma has a diameter larger than 10 mm. Giant adenomas are defined as the presence of the largest diameter of the tumor being larger than 4 cm (18). A microadenoma is often visualized using MRI. Usually, the serum prolactin level is below 200ng/mL (4000mU/L) in patients with microadenomas. A macroadenoma that secretes prolactin is usually associated with a serum prolactin level of more than 200ng/mL (4000mU/L). If the patient has a macroadenoma and a serum prolactin level of less than 200ng/mL (4000mU/L), consideration should be given to the possibility that a nonfunctioning pituitary adenoma (pseudo-prolactinoma) is present, the hyperprolactinemia resulting from deprivation of some lactotrophs of dopaminergic inhibition (3). However, a laboratory artifact may lead to a wrong differential diagnosis between macroprolactinomas and pseudoprolactinomas. When serum prolactin is evaluated by two-site immunometric assays, large amounts of prolactin saturate both the capture and the signal antibodies, impairing their binding, causing serum prolactin to be underestimated (the so-called “high-dose hook effect”). Therefore, patients bearing macroprolactinomas with extremely high serum prolactin levels (generally >1,000 ng/ml [>180,000 mU/L]) may present falsely low levels, e.g., 30-120 ng/ml (600-2,400 mU/L) range, causing the patient to be misdiagnosed as harboring a nonfunctioning pituitary adenoma. In order to avoid unnecessary surgery (treatment of choice for nonfunctioning tumors), prolactin assays with serum dilution are recommended in patients with macroadenomas who may harbor a prolactinomas (19). Recent assays do not present hook effect at  PRL concentrations as  high as 295,000 mIU/L (around 14,750 ng/mL) (20).

 

Another condition that interferes in the parallelism of serum PRL concentrations and prolactinoma dimensions is cystic prolactinomas, defined if 45% of lesion is the predominantly cystic sellar lesions (>50% of the volume being cystic) (21). In these lesions, serum prolactin levels are lower, but usually greater than 94 ng/mL. Differential diagnosis is important to determine the correct therapeutic intervention and includes Rathke’s cleft cysts, non-prolactin secreting cystic adenomas, craniopharyngiomas, and arachnoid cysts (22).

 

Another laboratory pitfall concerns the presence of high serum prolactin levels in subjects with few or no symptoms related to prolactin excess. Human prolactin circulates as monomeric prolactin and as larger forms, which are indistinguishable by routine assays. Monomeric prolactin is the most common form, but serum prolactin can be elevated due to the presence of aggregates with low biological activity, such as big-big prolactin, leading to so-called macroprolactinemia. The presence of molecular aggregates with low biological activity, macroprolactin, should be suspected when high serum prolactin levels are detected in patients without or with few signs and symptoms related to hyperprolactinemia. Precipitation with polyethylene glycol (PEG) is an excellent screening method. Chromatography confirms the presence of macroprolactin but is an expensive and time-consuming method; it is performed only when PEG precipitation results are inconclusive. Macroprolactinemia is a common finding, some reporting it as frequently as 8 to 42% of all cases; other centers find that it is extremely rare. Big-big prolactin biological activity is still controversial in the literature (23). Studies in vitro with rat Nb2 cell bioassays show either the presence or the absence of biological activity. A recent study using a human prolactin receptor-mediated assay compared with rat Nb2 cell assay showed that the activity displayed by macroprolactin toward the rat receptor may be inappropriate because it is not observed in the human prolactin receptor-mediated assay, consistent with the apparent absence of bioactivity in vivo (24). Most patients with macroprolactinemia do not manifest clinical features related to hyperprolactinemia, and do not need any treatment. Therefore, in order to avoid unnecessary medical or even surgical procedures, macroprolactin screening is important to consider when clinical features and serum prolactin assay results are not consonant with one another. Moreover, standardization of monomeric prolactin levels after PEG precipitation is crucial to evaluate conditions that could be associated with macroprolactinemia, as prolactinomas. Therefore, monomeric prolactin levels point to real hyperprolactinemia, even in the presence of macroprolactinemia (25).

 

Enlargement of the pituitary fossa on a skull X-ray may represent the expansion of the fossa by the macroadenoma, but care should be exercised to exclude the possibility of cisternal herniation (a partially empty fossa) as a cause for the enlargement. CT and MRI scans are useful and will also demonstrate any hypothalamic-pituitary pathologies, including solid and cystic lesions (26).   

 

CHANGES IN THE BREAST DUE TO PROLACTIN

 

A woman with amenorrhea due to hyperprolactinemia does not develop the breast atrophy seen in postmenopausal women or women with amenorrhea who are gonadotropin-deficient or have primary ovarian failure. On examination, the breast and areola are well developed and the Montgomery tubercles are hyperplastic. If the breast is correctly examined, first by expressing it from the periphery towards the areola to empty milk ducts, followed by squeezing and lifting the areola (rather than the nipple itself) to empty the milk sinuses, galactorrhea can usually be found.

 

In patients with extremely high prolactin levels and hypogonadism, galactorrhea may not be found, as minimum estrogen levels are necessary for this physical sign to occur. In male patients with hyperprolactinemia, there is usually no gynecomastia, but milk may be expressed from an entirely normal-sized male breast. The incidence of galactorrhea in men with hyperprolactinemia is low, less than 30% (i.e., it is much less common than in women). Nevertheless, the presence of galactorrhea in a man with a pituitary mass is an important clinical clue to the presence of hyperprolactinemia and possible prolactinomas (3).

 

HYPERPROLACTINEMIC HYPOGONADISM

 

The pathogenesis of the hypogonadal state in hyperprolactinemia is poorly understood. Results from an animal model study suggest that hyperprolactinemia inhibits gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) pulsatility by reducing kisspeptin input, considered the major controlling point of reproduction (27).  Moreover, kisspeptin administration restored hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian in two hyperprolactinemic women (28).

 

In men, testosterone levels are usually low but can occasionally be normal, while in women, a hypoestrogenic state may occur, with loss of ovulation. The clinical features in hyperprolactinemic women, however, differ from those in the postmenopausal state since breast atrophy is absent and gonadotropin levels are not elevated.

 

Suppression of Gonadal Function in Hyperprolactinemia

 

In addition to GnRH inhibition, via kisspeptin,  suppression of gonadotropin secretion through inhibition of positive estrogen feedback on luteinizing hormone (LH) secretion in women (29), an increase in adrenal androgen secretion (30), and  blockade of the effects of gonadotropins at the gonadal level contribute to suppression of gonadal function in hyperprolactinemia (31,32) . Reduction in the normal LH pulsatility, essential for normal gonadal function, also occurs. Prolactin may interfere with LH and FSH action at the gonad, blocking progesterone synthesis, and may stimulate adrenal androgen secretion (29-32).

 

IMAGING OF THE PITUITARY

 

The anatomy of the pituitary is optimally assessed by contrast-enhanced MRI. MRI allows imaging of the optic chiasm, the cavernous sinuses, the pituitary (both the normal gland and tumors), and its stalk. In addition, aneurysms of the carotid are immediately obvious. Thus, MRI allows accurate measurement of the size of the pituitary and of any tumor and its relationship to the optic chiasm and cavernous sinuses. Cisternal herniation is also readily seen. If MRI is not available, CT scanning is also helpful but the resolution is less good and it is less satisfactory for delineating the relationship of the diaphragm sellae with the optic chiasm. There is little place for routine skull X-ray other than for delineating bony structures (26). For additional information see the chapter on the radiology of the pituitary.

 

TREATMENT OF HYPERPROLACTINEMIA

 

Therapeutic strategy must consider several aspects, such as the patient’s clinical presentation, the differences between microadenomas and macroadenomas concerning their natural history, the desire for pregnancy, and the patient’s treatment preference, if applicable. Medical treatment with dopamine agonist (DA) drugs is currently the gold standard approach both for microprolactinomas and macroprolactinomas. Pituitary surgery, usually by the transsphenoidal approach is generally reserved for prolactinomas resistant to DA drugs. For microadenomas, the results in the hands of most experienced surgeons are similar, with about 80% having serum prolactin normalization. However, approximately 25% develop recurrence of hyperprolactinemia by five years after surgery even with the most experienced transsphenoidal surgeons. Surgical results in macroprolactinomas are much poorer, mainly in big and/or invasive tumors. Radiotherapy for prolactinomas generally brings poor results, especially regarding normoprolactinemia restoration, and is currently reserved only for macroadenomas refractory both to medical and surgical treatment (3).

 

Dopamine Agonist Drug Therapy

 

The first DA ergot compound to be used in clinical practice was bromocriptine, a peptide ergot. It was introduced in the early 1970s in Europe and thus there is more than 40 years of experience of the use of such compounds in the treatment of hyperprolactinemia. Bromocriptine has the advantage of having a long duration of action compared to dopamine itself or oral compounds such a levo-dopa (33).

 

Bromocriptine has a similar mode of action to dopamine in stimulating dopamine receptors on the prolactin-secreting pituitary cells – D2 receptors. Stimulation of these receptors leads to inhibition of both prolactin secretion and synthesis. Figure 1 illustrates a successful case of prolactinoma treatment with bromocriptine. Subsequently a variety of other compounds have been developed which are useful additions. These include quinagolide and cabergoline (3).

Figure 1. A 34-year-old patient with amenorrhea and hyperprolactinemia (PRL 1630 ng/ml) had a sella CT imaging depicting a pituitary mass on the left (A). Bromocriptine was introduced and after 30 days on 7.5 mg a day, PRL dropped to 32 ng/mL with menses restoration. A repeat CT demonstrated a decrease in tumor size (B).

Cabergoline has an extremely long biological half-life and thus, generally only needs to be administered either once or twice per week, with a weekly dose of 0.5 to 2.0 mg. Doses higher than 2 mg per week may be used in refractory cases. In addition to its long biological half-life, cabergoline is generally better tolerated than bromocriptine, increasing the patient’s adherence. Therefore, cabergoline is currently considered the first-choice drug for the treatment of prolactinomas, except for patients wishing pregnancy in the short-term (see below). In a study comparing bromocriptine (2.5 to 5.0 mg twice daily) to cabergoline (0.5 to 1.0 mg twice weekly) in 459 hyperprolactinemic women with amenorrhea, stable normoprolactinemia was achieved in 83% of patients on cabergoline and in 59% patients on bromocriptine. Ovulatory cycles or pregnancy occurred in 72% of cases on cabergoline and in 52% of cases on bromocriptine. Drug withdrawal due to adverse effects was reported in 3% of patients on cabergoline and in 12% of patients on bromocriptine. Regarding tumor size, a decrease in at least 50% was obtained in 64% of patients on bromocriptine and in 93% of patients on cabergoline (as demonstrated in Figure 2). This important beneficial effect of DA treatment can rapidly relieve mass effects symptoms such as visual impairment, without the need of surgical decompression (34).

Figure 2. A 32 yrs-old female patient with hyperprolactinemia (PRL 80 ng/mL), irregular menses and galactorrhea had a sellar MR showing a pituitary lesion of 0.8 cm on maximal diameter (A). After cabergoline introduction (0.5 mg/week), PRL levels normalized, paralleled with menses restoration and remission of galactorrhea. Tumoral dimensions reduction are shown: tumoral maximal diameter of 0.6 cm after two years of treatment (B) and no lesion visualization after seven years on cabergoline (C).

Surgical therapy of large prolactin-secreting pituitary tumors is unsatisfactory since it is capable of normalizing serum prolactin levels or gonadal function in fewer than 20% of patients, particularly those with high prolactin levels, so the problem should be solved by another therapeutic approach.

 

SIDE EFFECTS

 

Side effects of DA therapy usually occur at the start of treatment and frequently disappear with continued therapy. If treatment is started with full doses or increased too quickly, dizziness, nausea, and postural hypotension may occur. To avoid such effects, DA must always be taken during a meal. Administration should be started at night, with a snack, when the patient retires to bed. Doses can be gradually increased afterwards.

 

Cabergoline and pergolide were associated with a higher risk of cardiac valvopathy in patients with Parkinson´s disease. These DA also have an agonist effect on serotonin receptor 5HT2B, present in fibroblast of cardiac valves and chordae tendineae. Fibroblast’s proliferation occurs after this receptor activation, leading to valve insufficiency, especially of tricuspid and pulmonary valves. This proposed mechanism was already described in carcinoid syndrome. Nevertheless, mean cabergoline dose for Parkinson patients is 3 mg a day, much higher than the usual dose for hyperprolactinemia.  Stiles et al in 2018 published a meta-analysis including 836 cabergoline-treated hyperprolactinemic patients and 1388 healthy controls from 13 published studies and there was an increase in tricuspid regurgitation of any degree (35). Although moderate and severe tricuspid regurgitation was heavily influenced by data from one center (36), data from this meta-analysis could not rule out an effect on cardiac valvular dysfunction of cabergoline used at “endocrine” dosages to treat hyperprolactinemia. British Society of Echocardiography, the British Heart Valve Society and the Society for Endocrinology recommend that a standard transthoracic echocardiogram should be performed before a patient starts DA therapy for hyperprolactinemia, repeating this exam at 5 years after starting cabergoline in patients taking a total weekly dose less than or equal to 2 mg, or annually if the dose is greater than 2 mg a week(37).

 

Quinagolide is the only non-ergot derived DA and is only available in Europe, while pergolide has now been withdrawn.

 

Recently, impulse control disorders (ICD) have been associated with DA treatment, due to the dopamine receptor type 3. There are some case reports of patients harboring prolactinomas who presented ICD during DA treatment, with different doses and length of time and an active approach to screen psychiatry disorders before and during DA treatment is recommended (38). In five series of cases, summing up 543 patients with prolactinoma, ICD frequency varied from 8 to 61%, with hypersexuality being the most common ICD and associated with male gender (39).  DA withdrawal led to an improvement of psychiatric symptoms. Patients must be evaluated by psychiatry and DA treatment should be reevaluated on an individualized basis (40).

 

CAN A DOPAMINE AGONIST DRUG BE WITHDRAWN WITHOUT RECURRENCE?    

 

One of the drawbacks of medical treatment of prolactinomas is the need for long-term therapy in the majority of the cases. As a matter of fact, treatment with bromocriptine and other DA drugs generally is considered as “symptomatic”, since DA discontinuation often leads to recurrence of hyperprolactinemia and to tumor regrowth in most patients at least after short-term use.

 

Nevertheless, remission and normoprolactinemia after DA withdrawal can occur, especially after long-term treatment. Concerning long-term therapy with bromocriptine, a  retrospective study showed that 25.8% of 62 patients with microprolactinomas and 15.9% of 69 patients with macroprolactinomas treated with bromocriptine for a median time of 47 months had persistent normoprolactinemic after a median time of 44 months after drug withdrawal (41). Another study encompassed a large cohort of hyperprolactinemic patients on cabergoline. The drug was discontinued in patients who attained normoprolactinemia, with at least 50% of tumor reduction or disappearance on image, with at least 2 years of follow-up after cabergoline withdrawal. Serum prolactin remained normal in 76%, 70% and 64% of patients with “idiopathic” hyperprolactinemia, microprolactinomas, and macroprolactinomas, respectively (42). This great discrepancy between results with bromocriptine and cabergoline was not confirmed by a meta-analysis, including 743 patients from nineteen studies: the pooled proportion of patients with remission was 21%. Stratifying those results, remission was obtained in 32% for idiopathic hyperprolactinemia, 21% for micro, and 16% for macroprolactinomas. The probability of success was higher when DA treatment lasted at least two years. A trend of cabergoline superiority over bromocriptine was observed albeit with no statistical significance (43). Hu et al performed a meta-analysis about prolactinoma remission, including 637 patients (492 micro and 123 macroprolactinomas treated with CAB, and found the pooled proportion of patients with recurrence of 65 % in a random effects model. Patients who received the lowest CAB dose and presented a significant reduction in tumor size before withdrawal were more likely to achieve the best success (44). More recently, a third meta-analysis included 1106 patients, 727 harboring microprolactinoma and 306 macroprolactinoma, treated with BRC or CAB. The overall success rate after DA withdrawal reached 36.6% (95% CI 29.4–44.2%).  Better remission rate was related to CAB treatment, especially in patients with a duration of treatment longer than two years, to low-dose CAB maintenance, and to a significant reduction in tumor size before withdrawal. (45)

 A second attempt to DA withdrawal was also described, with lower rates of success (46).

 

Although the exact mechanism of prolactinomas remission is not completely understood, it could also be linked to the natural history of the disease. Periodic withdrawal of DA is recommended, especially in cases with normal serum PRL levels and tumor reduction. Prolactinoma remission is also described after pregnancy. It is suggested that estrogen-induced necrosis could lead to tumor size and PRL decrease after delivery (3).

 

PROLACTINOMAS RESISTANT TO DOPAMINE AGONISTS

 

About 15% of patients with prolactinomas are resistant to DA therapy. The main mechanism is reduction of D2R tumor expression (47,48), although D2R polymorphism (49,50) and filamin A (51) low expression could also be implied. If a patient has been responsive and then becomes unresponsive, a pituitary carcinoma should be ruled out. The approach to the resistant prolactinoma includes pituitary surgery, radiotherapy and drugs such as temozolomide (52)and pasireotide, which has been used in only a few reported cases (53). Pituitary surgery, usually by transsphenoidal approach, aims for complete tumor removal or at least a vast debulking, which may lead to serum prolactin normalization with DA reintroduction in partially resistant cases. Surgery is more effective in microadenomas and non-invasive macroadenomas. In a meta-analysis, a surgical remission rate of 74.7% in micro and 34% in macroadenomas was shown. Nevertheless, the recurrence rate was 18% and 23% in micro and macroadenomas, respectively, leading to an even lower long-term remission rate (54,55). Radiotherapy is indicated in aggressive cases not controlled by surgery or drugs (54,56). The alkylating agent temozolomide has efficacy in aggressive pituitary adenomas and carcinomas, mainly the prolactin secreting ones. Complete and partial response was obtained in 56% of 32 cases reviewed in the literature (52). Figure 3 illustrates sellar MR of a young man with an invasive/aggressive macroprolactinoma, resistant do dopamine agonist, multiple surgeries and radiotherapy.

Figure 3. 26 yrs-old man complaining of visual disturbance was submitted to a sellar MRI (A): sellar mass with 5 cm in the maximal diameter with supra, infra and left parasellar invasion. Serum PRL levels were above 1000 ng/mL. After one year on cabergoline, 0.5 mg/day, there was no tumor reduction and PRL levels were around 800 ng/mL. He was then submitted to transsphenoidal surgery and radiotherapy in another medical service. Sellar MRI (B) two months after the surgery showed a pituitary mass with 3.1 cm in the maximal diameter. Despite chiasmal decompression, visual dysfunction was not reversed and, during his follow-up, anterior pituitary function was lost. PRL levels on cabergoline, 1.5 mg/week, were 250 ng/ml. After two more years, sellar MRI depicted a lesion of 2.9 cm. in the maximal diameter (C). There was a progressive rise of PRL levels despite increased cabergoline doses (0.5 mg/d) and another sellar MRI (D), after two years, depicted a lesion of 3.1 cm in the maximal diameter. Another surgery was indicated.

Fertility in Women

 

The efficacy of hyperprolactinemia/prolactinoma´s treatment allow fertility and pregnancy in many women. There are, however, several important considerations that must be recognized by both the physician and patient. It includes tumor growth risk and possible teratogenic sequelae of fetal exposure to bromocriptine and other drugs (57).

 

There is little doubt that patients with pituitary tumors run a small, but significant, risk of expansion of the tumor during pregnancy. It is very difficult, however, to assess the absolute risk. With microadenomas, which did not undergo previous surgery or radiotherapy, the incidence seems to be 2.5%. In patients with macroadenomas not operated on or irradiated, the incidence is higher, 18.1% (58,59). However, the risk of complications may be lower in women previously operated or irradiated. This risk is unrelated to bromocriptine therapy prior to pregnancy but may occur when fertility is induced with other drugs, including exogenous gonadotropins and clomiphene, and even when no drug therapy has been employed in patients with pre-existing pituitary adenomas.

 

In practice, the problem of pregnancy is not great, since the vast majority of women who present with hyperprolactinemia only have microadenomas. To avoid major problems, it is extremely important that patients undergo careful endocrine, neuroradiologic, and neuro-ophthalmologic evaluation prior to treatment. If there is no suprasellar extension, and if the patient harbors only a microadenoma, then the risk of clinically significant swelling of the pituitary is extremely small; it is therefore suggested that the patient be evaluated clinically in every trimester throughout pregnancy, with no routine serum prolactin assessment. If the patient has a macroadenoma and suprasellar extension, transsphenoidal decompression can be considered, mainly for resistant cases. However, in those patients with a good response to DA in terms of prolactin normalization and tumor shrinkage within sellar boundaries, at least one year before pregnancy, the drug can be withdrawn and reintroduced if tumor re-growth is observed. If such an approach fails, pituitary surgery or premature delivery, if feasible, would be indicated. Additionally, in the case of tumor apoplexy, high-dose dexamethasone may improve clinical symptoms and also may reduce the chances of fetal respiratory distress if premature delivery is needed (2,59).

 

In recent years, pregnancies have been described in patients using other DA such as quinagolide and cabergoline. Although there is no evidence of increased frequency of abortions or malformations in cabergoline-induced pregnancies, the drug’s long action, which persists up to three weeks after its withdrawal, associated with fewer (albeit increasing) data when compared to bromocriptine (around 1000 versus over 6,000 pregnancies), limit the confidence that it can be used for patients who wish to conceive or its use during pregnancy. In the United States, bromocriptine is the only FDA approved drug for inducing pregnancy in hyperprolactinemic women. Cabergoline’s label does not recommend use during pregnancy. Nevertheless, experience of pregnancy induced by cabergoline is accumulating. Incidence of premature delivery, multiple births, and malformations is not different from women who used bromocriptine or from the general population (60). However, the issue of spontaneous abortion is still under debate (60,61). Quinagolide use was related to abortions and malformations (58).

 

Fertility in Men

 

Hyperprolactinemic men exhibit reduced quality of seminal fluid, including the total sperm count, the sperm kinetic index, and sperm nuclear DNA integrity. Cabergoline significantly increased those indexes, mainly after 12 months of treatment (62).

 

Interestingly enough, it was shown that clomiphene citrate administration can increase testosterone levels in men, even when serum prolactin levels were elevated. Fertility restoration is an additional advantage of this approach, compared to testosterone replacement (63).

 

Conclusion

 

Dopamine-agonist therapy for hyperprolactinemia leads to a reversal of the hyperprolactinemic hypogonadal state without risk of the development of pituitary insufficiency, thus allowing pregnancy in former infertile patients. Dopamine-agonist therapy is effective not only in patients with microadenomas but also in the majority of patients with large prolactin-secreting tumors in reducing tumor size. Moreover, emerging evidences point to the possibility of drug withdrawal after long-term treatment. Surgery, radiotherapy and antiblastic drugs, as temozolomide, should be reserved for resistant/aggressive cases.

 

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Aggressive Pituitary Tumors and Pituitary Carcinomas

ABSTRACT  

Aggressive pituitary tumors (APT) refer to pituitary adenomas exhibiting radiological invasiveness and an unusually rapid tumor growth rate, or clinically relevant tumor growth despite optimal standard treatments, with abandonment of the previous term ‘atypical pituitary adenoma’. Pituitary carcinomas (PC) are defined by non-contiguous craniospinal or distant metastasis. Whilst PC is exceedingly rare, comprising only 0.1-0.4% of all pituitary neoplasms, APT may account for up to 15% of all pituitary neoplasms, depending on the definition used. Typically evolving from a known pituitary macroadenomas, APT/PC is most commonly diagnosed in the fifth decade of life with corticotroph and lactotroph neoplasms predominating. Diagnosis relies on MRI, hormonal studies, and histological assessment including proliferative markers and immunohistochemistry for pituitary hormones and, most recently, transcription factors. Structural and molecular mechanisms have been proposed in the pathogenesis of APT/PC, although there appears to be no contribution from known familial pituitary tumor syndrome genes such as MEN1. Treatment is multimodal, ideally delivered by an expert team with a high-volume caseload. Surgical resection may be performed with the aim of either gross total resection or tumor debulking. Radiotherapy may be administered either as fractionated external beam radiation or stereotactic radiosurgery. Standard pituitary medical therapies such as somatostatin analogues have limited efficacy in APT/PC, whereas temozolomide yields a clear survival benefit. Evidence is emerging for the use of peptide receptor radionuclide therapy, tyrosine kinase inhibitors, VEGF inhibitors, and immunotherapy. Avenues for further research in APT/PC include molecular biomarkers, nuclear imaging, establishment of an international register, and routine pituitary tumor biobanking.

INTRODUCTION AND DEFINITIONS

Pituitary adenomas (PA) are benign, typically slow-growing neoplasms originating from cells of the adenohypophysis (1). The 2018 European Society of Endocrinology (ESE) guidelines on APT/PC (2) define aggressive pituitary tumors (APT) as PAs that demonstrate radiological invasiveness and an unusually rapid tumor growth rate, or clinically relevant tumor growth despite optimal standard treatments in the form of surgery, radiotherapy, and conventional medical therapies (2). In the absence of reliable histopathological predictors of tumor behavior (2), APTs lack specific diagnostic criteria and are instead best considered a clinical composite of various pituitary neoplasms exhibiting clinically aggressive behavior.

Efforts should be made to be as objective as possible in diagnosing APTs (2). As a follow-up to the ESE guidelines, Raverot and colleagues note the lack of supporting data but draw upon their local experience to provide some guidance in the assessment of tumor growth. The authors outline that clinically relevant growth may be evidenced by an increase in maximum tumor diameter by more than 20% or tumor growth that produces new signs or symptoms or where such signs and symptoms are predicted based on tumor location. The authors define rapid tumor growth as a 20% increase in less than 6 months, or less than 12 months if only annual MRIs are available (3). In assessing tumor refractoriness to treatment, postoperative recurrences should only be considered to be APTs when surgery was performed by an expert neurosurgeon with a high-volume caseload (2). Whether resection was intentionally limited because of reduced surgical fitness may also need to be considered. Intrinsic tumor resistance to medical therapy should be distinguished from inadequate dosing or poor compliance as well as drug toxicity, which is increasingly recognized in the setting of dopamine agonist (DA) treated prolactinomas (4). Progression or recurrence after radiotherapy is more compelling than resistance to only surgical and medical therapy (5-7).

APT is distinct from the term ‘atypical pituitary adenoma’, which was defined by the earlier 2004 World Health Organization (WHO) classification of endocrine tumors as PAs with a Ki-67 labelling index >3%, an elevated mitotic index, and extensive p53 nuclear immunostaining (8). The Ki-67 labelling index is assessed by MIB-1 immunohistochemistry (IHC). As Ki-67 is a nuclear protein with suggested roles in ribosomal RNA transcription and chromosome separation (9), MIB-1 stains cells in the S (DNA synthesis) phase of the cell cycle and thereby represents the rate of cellular proliferation (1). Immunopositivity for p53 reflects nuclear accumulation of p53 (9). In other tumors, p53 immunostaining is related to TP53 mutations that prolong the half-life of p53 and result in nuclear accumulation, although TP53 mutations are rare in p53-immunopositive pituitary neoplasms (10). A threshold of >2 mitoses per 10 HPF was also included in the 2004 WHO classification as this portends a greater risk of recurrence (2). The intent of the 2004 WHO framework was to identify more aggressive tumors warranting more intensive management and follow-up. However, the term ‘atypical pituitary adenoma’ was omitted in the 2017 WHO classification of endocrine tumors as these criteria have not been clinically validated (2, 11, 12). Although some data show correlations between the 2004 WHO criteria and tumor behavior, the criteria do not consistently and independently predict tumor behavior in individual patients, with one study showing no difference in recurrence risk and disease-free survival in atypical PAs versus other PAs (13).

Although most APTs are invasive (14, 15), invasiveness alone is insufficient to define APTs (2), partly because invasion is often subjective with variability between radiological, operative, and histological assessments (11). Moreover, highly invasive prolactinomas may respond well to DA therapy rather than following an aggressive clinical course. However, invasiveness is still considered a key component of aggressiveness. This was demonstrated by Trouillas et al in their 8-year follow-up study classifying tumors into 5 tiers: grade 1a, non-invasive and non-proliferative; 1b, non-invasive but proliferative; 2a, invasive but non-proliferative; 2b, invasive and proliferative; and 3, metastatic (15). Proliferation was defined as at least two of: Ki-67 ≥3%; p53 staining with >10 strongly positive nuclei/10 HPF; or mitotic count >2/10 HPF. Invasion was based on radiological or histological findings. Trouillas et alshowed that, compared to non-invasive and non-proliferative PAs (grade 1a), the relative risk of persistent disease was 3.1 for non-invasive but proliferative PAs (grade 1b) versus 8.0 for invasive but non-proliferative PAs (grade 2a) (15). The impact of invasiveness and proliferation on tumor aggression was synergistic. Invasive and proliferative PAs (grade 2b) carried a 25-fold higher risk of persistent disease and a 12-fold higher risk of tumor progression compared to non-invasive and non-proliferative PAs (15). Progression-free survival is more influenced by the effect of invasiveness than that of proliferation (16), with a relatively greater prognostic effect from invasiveness in lactotroph and corticotroph PAs than other subtypes (15).  

At the extreme end of the spectrum, pituitary carcinoma (PC) is defined by non-contiguous craniospinal or distant metastasis. It should be noted that there are no histopathological features that distinguish carcinomas from aggressive adenomas without metastasis. PC remains a distinct category in the 2017 WHO classification (8).

EPIDEMIOLOGY 

Because of the lack of definitive diagnostic criteria, the prevalence of APT is unclear (2). A study incorporating radiological and histological assessments of aggressiveness found ‘grade 2b’ (invasive and proliferative) tumors in 15% of patients, although this was not a consecutive series with many patients excluded due to insufficient data and others selected to balance patients with and without persistent disease (15). Aggressiveness was also not invariable in grade 2b tumors (17). Tumor recurrence and persistence, which are generally representative of APT, are more frequently seen in younger rather than older adults (15, 18, 19). PAs are overall uncommon in children but tend to be more aggressive in the pediatric setting, with 26% of prolactinomas demonstrating DA resistance (20). Some (18) but not all data (16, 19) show greater risks of recurrence and progression with larger PAs. As highlighted in Table 1, APT/PC development is more likely in certain tumor subtypes, namely, silent corticotroph PA, Crooke’s cell PA, plurihormonal PIT-1 positive PA (formerly ‘silent subtype 3 PA’), sparsely-granulated somatotroph PA, and lactotroph macroadenomas in men (11, 21-25).

Table 1. PA Subtypes with Greater Tendency for APT/PC Development (11, 12)

PA subtype

Cell lineage

Transcription factor

Hormone

Cytokeratin pattern

Prevalence of APT/PC

Crooke’s cell PA

Corticotroph

T-PIT

ACTH

Ring-like (perinuclear hyaline bodies)

Recurrence in 60%, multiple recurrence in 24%, APT/PC-related mortality in 12% (23)

Silent corticotroph PA

Corticotroph

T-PIT

ACTH

Diffuse

Multiple recurrences in 57% of recurrent silent corticotroph PA vs. 3% in other non-functioning PA (P=0.001) (22)

Plurihormonal PIT-1 positive PA (previously silent subtype 3 PA)

Acidophilic

PIT-1

GH, PRL, beta-TSH +/- alpha-subunit

Nil

Postoperative residual in 65% with tumor progression in 53% of these patients (21); greater propensity for invasion and recurrence (11)

Sparsely granulated somatotroph PA

Acidophilic

PIT-1

GH +/- PRL

Dot-like (fibrous bodies)

Higher frequency of suprasellar extension/cavernous sinus invasion, larger tumors and smaller octreotide suppression test response in sparsely granulated vs. densely granulated tumors (24)

Lactotroph macroadenoma in men

Acidophilic

PIT-1

ER-alpha

PRL (+GH in acidophilic stem cell subtype)

Nil (or fibrous bodies in acidophilic stem cell subtype)

Complete DA resistance in 8% men vs. 4% women (25); 57% of DA-resistant lactotroph PAs occur in men (25)

 

PC is rare, comprising only 0.1-0.4% of pituitary neoplasms (14, 26, 27). The incidence of PC is 4/1,000,000 person-years (28). These figures may, however, be underestimated, as up to 75% of historical PC diagnoses were only made at autopsy (29). PC typically presents in the fourth to sixth decades of life, with a mean age at diagnosis of 44 years (1, 30), but rare pediatric cases have been reported (31, 32). Whereas clinically-silent, hormone-staining tumors only account for 7% of all pituitary neoplasms (26), functioning tumors that have evolved from such tumors comprise 25% of APT/PC  (33). The commonest PC subtypes are corticotroph and lactotroph neoplasms (14, 30). In a recent review of 72 published PC cases by Yoo et al, hormone IHC was positive for ACTH in 35%, PRL in 24%, GH in 14%, TSH in 6%, FSH in 7% and LH in 4%, and 15% were null cell (34). This rate of null cell PC was lower than other reports of 30% (14, 30), possibly relating to the limited availability of prolactin IHC in historical investigations (35). Compared to pure PA series, lactotroph and corticotroph-derived neoplasms are overrepresented whilst somatotroph and null cell neoplasms are underrepresented in PC (26, 33).

The overall epidemiology of APT/PC was recently outlined in an ESE survey of clinicians treating APT/PC patients, where APT was defined by the responding clinician. The survey cohort comprised 165 patients (40 PC, 125 APT), forming the largest APT/PC cohort to date. APT and PC cases were similar in age at diagnosis (43 vs. 45 yr), predominant cell subtypes (corticotroph in 45% vs. 48%, lactotroph in 20% vs. 38%), and functional status (clinically functioning in 58% vs. 63%), but initially silent and later functioning tumors were overrepresented in PC (7% vs. 20%) (33). Both APT and PC cases demonstrated a male predilection (65% vs. 63%) (33), in agreement with Yoo et al (34), but in conflict with other data showing a slight female predominance (27, 36) or no gender predilection (14, 30).

GENETICS

Little is known about germline and somatic genetic contributors to APT/PC formation. Clinically relevant germline variants in pituitary tumorigenesis genes are found in up to 20% of PA patients who are young and/or have other personal or family history of endocrine neoplasia (37). By contrast, the rate of germline mutations specifically in the APT/PC setting is yet to be determined, although germline AIP and SDHx mutations are typically associated with more aggressive tumor behavior (9, 37). PC has been reported in patients with germline mutations, including SDHB(38), MSH2 (39), and MEN1 (40, 41). However, PC appears to be no more common in patients with germline MEN1mutations than in patients with sporadic PAs (42). To the best of our knowledge, there have been no reports of PC in patients with AIP-associated familial isolated pituitary adenoma syndrome, multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome type 4 due to CDKN1B mutations, Carney’s complex due to PRKAR1A mutations, McCune-Albright syndrome due to GNAS mosaicism, or X-linked acrogigantism due to Xq26.3 microduplications involving GPR101.

A novel somatic role for the ATRX gene in APT/PC pathogenesis was shown in a recent study of 30 APTs and 18 PCs which revealed loss of ATRX immunolabelling and somatic inactivating ATRX variants in 9/48 cases (19%) (43). ATRX loss was especially prevalent in PCs compared to APTs, and in corticotroph neoplasms compared to other cell lineages (43).

TP53 has also been raised as a somatic contributor to APT/PC pathogenesis. Uzilov et al showed correlations between aggressive corticotroph tumours and somatic TP53 variants in a sample of 27 corticotrophinomas that was enriched for tumors at risk for aggressive behavior (44). This study also demonstrated an association between invasiveness, macroadenomas, and somatic aneuploidy independent of TP53 status (44). However, a separate study of 134 pituitary neoplasms found no association between somatic chromosomal alterations and aggressiveness (45).

Somatic gain-of-function variants in the USP8 gene have been implicated in Cushing’s disease; however, the contribution of USP8 to corticotroph APT/PC is unclear. Early data showed USP8-mutated corticotrophinomas to be smaller with lower plasma ACTH levels (46), suggesting a milder phenotype. By contrast, subsequent data have shown higher postoperative urinary free cortisol levels in patients with USP8-mutated corticotrophinomas compared to wild-type corticotrophinomas, possibly serving as a harbinger for poorer long-term outcomes in these patients (47). Uzilov et al found mixed results regarding the aggressiveness of USP8-mutated tumors, with microadenomas in 4/5 USP8-mutated tumors but a trend towards a higher number of trans-sphenoidal operations in USP8-mutated versus USP8-wild-type tumors (44).

CLINICAL PRESENTATION

APT/PC nearly always evolve from pituitary macroadenomas (maximal tumor diameter ≥1cm) (14), but, conversely, many macroadenomas and even giant prolactinomas (≥4cm) respond well to standard treatments and never exhibit aggressiveness (2). Progression of a microadenoma (<1cm) to PC is exceedingly rare (48, 49). The time from primary diagnosis with a pituitary neoplasm to presentation with APT/PC is highly variable (2). In APT, aggressiveness can be apparent from diagnosis, or take months to more than a decade to develop (2, 50). The course of APTs may be punctuated by periods of radiological and hormonal quiescence (51). One study showed that APTs are more likely to occur following incomplete surgical resection at an odds ratio of 6.3 (18), but another study showed no relationship between APTs and the primary surgical outcome (16). These conflicting results partly reflect the difficulty in distinguishing residual tumor from normal tissue and postoperative changes (18). In PC, the mean latency from primary diagnosis is 5-9 years, but can range from months to 43 years (1, 6, 14, 30, 34, 36, 52-54).

 

Some symptoms, such as headache and visual field loss, overlap between PA and APT/PC, whilst cranial nerve palsies and obstructive hydrocephalus are more suspicious for APT/PC (36). Patients with Nelson’s syndrome, which is an inherently aggressive neoplasm, often present with mass effects including cranial neuropathies from the growing primary tumor as well as hyperpigmentation from proopiomelanocortin excess; distant metastasis may also occur (55). As in PA, diabetes insipidus is rare in APT/PC (56), and should raise suspicion for sella metastasis from a non-pituitary malignancy (1). Important differential diagnoses are breast and lung carcinomas, which are the commonest primary neoplasms to metastasize to the sella (52). Small cell lung cancer can produce both ectopic ACTH syndrome and sella metastasis, which may be misdiagnosed as a corticotroph PC with distant metastasis (35). PC metastases may lead to other site-specific clinical features, such as hearing loss, ataxia, motor weakness, back pain, neck masses, and liver function derangement (1, 9).

 

Yoo et al showed the site of metastases to be craniospinal in 58%, systemic in 32%, and both craniospinal and systemic in 8% of PC cases (34). This is in contrast to an earlier series of 15 PC cases reported by Pernicone et alwhere metastasis was predominantly systemic (47%), compared to craniospinal metastases in 40% and both craniospinal and distant metastases in 13% (14). Common sites of metastasis include the brain (43%), spine (38%), liver (14%) cervical lymph nodes (11%) and bone (10%) (34). Within the CNS, metastases typically involve the cortex, cerebellum and cerebellopontine angle  (56). Dural metastases may occur and can be misdiagnosed as meningiomas (36). Rare metastatic sites include the orbit, endolymphatic sac, oropharynx, heart, pancreas, kidney, skin, ovary, myometrium and pelvic lymph nodes (1, 14, 34, 36).

 

PC subtype may influence the pattern of metastasis. In lactotroph PC compared to corticotroph PC, systemic metastases are relatively more common (71% vs. 57%), and the duration of pituitary neoplasm diagnosis to PC diagnosis is shorter (4.7 vs. 9.5 years). In patients with distant metastases, the commonest site is bone in lactotroph PC and liver in corticotroph PC (14).

 

EVALUATION

 

The principles of APT/PC assessment are outlined in the 2018 ESE guidelines (2). As in PA, the evaluation of patients with suspected or known APT/PC involves radiological, biochemical and histological investigations. Patients with APT should be followed indefinitely as recurrence and progression accumulate with time. In a study of recurrent non-functioning pituitary adenoma (NFPA), the prevalence of recurrent disease rose from 4.4% at 5 years to 10% at 10 years (6). Long-term follow-up also allows monitoring of late treatment-related complications such as radiation-induced hypopituitarism and secondary tumors, and the late development of PC which may occur decades following the initial diagnosis (2). Clinicians should be especially vigilant for metastases in patients with APTs (53), noting that metastasis often occurs insidiously and can involve various craniospinal and distant sites which may be mistakenly attributed to another primary neoplasm (2).

 

Radiological Assessment

 

The primary imaging modality in all pituitary neoplasms is MRI, ideally with thin (2-3 mm) T1- and T2-weighted slices before and after gadolinium in sagittal and coronal planes (2). T2 sequences are particularly helpful in acromegaly as T2 hyperintensity compared to normal pituitary or grey matter is often seen in sparsely granulated somatotroph PAs which tend to behave aggressively. T2 hyperintensity is also directly correlated with larger somatotroph tumors and blunted octreotide suppression test responses (57). This radiological clue is particularly helpful preoperatively, when the granulation pattern is unknown (57).

 

The Knosp criteria which grades the relationship between tumor and the cavernous portions of the internal carotid artery on MRI can be used to identify overall radiological invasion (3), noting, however, that the criteria were originally developed specifically to predict the intraoperative finding of cavernous sinus invasion (58). PAs are generally considered radiologically invasive if the Knosp grade on MRI is 3 or 4 as this correlates with surgically confirmed cavernous sinus invasion in 38% and 100% cases, respectively, compared to 1% for grade 1 and 10% for grade 2 tumors (59).

 

Serial MRI should be performed every 3-12 months as guided by previous growth rates, proximity to vital structures and timing of interventions (2). Current images should be compared against baseline and penultimate scans (1, 2). Although pituitary tumors are often irregularly shaped, comparison of the longest diameter in a 1D approach correlates well with 3D estimates (60). Pituitary tumor cases that may still benefit from volumetric analysis include multiloculated or cystic adenomas, small tumor remnants or recurrences, and multifocal and bony invasive adenomas (60). Growth rates should also take into account the PA subtype. In NFPA, volume doubling time is highly variable, ranging from 1 to 27 years, but tends to be stable for a given individual with an initially exponential growth pattern followed by deceleration of growth velocity (61). Deviation from this with unusually rapid growth rates are an important marker of APT (2). Rapid corticotrophinoma growth following bilateral adrenalectomy is a specific hallmark of Nelson’s syndrome, which precedes metastasis in over two-thirds of corticotroph PC cases (1).

 

Patients with APT and either discordant biochemical and radiological findings or site-specific symptoms should be screened for metastasis (2). In the absence of a formal staging system, patients with identified metastatic disease should undergo imaging by one or more modalities to define the extent of metastasis and to evaluate the possibility of a non-pituitary primary neoplasm (56). In patients with pituitary neoplasms and CNS symptoms, neck masses or back pain, pituitary MRI may be extended to include the whole brain and/or spine (1). CT imaging may be useful if bony involvement is suspected or in patients with contraindications to MRI (2). As PC is often hypermetabolic with somatostatin receptor (SSTR) expression including SSTR1, SSTR5 and SSTR2, nuclear imaging with 18FDG-PET and/or 68Ga-DOTATATE-PET may be valuable in delineating the overall extent of disease (53, 62). DOTATATE-PET and FDG-PET may produce discordant but useful findings. For example, the presence of uptake on FDG-PET but not on DOTATATE-PET may indicate more dedifferentiated disease. Discordant avidity may be used to guide the selection of peptide receptor radionuclide therapy (PRRT) versus chemotherapy (2, 62).  

 

Biochemical Assessment

 

Pituitary hormones should be measured every 3-12 months, as guided by tumor subtype, clinical features, and treatment interventions (2). This is imperative to identify secretory tumors responsive to medical therapies and hypopituitarism requiring hormone replacement (2). Hormone levels are also an invaluable tumor marker to guide treatment response in secretory tumors. Transition to APT/PC may be heralded by conversion of a silent PA to a clinically functioning tumor, loss of response to medical therapies, new or progressive hypopituitarism, or increasing hormonal excess despite radiological stability (1, 2, 9, 35). In particular, an initial response to DA therapy followed by ‘escape’ was documented by Pernicone et al in 4/7 (57%) lactotroph PCs (14). Decreased hormone synthesis, reflecting tumor dedifferentiation, may also be a sign of tumor progression with declining serum levels of TSH and alpha-subunit reported at the time of metastasis in a thyrotroph PC (63). Another case report described a primary FSH-staining PA followed 15 years later by metastatic disease that stained negative for all pituitary hormones (64). This notion of tumor dedifferentiation may account for the increased aggressiveness of silent corticotrophinomas compared to functioning corticotrophinomas (36).

 

Histological Assessment

 

ASSESSMENT OF PROLIFERATION

 

Despite abandonment of the 2004 WHO criteria for atypical PA and the lack of a pituitary neoplasm grading system in the 2017 WHO classification, histopathology may be incorporated with clinical features to predict the trajectory of pituitary neoplasms (1, 11, 12).

 

The 2018 ESE guidelines recommend performing IHC to evaluate pituitary hormones and the Ki-67 index, at a minimum, in all pituitary neoplasms, with the addition of mitotic count and p53 IHC when Ki-67 is ≥3%; however, it is ceded that the evidence basis for this is very low (2). The ESE guidelines suggest incorporating these histological markers in management decisions, such as the intensity of follow-up regimens and the use of adjuvant radiotherapy in patients with invasive and proliferative postoperative tumor remnants (2). The dominance of Ki-67 in the ESE guidelines reiterates the finding of a Ki-67 index ≥3% being the commonest histological marker of tumor aggressiveness in the recent ESE survey, with this threshold met in 81% of APT and 85% of PC, compared to p53 positivity in 73% APT and 78% PC and mitotic count >2/10 HPF in 63% APT and 90% PC (33). Ki-67 was also the only predictive marker for tumor aggressiveness in other studies comparing various histological and clinical markers (27, 65, 66). Ki-67 thresholds of ≥3% and >10% are considered by some experts to indicate APT and PC, respectively (2). However, this is based on limited studies with variable methodologies and a lack of robust long-term data (2). Ki-67 also overlaps between indolent PA, APT and PC. Ki-67 ranges from undetectable to 80% in PC (1, 33), and a Ki-67 ≥10% did not discriminate between APT and PC in the ESE survey (33). A mitotic index set at ≥2/10 HPF predicts a greater risk of recurrence (67), but there was again significant overlap between APT and PC in the ESE survey (33). Similarly, p53 immunopositivity, generally defined as >10 strongly positive nuclei per 10 HPF (2), is overrepresented in PC compared to PA, and incremental p53 staining has been observed in the progression from PA to PC (1), but p53 IHC may be negative in PC (68). Even the combination of all three histological markers of proliferation in the ESE survey did not reach statistical significance in differentiating APT versus PC (33). The unreliability of histological markers in predicting tumor behavior probably represents a combination of true biological variability between tumors given the observed variability in clinical features, as well as hampered histological assessment due to intratumoral heterogeneity, different fixation protocols, prior treatment effects, and antibody and interobserver variability (1, 56).

 

The European Pituitary Pathology Group recently proposed a detailed approach to the histopathological reporting of pituitary tumors (69). As in the ESE guidelines, this proposal recommends Ki-67 IHC in all pituitary tumors, but it also recommends assessing mitotic count (69). In regards to defining APTs, the European Pituitary Pathology Group endorsed the use of the 5-tier classification system developed by Trouillas et al that incorporates both histological/radiological invasion and measures of proliferation (15), on the basis of subsequent validation data supporting this system (16, 70, 71).

 

IHC for O(6)-methylguanine DNA methyltransferase (MGMT) should be considered in suspected or known APT/PC as low expression is another potential marker of aggressive behavior and is predictive of temozolomide (TMZ) response; however, these associations are not invariable and the decision to use TMZ should not rest on this result alone (33).

 

ASSESSMENT OF CELL LINEAGE

 

Histopathological evaluation is important in identifying the more aggressive subtypes of pituitary neoplasms (Table 1). Hormone IHC is critical in identifying silent corticotroph PAs and plurihormonal PIT-1 positive PA, whilst cytokeratin staining is used to define the dot-like fibrous bodies of sparsely granulated somatotroph PAs as well as patterns specific to Crooke’s cell and silent corticotroph PAs (1). Other histological features of sparsely granulated somatotroph PAs include poorly cohesive cells with sheet-like formation and nuclear polymorphism with weak and focal GH staining (24).

 

Although transcription factor IHC, as recommended in the 2017 WHO classification (12), may assist identification of aggressive pituitary neoplasm subtypes, it does not directly predict aggressiveness (2). Transcription factor IHC is considered most valuable in the differentiation of hormone immunonegative tumors (9). For example, an IHC study including 119 hormone-negative PAs found that over one-quarter of hormone-negative tumours were in fact silent corticotrophinomas based on positive T-PIT staining (72). IHC for T-PIT is attractive given the greater aggressiveness of corticotrophinomas (33), but the availability of reliable T-PIT antibodies has been a concern (9). Nonetheless, the addition of transcription factor IHC is an attempt to overcome the false negative, misleadingly weak or dubious results that may be encountered with hormone IHC (11). The clinical implications of a null cell adenoma that stains negative both for pituitary hormones and pituitary transcription factors (approx. 5% of hormone-negative PAs) are currently uncertain as previous literature has rarely defined transcription factor status (72).

 

Utrastructural analysis is not additive to the contemporary pathological assessment of pituitary neoplasms by morphology and IHC (11).

 

ASSESSMENT OF PITUITARY CARCINOMA

 

Like PAs, PCs appear microscopically as well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors. PCs may demonstrate hypercellularity, nuclear pleomorphism, necrosis, hemorrhage and invasion, with all such features overlapping with PAs (1). Neuronal metaplasia may rarely occur in PC (1).

 

It is not possible to distinguish PC from PA on histological, immunohistochemical or ultrastructural grounds (1), and there is poor correlation between the histological and clinical features of PC metastases (53). The primary aim in the histological assessment of PC is instead to confirm a pituitary origin of metastases. Biopsy of apparent PC metastases is particularly important where another primary malignancy could explain the metastases, thereby influencing prognosis and management. Tissue diagnosis may be achieved by surgical biopsy or fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy of accessible sites such as cervical lymph nodes, liver, lung or vertebrae (52, 53, 73). Histological diagnosis based on FNA specimens should be cautious, given its divergence from pituitary histological diagnoses which are virtually always made by craniotomy or trans-sphenoidal surgical resection (52). Key differential diagnoses based on similar cytological appearances include metastasis from renal cell carcinoma, plasmacytoma/multiple myeloma, lymphoma, medullary thyroid carcinoma, and other neuroendocrine tumors (52)(53). In PC, metastatic lesions should bear cytological resemblance to the primary pituitary tumor (52, 73), noting that proliferative markers, particularly Ki-67, are often higher in metastases (14, 36, 53).

 

Immunohistochemical stains for neuroendocrine markers such as chromogranin A and synaptophysin aid in the differentiation of PC from non-pituitary neoplasms (1). Hormone and pituitary-specific transcription factor IHC may also be helpful in suspected metastases from a pituitary neoplasm (73, 74). To ensure the appropriate use of these histological investigations, the reporting pathologist should be notified of the potential for metastasis from a pituitary neoplasm and aware of the frequent latency between PA onset and PC development. The small possibility of dual concurrent metastatic malignancies should be considered where there is variability in the clinical, radiological or histological features of neoplastic lesions (52).

 

Genetic Testing

 

As there are currently only weak associations between pituitary tumorigenesis genes and development of APT/PC, genetic testing for either germline or somatic mutations should not be performed purely on the basis of APT/PC development (2). Germline genetic testing should follow the usual indications as for non-aggressive PAs (2), including young onset and other personal or family history of related neoplasms (37).

 

PATHOGENESIS

 

As APTs represent a composite of different tumor subtypes, the contributing pathogenic mechanisms are varied. Tumor persistence, recurrence and progression after surgery at least partly relate to greater invasiveness, lowering the chance of gross total resection (16). Cell-specific feedback sensitivity is also important. Resistance to medical therapy in somatotroph APTs may relate to reduced SSTR2 expression (75). The relative indolence of somatotroph PAs with apparent insensitivity of somatotrophs to loss of negative feedback during pegvisomant treatment contrasts sharply with the typically aggressive nature of Nelson’s syndrome following bilateral adrenalectomy with loss of endogenous cortisol feedback in corticotrophs (76). A somatic inactivating mutation in the glucocorticoid receptor gene was found in one such case of Nelson’s syndrome (77). On the other hand, Cushing’s disease requiring bilateral adrenalectomy may reflect intrinsically more aggressive corticotrophinomas that drive the clinical course of disease, rather than adrenalectomy and loss of endogenous negative feedback being the underlying driver of progression (2). DA resistance in lactotroph APTs has been associated with decreased dopamine D2 receptor (D2R) density, overall reduction in D2R mRNA production, and altered expression of D2R mRNA isoforms with lower expression of the more efficient short isoform (78). A somatic truncating DRD2 variant has been described in a lactotroph APT (79), but DRD2variants are not a consistent feature of lactotroph APTs (79, 80). DA resistance is also associated with cystic prolactinomas (81).

 

Hypothesized mechanisms of PC dissemination include: hematogenous spread through the anterior pituitary portal system into the cavernous and petrosal sinuses and finally the jugular veins; lymphatic spread via the sphenoid sinus or in the skull base and soft tissues by connections between the intracranial perineural space and lymphatic plexus; and cerebrospinal fluid seeding along the subarachnoid space of the neuroaxis (1, 14, 53, 56). However, there have been no studies comparing the sites of metastases in pituitary neoplasms with cavernous versus sphenoid sinus invasion. Increased matrix metalloproteinase-9 expression in PC and its association with vascular density in PC suggest that extracellular matrix degradation contributes to angiogenesis (82). Matrix metalloproteinase activity may also promote local tumor invasion, including entry into deep brain structures along the Virchow-Robin perivascular CNS spaces, resulting in non-contiguous cranial metastases (53).

 

Iatrogenesis has been purported in select PC cases with intimately located metastases following trans-sphenoidal surgery (14), craniotomy (83),  radiotherapy (53), and ventricular-peritoneal shunt placement (53). Hypotheses for the role of surgery in increasing PC risk include disruption of venous barriers intraoperatively and postoperative formation of friable new blood vessels (53). Radiotherapy has been postulated to increase tumor aggressiveness by inducing genetic mutations, in TP53 for example (55). However, this theory is controversial and confounded by the fact that surgery and radiotherapy are employed in most patients with APT/PC during the typically protracted progression of PA to APT and finally to PC (1, 53). Furthermore, the vast majority of operated and irradiated pituitary neoplasms never develop into PC (1), making iatrogenesis a highly unlikely cause of PC.

 

Molecular Mechanisms

 

Competing molecular models of APT/PC pathogenesis include a hyperplasia-adenoma-carcinoma sequence with accumulation of molecular alterations, versus clonal evolution of a subclone with genetic/epigenetic changes favoring cell survival, proliferation and ultimately metastasis (1, 53, 84). As most patients present with a long history of pituitary neoplasm (14, 35), de novo malignant transformation of normal adenohypophyseal cells seems unlikely. There are, however, rare reported cases of rapid progression from pituitary neoplasm diagnosis to death (49, 85). The frequent transition of PC from PA via an APT stage (1, 53) suggests that pathogenic mechanisms may be shared between PAs, APTs and PCs. Although, whilst some genes like PTTG are overexpressed in PAs compared to normal pituitary tissue and in APTs compared to other PAs (86), other genes such as the RAS gene only appear to be implicated in APT/PC (87, 88). Whilst there is some overlap between genetic changes in APT/PC and the genes underlying more common solid organ malignancies, mutations in classic oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes are relatively uncommon (36). Certain molecular events may be specific to the different elements of APT/PC pathogenesis. A transcriptomic analysis of lactotroph pituitary neoplasms found different genetic changes in purely invasive tumors (upregulation of ADAMTS6and CRMP1; downregulation of DCAMKL3) compared to tumors that were invasive and aggressive (upregulation of ADAMTS6, CRMP1, PTTG, ASK, CCNB1, AURKB and CENPE; downregulation of PITX1). Upregulation of Pttg, Aurkb, Cenpe and Crmp and absent Pitx1 expression in malignant lactotroph tumors in rats recapitulated these findings, and there is a functional basis to the involvement of these genes with ASK, PTTG, AURKB, CCNB1 and CENPE involved in the cell cycle, ADAMTS6 in the extracellular matrix, CRMP in cellular migration, and PITX1 in pituitary differentiation (89).

 

Copy number variation (CNV) at the chromosomal level is the most frequent genetic aberration in pituitary neoplasms (79, 90). CNV is particularly common in functioning neoplasms, especially prolactinomas, as well as neoplasms with high proliferative indices (90-92). The mean number of chromosomal imbalances per tumor is 1.6 in initial PAs, 3.4 in recurrent PAs and 8.3 in PC (91, 92). Aneuploidy was observed in all but one of the 15 PCs reported by Pernicone et al (14). The degree of genomic disruption is directly proportional to Ki-67 index (90). This progressive increase in CNV supports an adenoma-carcinoma sequence, as observed in other endocrine tumors such as pancreatic and adrenocortical neoplasms (92). Recurrent chromosomal aberrations in APT/PC include gains in chromosome 4q, 5, 13q and 14q and losses of chromosome 1p, 2, 8q, 10, 11, 12q, 13q and 15q (6, 91, 92). These chromosomes contain multiple genes implicated in APT/PC pathogenesis, as listed in Table 2, although the underlying evidence for the causal involvement of these genes is limited owing to the rarity of PC and variability in genomic technologies.

 

Table 2. Selected Genes Implicated in APT/PC Pathogenesis

Gene

Locus

Function

Alteration in APT/PC

Oncogenes

PTTG, pituitary tumor transforming gene

Chr 5q33.3*

Securin protein in spindle checkpoint machinery, responsible for error-free mitosis

Overexpression associated with increased risk of PA recurrence, strong correlation with Ki-67 (86)

VEGFA, vascular endothelial growth factor A (also referred to as VEGF)

Chr 6p21.1

Induces angiogenesis by promoting endothelial cell survival and proliferation

Increased VEGF staining in PC (93); PC stabilised by VEGF inhibition (bevacizumab) (94)

EGFR, epidermal growth factor receptor

Chr 7p11.2

Receptor tyrosine kinase contributing to tumor progression by increasing proliferation, decreasing apoptosis, and inducing angiogenesis and invasion

Increased EGFR expression in APT/PC (95)

HRAS, V-HA-RAS Harvey rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog

Chr 11p15.5*

Promotes cellular proliferation and differentiation

Rare activating mutations in APT/PC (87, 88)

CCND1, cyclin D1

Chr 11q13.3*

Promotes transition at the G1-S phase cell cycle checkpoint

Germline CCND1 genotype associated with  locally invasive and malignant pituitary neoplasms (96);  increased CCND1 staining in APT vs. other PA and normal pituitary (97)

ERBB2, V-ERB-B2 avian erythroblastic leukemia viral oncogene homolog 2 (also referred to as HER2/neu)

Chr 17q12

Induces cell survival and proliferation

Increased expression in PC (49)

TOP2A, topoisomerase DNA II alpha

Chr 17q21.2

Enzyme modifying topological state of DNA, involved in DNA transcription and mitosis

Increased topoisomerase II alpha immunostaining in invasive PA, silent type 3 PA and PC; mixed results regarding correlation with Ki-67 (98)

Tumor Suppressor Genes

MSH6, MutS E. coli homolog of 6

Chr 2p16.3* 

Mismatch repair protein, removes DNA base mismatches caused by errors in DNA replication or by DNA damage

Loss of MSH6 in progression from atypical PA to PC, loss of MSH6 +/- MSH2 in TMZ-resistant atypical PA/PC (50, 99); inactivating MSH6mutations in PC (100)

MGMT, methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase

Chr 10q26.3* 

DNA repair enzyme, removes alkylating adducts in DNA

Decreased MGMT expression in APT/PC, correlates with activation of genes in DNA damage response and DNA repair pathways and genes involved in transcription (101)

CDKN1B, cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 1B (encoding p27Kip1)

Chr 12p13.1 

Binds cyclin/cyclin-dependent kinase complexes, regulates transition at the G1-S phase cell cycle checkpoint

Loss of normal p27 expression in PC (102)

RB1, retinoblastoma 1 gene

Chr 13q14.2*

Regulates cellular proliferation

RB1 loss of heterozygosity in highly invasive and malignant pituitary neoplasms (103)

TP53, tumor protein p53

Chr 17p13.1

Induces cellular senescence or apoptosis in response to DNA damage

Increasing cellular accumulation in APT/PC, rare inactivating mutations in APT (44, 55)

BCL2, B-cell CLL/lymphoma 2

Chr 18q21.33

Anti-apoptotic

Decreased Bcl-2 expression in PC, correlates with higher rates of apoptosis in PC vs. PA (104)

Other 

PTGS2, prostaglandin-endoperoxide synthase 2 (encoding COX2)

Chr 1q31.1 

Cyclo-oxygenase involved in angiogenesis

Increased Cox-2 expression in PC (105)

LGALS3, lectin galactoside-binding soluble 3 (encoding GAL3)

Chr 14q22.3* 

Galactose-binding lectin regulating cyclin-E-associated kinase activity

Increased Gal-3 immunopositivity in corticotroph and lactotroph PC (106)

HIF1A, hypoxia-inducible factor-1alpha

Chr 14q23.2*

Transcription factor mediating cellular responses to hypoxia

Increased HIF1A expression in PC (107)

ATRX, ATRX chromatin remodeler

Chr Xq21.1

Regulation of expression of a variety of genes, involved in telomere maintenance

Somatic inactivating ATRXvariants detected in APT and particularly PC, especially in corticotroph neoplasms (43)

Abbreviations: * chromosomal loci that are frequently gained or lost in APT/PC

 

A particular gene of interest in the pathogenesis of APT/PC is MGMT, which maps to 10q26.3. Low MGMT expression is a common feature in APT/PC (33, 101). It is also overrepresented in patients with plurihormonal PIT-1 positive PA, Crooke’s cell PA, Nelson’s syndrome and recurrent NFPA, all of which exhibit more aggressive behavior (101). Low MGMT expression is in turn associated with upregulation of genes involved in transcriptional activity, DNA damage response and DNA repair (101). Interestingly, low MGMT expression in pituitary neoplasms does not correlate with MGMT promoter hypermethylation as it does in glioblastoma, suggesting that MGMT is inactivated by alternative, currently unknown mechanisms (2, 7, 101).

 

Apart from the aforementioned limited associations, the conversion of PA to APT/PC does not appear to be explained by the key genes underlying sporadic (e.g. USP8, GNAS) and/or familial (e.g. AIP, MEN1, CDKN1B, PRKAR1A, SDHx) PAs (2). In a study of 52 patients with somatotroph PA, GNAS mutations were found in 53% of tumors but there was no difference between the more common densely granulated subtype and the more aggressive sparsely granulated subtype, and Ki-67 index, invasiveness and diameter did not differ between GNAS mutated and wild-type tumors (24). By contrast, a known activating GNAS mutation was reported to coincide with conversion of a lactotroph PA into a somatotroph APT (108). This suggests that the conversion to hormone production in APT/PC may sometimes relate to acquired genetic mutations with a true gain of secretory function. An alternative explanation is simply increased tumor bulk with increased hormonogenesis  (33).

 

A myriad of other molecular changes has been observed in APT/PC. As in other cancers, a role for telomerase in facilitating cellular immortality has been suggested with both Ki-67 and telomerase activity shown to increase with sequential resections of a lactotroph PC, whereas telomerase activity was absent in PAs (109). Increased immune tolerance may also be contributory with reduced T-cell concentration, HLA-B downregulation and upregulation of genes involved in T-lymphocyte suppression shown in plurihormonal PIT-1 positive PAs (110). The role of T-lymphocytes in pituitary immune tolerance is underscored by the high rates of hypophysitis with the use of ipilimumab in other malignancies (111), and the recent successful use of combined anti-CTLA4/PD1 therapy in a corticotroph PC (100). Changes have also been observed in microRNA, which are small non-coding RNAs that bind the 3’-untranslated regions of target mRNAs, thereby regulating post-transcriptional gene expression (112). In a study of lactotroph neoplasms, miR-183 was downregulated in APTs versus non-aggressive PAs and this was associated with increased expression of PCLAF, a gene inhibiting p53 and p21 mediated cell cycle arrest. miR-183 and PCLAF also correlated with Ki-67 and p53 expression (112). In a case of a non-functioning PC with multiple intracranial metastases, miR-20a, miR-106b and miR17-5p were upregulated in the metastases compared to the primary neoplasm, in association with decreases in the tumorigenesis genes, PTEN and TIMP2, which are downstream targets of these microRNAs (113). Another study showed upregulation of miRNA-122 and miRNA-493 in PC versus PA, with miRNA-493 shown to interact with the LGALS3 and RUNX2 genes which have been implicated in pituitary cellular proliferation (114).

 

MANAGEMENT

 

The key principle in the management of patients with APT/PC is for care to be directed by an expert multidisciplinary team. Multimodal treatment strategies are typically required. Surgery, radiotherapy, and medical therapies all have a role in the management of APT (Figure 1). Tumor location and size, the presence of single or widespread metastatic disease (in PC), prior surgery and extent of resection(s), previous radiotherapy and cumulative doses, optimization of standard medical therapies, past oncological treatments, and patient comorbidities are all important considerations in formulating management plans.

Figure 1. Treatment options in APT/PC

 

Surgical Management

 

Patients with APT frequently require repeated neurosurgical procedures. In the ESE survey cohort, patients underwent a mean of 2.7 operations while 29% had four or more pituitary operations over the course of their disease (33). Multiple studies now demonstrate improved outcomes and lower complication rates when pituitary surgery is performed by high-volume neurosurgeons (115-118). The likelihood of achieving gross total resection is consistently reduced in the presence of tumor invasion, particularly of the cavernous sinus, even in the most experienced hands (119, 120). Endoscopic endonasal surgical techniques utilizing angled endoscopes and wide exposure may facilitate safe and more extensive surgical resection compared with trans-sphenoidal microsurgical approaches (121-123). In some circumstances where tumor extends to a significant degree into suprasellar or other extrasellar regions, a transcranial approach may be favored. However, the degree of resection may be limited by the risk of morbidity, depending on tumor location.

 

Surgical resection, even as a debulking procedure, should be considered in patients with APT as it may offer significant relief of compressive symptoms, particularly when there is visual disturbance (124, 125). In patients with isolated metastatic deposits (either craniospinal or systemic disease) complete surgical excision may result in long-term disease-free progression particularly when followed by adjuvant radiotherapy (126-128). Repeat surgical resections of recurrent metastases may also prolong survival (14).

 

Radiotherapy

 

The use of radiotherapy should be considered in patients with APT as it may assist in long-term control of tumor growth (129). Radiotherapy is recommended in the setting of clinically significant tumor growth despite surgery, and in the case of functional tumors where standard medical therapy has been ineffective (2). In patients with PC, palliative radiotherapy may be delivered to sites of metastatic disease, but there is no evidence that it prolongs survival (129). Discussion about radiotherapy should take place within a multidisciplinary setting involving an expert radiation oncologist (2). The role of further debulking surgery prior to radiotherapy should be discussed. Radiotherapy applied to a smaller tumor volume is more effective, and removing tumor in close proximity to the optic apparatus may allow safer and improved radiotherapy delivery (2, 130). In previously irradiated patients, consideration must be given to the cumulative radiation dose applied to the target region. In patients with invasive tumor remnants following surgery andwhere histological markers indicate the potential for aggressive tumor behavior (high Ki-67, particularly ³ 10%; elevated mitotic count; increased p53 immunostaining), adjuvant radiotherapy should be considered (2). In the case of evident aggressive tumor behavior, combination radiotherapy and chemotherapy with TMZ may yield improved outcomes (33).

 

Fractionated external beam radiation therapy (EBRT) and stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS, delivered as a single dose or in fractions) are both highly effective in the management of PAs. In one study of NFPAs, routine use of postoperative radiotherapy was associated with a doubling of 10-year progression-free survival compared with patients who did not undergo radiotherapy (93% vs. 47% ) (131).  Success rates vary across studies because of different modalities (linear accelerators, Gamma Knife, proton beam irradiation) and variable techniques, doses and imaging protocols used between centers (132). In APT, there are limited data on the effectiveness of radiotherapy. In a series of 50 patients with persistent or recurrent adenomas despite prior radiotherapy, further focal SRS was effective in the majority of cases, although a large number of cases were treated for persistent GH excess rather than radiologically aggressive tumors (133, 134). The response to radiotherapy may only be transient in more aggressive tumors or even ineffective, particularly in cases demonstrating progression despite salvage chemotherapy (33).

 

The choice of radiotherapy technique and modality is ultimately based on safety considerations (e.g., proximity to the optic chiasm), volume of disease, and local center availability (2). Adverse effects of radiotherapy delivered to the pituitary, such as hypopituitarism or risk of secondary tumors, has rationalized the modern-day use of radiation therapy for pituitary tumors. However, considering the morbidity and excess mortality associated with APT, these adverse effects, particularly given their significant latency, should not preclude the prompt use of radiotherapy in APT.

 

Peptide Receptor Radionuclide Therapy

 

Pituitary neoplasms express somatostatin receptors and have demonstrated 68Ga-DOTATATE uptake on PET/CT, stimulating interest in the use of PRRT in the management of APT (135, 136). A variety of radionuclides have been utilized, including 111Indium-DPTA-octreotide, 177Lutetium-DOTATATE, 177Lutetium-DOTATOC and 90Yttrium-DOTATOC (2, 137). A recent review of 20 PRRT-treated APT/PC cases reported in the literature to date found limited success, with partial responses in 3/20 and stable disease in 3/20 (138). For unclear reasons, PRRT failure in APT/PC may be associated with previous use of TMZ (138), with only one reported case of a successful PRRT response following prior TMZ treatment (139).

 

Standard Medical Therapy

 

APTs typically display resistance to the standard medical therapies commonly used in the management of functional PAs, although dose escalation may be helpful. In lactotroph APTs, use of maximally tolerated DA treatment should be attempted given occasional reported responses (140, 141), with cabergoline (3.5-11mg per week) being more effective than bromocriptine or quinagolide (2). Temporary benefit from high-dose octreotide has been described in a case of thyrotroph PC (63).

 

Aggressive corticotroph tumors represent a particular challenge, and these patients often require medical therapy to reduce hypercortisolism, a common direct cause of death (129). Adrenal glucocorticoid inhibitors, such as ketoconazole or metyrapone, are frequently used in such cases. Pasireotide has been reported in 15 cases of aggressive corticotroph tumors, including nine with Nelson’s syndrome, but with only one case exhibiting a hormonal and radiological response (2, 142).

 

DA-resistant lactotroph APT/PCs are also challenging, with limited medical options apart from TMZ. Pasireotide responses have been recently described in three patients with lactotroph APT: a 41-year-old woman who experienced prolactin normalisation and tumor necrosis but without tumor shrinkage (143); a 61-year-old woman who experienced both prolactin normalisation and tumor shrinkage (144); and a 55-year-old woman with a giant silent prolactinoma who experienced tumor shrinkage (145). Pasireotide is likely most useful in lactotroph APTs with high SSTR5 expression; however, less than 15% of prolactinomas express SSTR5 (145). Tamoxifen has been unsuccessfully used in lactotroph PC (2).

 

In rare cases of somatotroph PC, use of DA treatment has been associated with GH and IGF-1 reductions and symptomatic improvement, but without tumor shrinkage (29, 146). Similarly, the use of first-generation somatostatin analogs in somatotroph APTs is largely ineffective, whereas pasireotide may improve biochemical control, although data in APT are scarce (147). Resistance to first-generation somatostatin anologs (octreotide, lanreotide) due to downregulation of SSTR2A expression has been described among AIP mutation positive individuals with somatotroph tumors, but expression of SSTR5 is often preserved and thus response to second-generation broader-spectrum somatostatin analogs, such as pasireotide, may be more effective (148).

 

Chemotherapy

 

WHEN TO INITIATE CHEMOTHERAPY

 

In patients with PC, the decision to start systemic chemotherapy is clear and associated with improved survival (2, 149, 150). In patients with isolated metastases, loco-regional therapies such as hepatic chemoembolization for low-bulk liver metastases may offer temporary tumor control (151). For APT, in cases of documented tumor growth, other treatment options may be explored first, such as further surgery or radiotherapy if appropriate, and histological parameters such as Ki-67 or tumor subtype, may play a role in decision making. However, it is increasingly recognized that apart from the presence of metastases, there is little that distinguishes APT from PC (17). Most importantly, time to death following diagnosis of pituitary tumor is similar between APT and PC (33). Prior to the recognition of TMZ efficacy in APT, chemotherapy was typically reserved as salvage therapy because of poor response rates. The mean survival rate in the pre-TMZ era for PC was 1.9 years (56). APT and PC treated with TMZ are now reported to have 5-year overall survival rates of 57.4% and 56.2%, respectively (152). In the large French cohort, median survival was 44 months in patients who responded to TMZ compared with 16 months in non-responders (153). While TMZ is still most commonly used as a last resort therapy, it has been successfully employed during or prior to radiotherapy (33, 154). In fact, the 2018 ESE guidelines suggest, in patients with rapid tumor growth where maximal doses of radiotherapy have not been reached, TMZ may be combined with radiotherapy as per the Stupp protocol used for glioblastoma (2, 155). As new therapeutic modalities emerge in the coming years, clinicians will likely employ TMZ earlier in the treatment algorithm for APT. Decisions must be made within an expert multidisciplinary team setting where risk-benefit ratios are carefully deliberated, taking into account the morbidities of repeated surgery or radiotherapy as well as the potential for rare long-term consequences of chemotherapy such as hematological malignancy (2). 

 

TEMOZOLOMIDE

 

TMZ is recommended as first-line chemotherapy for patients with APT and PC, with more than 200 cases now reported in the literature including the recent ESE survey (2, 33). The overall response rate is 37-47% across the larger cohorts, with complete responses (both biochemical and radiological) seen in approximately 5% of cases (2, 33). However, if stable disease is considered a clinically beneficial outcome, as it frequently is in oncological studies, then rates of progression-free survival are 50-87.6% in APT and PC (33, 150). Clinically functioning APT are 3.4 times more likely to respond to TMZ compared with non-functioning APT (33). APTs are just as likely as PCs to respond to TMZ, although progression may be more frequent among tumors with Ki-67 ³10% (33).

 

TMZ is a second-generation imidotetrazine alkylating agent which, when hydrolyzed, forms toxic methyl adducts with DNA bases resulting in ineffective DNA repair and ultimately cellular apoptosis (156). TMZ is given as an oral outpatient-based chemotherapy, most commonly as monotherapy. Some centers advocate use of capecitabine pre-treatment (CAPTEM) because of in vitro data in neuroendocrine tumor cell lines suggesting synergistic effects with this regimen, although evidence supporting its superiority in APT and PC is lacking (27, 157). Similarly, it has not yet been demonstrated that TMZ in combination with any other drug(s) has enhanced efficacy (2). However, where maximal doses of radiotherapy have not yet been reached in a patient, there is suggestion of improved response when TMZ is given concurrently with radiotherapy (2, 33, 158). Experimental data strongly support a radiosensitizing effect of TMZ (159, 160).

 

The TMZ doing regimen given for APT is 150-200mg/m2 for 5 consecutive days every 28 days. It is generally well-tolerated, although mild to moderate fatigue, nausea and myelosuppression are common side effects, occurring in roughly half of patients but leading to TMZ discontinuation only in a minority (2). Prophylactic anti-emetics such as ondansetron is recommended for the 5 days of treatment per cycle (161). A dose reduction or delay in treatment cycles can allow patients to continue TMZ when myelosuppression occurs. Hemorrhage into cerebral metastases has been described in a patient with PC who developed severe thrombocytopenia (162). Hepatoxicity has been reported when TMZ was used concurrently with ketoconazole therapy, and cholestatic hepatitis has also been reported in association with TMZ treatment in the wider literature (163, 164). To monitor for the risks of myelosuppression and hepatotoxicity, a complete hematological profile should be obtained on day 22 of each 28-day cycle and liver function tests should be performed at baseline, midway through the first cycle, prior to each subsequent cycle and within a month of treatment cessation (2). TMZ-induced hearing loss has been described among two pituitary cases and other rare side effects in non-pituitary literature include hypersensitivity pneumonitis, Stevens-Johnson syndrome and hematological malignancies (2). Prophylactic trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole to protect against Pneumocystis pneumonia should be considered, particularly in the setting of active Cushing’s syndrome, high-dose glucocorticoid therapy, concurrent radiotherapy or significant lymphopenia (2, 161).

 

WHEN TO STOP TEMOZOLOMIDE

 

Response to TMZ will be evident after 3 months of therapy (165). Treatment should cease in the event of progressive disease while receiving TMZ, or if serious adverse events occur. It is recommended to continue with treatment for at least 6 months, but therapy is often extended if there is ongoing clinical benefit (2). In the ESE survey, median treatment duration was 9 months and the longest course was 36 months (33). In this patient cohort, treatment with TMZ was initiated prior to the publication of management guidelines for APT. Hence, duration of therapy was often prescribed by oncology teams at the outset and was based on experience with TMZ clinical trials in glioblastoma (155). Following cessation of TMZ treatment in APT/PC, there is frequently a period of sustained remission. Time to tumor progression is variable, and whether longer treatment courses or degree of initial response improves progression-free survival is not currently clear. The median time to progression after cessation across patients in the ESE survey cohort was 12 months (range 1-60). Two patients exhibiting the longest time to progression were PC cases with complete response to TMZ (33). In the French multicenter cohort, patients receiving more than 12 months of TMZ achieved a median relapse-free survival of 57 months compared with 18 months in those receiving less than 12 cycles (153). However, response rates were 100% in those receiving longer treatment courses versus 75% in the shorter treatment group. Nevertheless, long-term treatment has been reported to be associated with improved progression-free survival of 61% compared to 16% for short-term treatment (152). The potential benefits of long-term TMZ treatment are tempered by the cumulative toxicity to bone marrow, especially given the relatively long survival of patients with pituitary tumors compared to other neoplasms treated with TMZ (3).

 

DETERMINANTS OF RESPONSE TO TEMOZOLOMIDE

 

The most well recognized biomarker of the likely response to TMZ is MGMT expression. An endogenous DNA repair protein, MGMT is responsible for removal of the methyl group induced by TMZ therapy. In the absence of MGMT, unrepaired methylated guanine (O6-MeG) lesions incorrectly pair with thymine, triggering activation of the mismatch repair pathway (MMR). Intact MMR results in futile attempts at repair via incorrect reinsertion of thymine opposite the O6-MeG lesion. Cycles of ineffectual repair eventually result in DNA strand breaks which lead to cell cycle arrest followed by either apoptosis or cellular senescence. If MMR function is lost, then paradoxically cells can survive. However, even in the presence of intact MMR, MGMT can facilitate cell survival by direct repair of O6-MeG, targeting it for ubiquitination and degradation (Figure 2) (166).

 

Low expression of MGMT, as determined by IHC, is associated with a high response rate, at around 75%, while tumors with high MGMT expression are unlikely to respond (33, 156). Low MGMT expression also predicts longer survival in patients with TMZ-treated APT/PC (167).Evaluation of MGMT status by IHC should be performed by a neuropathologist with expertise in APT (2). Lack of standardized IHC technique, use of different expression criteria across centers, poor fixation methods, and tumor heterogeneity are among the challenges in assessment of MGMT IHC. MGMT promoter methylation analysis has not been associated with response to TMZ in pituitary neoplasms (156, 168).

 

DNA mismatch repair proteins such as MSH6, MLH1, MSH2 and PMS2 may also play a role in response to TMZ. Loss of MSH6, in the presence of low MGMT, has been described as a mechanism responsible for the development of resistance to TMZ (169). The overexpression of multidrug resistance proteins and activity of the Sonic hedgehog signalling pathway may also contribute to TMZ resistance (150).

Figure 2. Temozolomide Cytotoxicity and Mismatch Repair Pathway

 

TREATMENT OPTIONS BEYOND TMZ

 

There is a pressing need to identify alternative effective oncological therapies for patients progressing on TMZ or following an initial successful course of TMZ treatment. Given the paucity of treatment options, a second 3-cycle trial of TMZ treatment may be considered in patients who develop recurrence after a previous response to TMZ (2). However, a second treatment course has rarely been reported to be successful in such cases (2). In a recent review of nine detailed case reports of patients with APT receiving a second course of TMZ for at least 3 months, 4/9 patients had a partial response, 2/9 had stable disease and 3/9 had progressive disease (161). Patients with late relapses after the initial TMZ course and tumors with low MGMT status appeared to have a better response to TMZ retreatment (161).

 

If there is rapid tumor progression on TMZ treatment, a trial of other systemic cytotoxic therapy is recommended based on historical reports of transient regression and/or stabilization with some regimens (2). Lomustine (CCNU) and/or 5-fluorouracil (5FU) have most commonly been employed, but multiple other drugs, alone or in combination, including cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, adriamycin, carboplatin/cisplatin, etoposide and vincristine have also been reported, with variable results (2, 33).

 

Use of targeted therapies offer some promise, but data on clinical effectiveness are lacking. In vitro data demonstrating upregulation of Raf/MEK/ERK and PI3K/Akt/mTOR pathways in pituitary tumors have thus far not translated into clinical success in APT (33, 170, 171), apart from a single case report of partial response to everolimus in an aggressive prolactinoma (172). There has been limited use of tyrosine kinase inhibitors (lapatinib, sunitib, erlotinib), with one case report of a lactotroph APT exhibiting a partial response to lapatanib (173) and a subsequent phase 2 trial showing stable disease in 3/4 lapatanib-treated lactotroph APTs and progressive disease in the remaining case (174). VEGF-targeted therapy with bevacizumab or apatinib, as monotherapy or in combination with TMZ, has produced mixed results from complete response to progressive disease (33, 94, 138, 175). 

 

Finally, there is evolving interest in the potential use of immunotherapy for the treatment of APT/PC. Combination treatment with ipilimumab (anti-CTLA-4) and nivolumab (anti-PD-1) was reported by Lin et al to result in marked tumor shrinkage and hormonal response in a patient with a hypermutated corticotroph PC (100). Subsequently, Duhamel et al reported ipilimumab/nivolumab combined treatment with partial response in a patient with corticotroph carcinoma and progressive disease in a patient with an aggressive prolactinoma (176). Sol et al reported stable disease following ipilimumab/nivolumab combined treatment in a patient with corticotroph carcinoma after previous progression despite multiple lines of treatment including TMZ (177). Caccese et al described a poor response to pembrolizumab (anti-PD-1) with rapid disease progression in an aggressive corticotrophinoma (178). An open-label phase II trial of pembrolizumab in four patients with PC led to radiographic and hormonal responses in two patients, stable disease in one patient and progressive disease in the remaining patient (179). Emerging studies of the immune microenvironment of pituitary neoplasms highlight the potential for gene expression data to identify which APT/PC will respond best to anti-CTLA-4 versus anti-PD-1 therapies (180, 181).

 

PROGNOSIS

 

Morbidity and mortality are increased in APT even in the absence of progression to PC (2, 17). This is particularly true in functioning corticotroph APTs, where morbidity and mortality are further increased in relation to cortisol excess (2).

 

In the ESE survey, mortality was higher in PC (43%) compared to APT (28%) (17), but median survival from initial diagnosis of pituitary tumor was similar (11 years in APT vs. 12 years in PC) (33). The time to death from PC diagnosis ranged from 7 days to 8 years in the study by Pernicone et al, with a 66% 1-year-survival (14). The mortality rate reported by Yoo et al was 55%, with an average time to death after PC diagnosis of just 10 months (34). Amongst all endocrine carcinomas, PC demonstrates the strongest decline in survival with advancing age (28). Prognosis is especially poor in patients with corticotroph PC, systemic metastases, or progression during TMZ therapy (1, 14, 33, 182). By contrast, patients who respond to TMZ experience a clear survival benefit (153). Exceedingly long-term survival over several years has been observed in selected cases (6, 14, 27), even without TMZ (182), but predictive markers for such survival remain unknown (53).

 

FUTURE DIRECTIONS

 

Comprehensive molecular studies will hopefully identify better biomarkers for PAs that are destined to become APT/PC. The recent finding of somatic ATRX variants in almost one-fifth of APT/PC cases suggests ATRX immunohistochemistry may be a useful adverse prognostic marker pending further research in this area (43). In addition to molecular biomarkers, the growing sphere of nuclear medicine may prove useful in the assessment of PC, which currently lacks a standard method of staging. 11C-methionine, a tracer with specific avidity for neoplastic pituitary tissue, has shown superior sensitivity to 18F-FDG-PET in localising functioning PAs (183). Though yet to be studied in PC, 11C-methionine holds promise in better delineating metastatic disease. Integration of molecular, functional and clinical data may ultimately assist clinicians in better identifying tumors with the potential for more aggressive behavior. This will allow earlier and more proactive management in affected patients with the goal of improving prognosis.

 

Therapeutic questions requiring further investigation include the optimal duration of TMZ therapy and the utility of TMZ treatment earlier in the management of selected APT cases rather than reserving TMZ as a salvage therapy (3). Early use of TMZ may be especially valuable in preference to radiotherapy in rapidly growing APTs (161) and in preference to both surgery and radiotherapy in frail patients with comorbidities (184). Clinical trials on the use of immune checkpoint inhibitors in APT/PC are ongoing (185). Combination therapies with the inclusion of TMZ also warrant investigation (161). Based on pre-clinical data regarding the pathways of pituitary tumorigenesis, future therapeutic avenues may include treatments that target BRAF, fibroblast growth factors, Notch and hedgehog signaling, and PTTG (175).

 

Because of the rarity of PC and the diverse subtypes of APT, current data are plagued by small sample size driven by case reports or series, heterogeneous case mix, short follow-up and clinical rather than histological diagnoses of PC metastases, with heavy reliance on expert opinion and local practice and a dearth of randomized controlled trials. Calls by the ESE to form an international register for APT/PC should help address the multiple evidence gaps in these rare disorders (2). As APT/PC are almost invariably diagnosed retrospectively, routine pituitary tumor biobanking with methodical storage of tissue in media that circumvent formalin-induced DNA damage will be critical in studying pathogenesis. Waiting for metastasis before labelling a pituitary neoplasm as PC is particularly problematic, given the similar time-to-death from initial pituitary tumor diagnosis between patients with APT versus PC (17). Increasing use of the term ‘pituitary neuroendocrine tumor’ (PitNET) in favour of ‘pituitary adenoma’, as proposed by the International Pituitary Pathology Club and endorsed by the European Pituitary Pathology Group, is hoped to emphasize the malignant potential of a subset of these neoplasms and expand treatment intensity (9, 69, 186); however, as with all changes in nomenclature, this risks a disconnect between existing literature and contemporary clinical practice.

 

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Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2

ABSTRACT

 

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) type 2 A and B are rare autosomal dominant inherited cancer syndromes characterized by tumors of the C cells of the thyroid, of the adrenal medulla, and parathyroid glands. MEN2 is caused by a genetic defect in the REarranged during Transfection (RET) proto-oncogene on chromosome 10 (10q11-2), leading to a ligand-independent activation of the transmembrane RET receptor tyrosine kinase and consequently its intra-cellular pathways. Different mutations lead to different levels of activation and MEN2 is therefore characterized by a strong genotype-phenotype correlation. Nearly all patients with MEN2A have either C-cell hyperplasia (CCH) or medullary thyroid cancer (MTC), 50% have pheochromocytoma (PHEO), and 20-30% hyperparathyroidism (pHPT) but incidence of these manifestations is depending on the underlying RET mutation. Patients with MEN2B have a 100% incidence of CCH or MTC, PHEO in 30-50%, mucosal neuromas, and rarely pHPT. Endocrine tumors in MEN2 are often multifocal and bilateral. Nowadays, the diagnosis of MEN2 is made by genetic testing. After diagnosis, annual screening for associated manifestations and prophylactic thyroidectomy for preventing metastasized MTC are advised. Optimal age for preventive surgery or when to start screening for each manifestation is based upon the underlying RET mutation. In patients with MTC present at diagnosis, adequate staging is needed before surgical resection, since surgery is the only curative treatment. The most important biomarker for MTC is calcitonin. Fractionated metanephrines are used for early diagnosing PHEO and calcium and PTH for hyperparathyroidism. For PHEO, a minimal invasive surgical resection is recommended. In pHPT the surgical approach should be tailored to the amount and location of the enlarged glands visualized with imaging. Recurrent MTC requires physical examination, neck ultrasound, and measurement of serum calcitonin and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels every 6 months. For metastasized MTC, treatment can be successful with multikinase inhibitors (vandetanib, cabozantinib) and selective RET inhibitors (pralsetinib, selpercatinib). 

 

INTRODUCTION

 

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) type 2 is a rare autosomal dominant inherited cancer syndrome characterized by benign and malignant tumors of multiple endocrine organs. MEN2 is caused by a genetic defect in the REarranged during Transfection (RET) proto-oncogene on chromosome 10, leading to a gain-of-function in the RET tyrosine kinase receptor (1–4). As a result, cell growth, proliferation, and differentiation is promoted, leading to multiple tumor formation in all tissues were RET predominantly is expressed (C-cells of the thyroid gland, adrenal medulla, and neurons) (5,6). Major clinical manifestations in MEN2 are medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC), pheochromocytoma (PHEO) and, in case of MEN2A, primary hyperparathyroidism (pHPT).

 

MTC is a neuroendocrine tumor arising from the calcitonin secreting parafollicular C-cells of the thyroid gland. MTC in persons with MEN2 typically presents at a younger age than sporadic MTC (sMTC) and is more often associated with C-cell hyperplasia as well as multifocality or bilaterality. There is a genotype-phenotype correlation with the age of onset of MTC being associated with the underlying RET mutation.

 

PHEOs are catecholamine-secreting tumors that arise from chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla. The frequency of PHEO depends upon the underlying RET mutation. As with MTC, it manifests earlier in MEN2, compared to sporadic forms. PHEO usually present after MTC or concomitantly; however PHEO can be diagnosed before the (not clinically detected) MTC in 13-27% of individuals with MEN2A (7,8).

 

pHPT is suspected in patients with elevated serum calcium concentrations, in combination with a parathyroid hormone (PTH) concentration that is elevated or within the normal range but inappropriately given the patients hypercalcemia. In MEN2A, pHPT is typically mild and may range from a single parathyroid adenoma to marked parathyroid hyperplasia (9). pHPT usually presents many years after the diagnosis of MTC; the average age at onset is 38 years of age (10).

 

Nearly all patients with MEN2A have either C-cell hyperplasia (CCH) or MTC, approximately 50% have a PHEO and 20-30% have pHPT, but the incidence of these manifestations depends on the underlying RET mutation (11,12). Patients with MEN2B have a 100% incidence of CCH and MTC, frequently have PHEO (30-50%), and typically have physical characteristics including mucosal neuromas, intestinal ganglioneuromatosis (IGN), alacrima (the lack of tears), and hyperflexible joints. They rarely have pHPT. Both MEN2A and MEN2B have autosomal dominant transmission patterns and therefore children of affected individuals have a 50% chance of inheriting the genetic abnormality. However, MEN2B most frequently occurs as a de novo mutation. Offspring of MEN2B patients have not frequently been reported.

 

Early diagnosis of affected patients and families is critical to obtain the best outcomes. For MEN2A, genetic screening in individuals at risk enable early screening. For MEN2B awareness for and early recognition of presenting syndromes (IGN, alacrima, mucosal neurinomas) is of utmost importance. Management of MEN2 patients is challenging, and the decision making is often not straightforward, as impact of screening and early surgery have to be balanced with possible benefits, particularly in younger patients. Patients and families suspected of harboring or diagnosed with MEN2 should be evaluated by an experienced multidisciplinary team.

 

Classification

 

Close to 200 RET germline variants have been identified with a clear genotype-phenotype correlation (13,14). Two distinct clinical syndromes are recognized within MEN2 syndrome: MEN2A (95%) and MEN2B (5%). MEN2A is categorized in four subtypes.   

 

  1. Classic MEN2A
  2. MEN2A with cutaneous lichen amyloidosis (CLA)
  3. MEN2A with Hirschsprung’s disease (HD)
  4. Familial medullary thyroid cancer (FMTC)

 

Incidence and prevalence rates vary with the population studied. Based on an analysis of Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results (SEER) data, MEN2A is most common, with an incidence of about 1 patient in 2 million, compared to MEN2B with an incidence of about 1 patient in 39 million (12). A nationwide study in Denmark described higher rates with MEN2A incidence of 28 per million live births per year and a point prevalence of 24 per million (15). MEN2B had an incidence in Denmark of 2.6 per million per year and a point prevalence of 1.06 per million. The patient distribution among the subtypes varies with the series and the population studied as well. A large series from China showed that of 65 families (214 patients) with MEN2, 30 (46%) families had classical MEN2A, 5 (8%) had MEN2A with CLA, 1 (2%) MEN2A with HD, 24 (37%) had FTMC, and 5 (8%) had MEN2B (16).

 

Previously, patients with FMTC were classified as a separate entity, because affected families appeared to have MTC alone, lacking other associated endocrine or neural-tissue involvement of MEN2. With extended follow-up, some members in many of these families developed PHEO or pHPT. Data such as these suggested FMTC patients might be more appropriately classified as a variant of MEN2A (12). Furthermore, distinguishing classical MEN2A from FMTC is difficult, making the clinical relevance of this phenotype limited.

 

In some families, MEN2A was associated with CLA (17). This might be limited to families with specific mutations in the RET gene, with C634 as most frequently described (table 1). Not all family members with the same mutation develop CLA and there is a variation in clinical appearance, although the scapular region of the upper back is typically affected in MEN2A (see clinical features). CLA can precede the other MEN2A manifestations (17).

 

The same goes for the association of MEN2A and HD. This association is especially challenging, since the type of mutation leading to the different phenotypes result in different effects in the RET gene (a gain of function in the MEN2A phenotype and a loss of function in the HD phenotype). Pathogenic RET variants are mainly associated with both these conditions when located at the 620 position. Mutations that impair RET signaling cause HD owing to failure of enteric neural crest-derived cells to migrate, proliferate and/or differentiate properly within the intestine. This seemingly paradoxical occurrence has led to speculation of a ‘Janus mutation’ in RET that causes overactivation or impairment of RET activity depending on the cellular context. In animal studies an alternative explanation was suggested that the coexistence of these two seemingly opposite phenotypes can be explained by excessive RET signaling alone and without invoking a Janus mutation. In this study it was also demonstrated that the cells comprising the ganglioneuroma-like masses induced by RET activation maintain their embryonic potential to generate an enteric nervous system, suggesting that these ganglioneuromas, and possibly other MEN-associated neoplasms, may be amenable to reprogramming along normal developmental trajectories (18).

 

GENETICS

 

The RET proto-oncogene (OMIM 164761) encodes one of the receptor tyrosine kinases, cell-surface molecules that transduce signals for cell growth and differentiation (6). The RET gene was defined as an oncogene by a classical transfection assay. RET can undergo oncogenic activation in vivo and in vitro by cytogenetic rearrangement (19). The RET protein comprises an extracellular domain, a transmembrane segment that traverse the plasma membrane, and the intracellular domain that consist of the intracellular juxtamembrane segment and the tyrosine kinase domain (TKD). Activation of RET is complex and occurs throughout a binding of a ligand-coreceptor composition, leading to RET homodimerization, resulting in activation of several downstream pathways, including RAS/MAPK and PI3K/AKT pathways (20). 

 

The oncogene contains 21 exons spanning more than 60kb of genomic DNA. It is expressed in tissues of neural crest origin, and appears to have an important function in cell migration and development. RET germline mutations in MEN2 typically result in constitutive activation. Different mutations lead to different levels of activation, which may have an effect on the clinical spectrum. In 95% of patients with MEN2A syndrome, germline RET mutations cluster in cysteine C609, C611, C618, C620 (in exon 10), or C630 and C634 (in exon 11), with mutation of C634 being the most frequent. These mutations, leading to affected cysteines in the extracellular domain of the RET receptor due to replacement of other amino acids in the cysteines, cause dimerization of receptor molecules, enhanced phosphorylation and thus ligand-independent activation of intra-cellular pathways (14,21). Germline pathogenic variants in the intracellular tyrosine kinase domain of RET are less frequent and encoded in exon 13-16. MEN2B is almost exclusively associated with a mutation in RET exon 16, which causes a methionine to threonine (M918T) substitution within the activation segment of RET kinase. This substitution increases ATP-binding and auto phosphorylation activity, thereby mediating a dimerization-independent activation of RET kinase. In less than 10% of MEN2B patients, other mutations are found: the pathogenic A883F variant (exon 15) encoded in exon 15 of RET also leads to increased and independent activating of RET. Furthermore, very rare dual germline variants (E768D/L790F, V804M/Q781R, V804M/E805 K, V804M/Y806C) have been described to cause MEN2B (22,23).  

 

Since the discovery of the RET receptor tyrosine kinase in 1985 (24), somatic alterations of this protein have also been found in sporadic tumors, like non-small cell lung cancer (1-2%), papillary thyroid carcinoma (10-20%) and sMTC (21,25). Somatic RET mutations have been found in up to 60% of patients with sMTC. The prevalence is higher in patients with large tumors, and up to 85% of patients with distant metastases have somatic RET mutations (21). The most common somatic mutation is M918T, which is present in up to 40% of patients with sMTC and is associated with disease aggressiveness. Other single amino acid changes might occur at residues C611, C618, C620, C630, C634, E768, A883 and S891; small RET deletions and/or insertions have also been detected.

 

Genotype-Phenotype Correlation

 

Genotype-phenotype correlations in MEN2 are well-established and have long been used to guide clinicians in making medical management recommendations. Currently, patients are classified based on their phenotype into three groups, according to the American Thyroid Association (ATA) guideline (table 1) (12):

 

  • Highest risk: classic MEN2B - M918T carriers
  • High Risk: patients with the RET codon C634 mutations and the RET codon A883F mutation
  • Moderate risk includes patients with hereditary MTC (hMTC) and RET codon mutations other than M918T, C634, and A883F

 

These risk categories are based on the aggressiveness of MTC and used as a guidance for timing of prophylactic thyroid surgery (see therapy). Furthermore, there is evidence that certain mutations are more commonly associated with PHEO. Besides M918T and A883F, both leading to MEN2B, all C634 mutations and D631Y mutations have a high risk of PHEO (~50%). Some mutations, like RET variant R912P and E768D are not associated with PHEO. For pHPT, C634 mutations have the highest risk as well. A clear overview of all manifestation per RET variant is illustrated in table 1. Despite a higher incidence of the various manifestations in some mutations, current data remain insufficient to determine the risk of PHEO or pHPT in a given patient or family, since there is also clear, yet unexplained intrafamilial variability. This suggests a role for genetic modifiers, such as polymorphisms/haplotypes. This leads to the suggestion that multi-step carcinogenesis may be applicable to patients with MEN2, with other non-RET genetic changes or modifiers responsible for the phenotypic differences. Limited evidence demonstrated that copy number variations (CNVs) play an important role in phenotypic expression, but other possible contributing factors have been evaluated as well (13,26). Since the observed intra- and interfamilial variability is still poorly understood, a possible divergent course of disease cannot be predicted in an individual patient. Thus, all patients need to be followed for the development of these tumors. Furthermore, ongoing evaluation of new data will be needed to update the risk categories and genotype-phenotype correlations periodically.

 

Table 1. Incidence and Occurrence of MEN2 Manifestations in Relation to Different Germline Mutation and the Advised Management According to ATA Guideline 2015 (12)

ATA risk category

RET Mutation

MTC timing surgery

Incidence

of PHEO

Incidence of pHPT

Start

PHEO/pHPT

Screening

Occurrence

CLA / HD

Highest

M918T

Within first year

50%

-

At age 11 (PHEO only)

- / -

High

C634  

A883F

At 5 years or earlier if elevated calcitonin

50%

50%

20-30%

-

At age 11

 

+ / -

- / -

Moderate

All others

- C609 F/G/R/S/Y

- C611F/G/S/Y/W

- C618F/R/S

- C620F/R/S

- C630R/Y

- D6311Y

- E768D

- G553C

- K666E

- L790F

- R912P

- S891A

- V804L

- V804M

When calcitonin becomes elevated or prophylactic before apparent disease

 

10-30%

10-30%

10-30%

10-30%

10-30%

50%

-

10%

10%

10%

-

10%

10%

10%

 

10%

10%

10%

10%

10%

-

-

-

-

-

-

10%

10%

10%

At age 16

 

- / +

- / +

- / +

- / +

- / -

- / -

- / -

- / -

- / -

- / -

- / -

- / -

- / -

+ / -

Abbreviations: ATA, American thyroid association; RET, REarranged during Transfection; MTC, medullary thyroid carcinoma; PHEO; phaeochromocytoma; PHPT, primary hyperparathyroidism; CLA, cutaneous lichen amyloidosis; HD, Hirschsprung’s disease; +, yes; -, no.

 

CLINICAL FEATURES

 

MEN2A and MEN2B share the same genetic defect and common manifestations but also have specific clinical features and course of disease, making them two separate clinical entities. The occurrence of multicentric tumor formation in the thyroid and adrenal glands is shared. However, MEN2B is characterized by a specific clinical phenotype with ganglioneuromas of the lips, tongue and conjunctiva, musculoskeletal abnormalities, narrow long face, and thickened lips, among other features (see below). Clinically relevant pHPT is absent in MEN2B. In general, patients with MEN2B will develop tumors at an earlier age and these tumors will show a more aggressive behavior(26). Biochemically, the tumors that arise in patients with MEN2 are similar to those with the sporadic forms and discrimination cannot be made based on biomarkers.  

 

MEN2A 

 

Virtually all patients with MEN2A will develop CCH or MTC, but there is much inter- and intra-familial variability in the other manifestations. Approximately 50% will develop a PHEO and 20-30% will develop pHPT, but the incidence depends on the underlying mutation (table1). No clear clinical phenotype is present to recognize MEN2A patients. Most index patients present with MTC as the first manifestation (27). Some patients will develop HD which then will reveal the diagnosis of MEN2 (table 1). CLA is dermatologic disease, typically located in the interscapular region of the back and is characterized by secondary skin changes (papular, pigmented) and intense pruritus (figure 1). It becomes apparent during late adolescence or young adulthood and can be the first presenting manifestation as well. For mutations associated with CLA, see table 1.

Figure 1. Cutaneous lichen amyloidosis.

MEN2B 

 

All MEN2B patients will develop CCH or MTC, and 30-50% of them will have a PHEO (table 1). In the MEN2 literature, there is often reference to a characteristic Marfanoid physical appearance with hyperflexible joints but without the Marfanoid lens or aortic abnormalities. However, no studies have been published describing body proportions in MEN2B. A recent case series from the Netherlands described 8 MEN2B patients: all children and adults had normal body proportion(28). The typical marfanoid appearance in MEN2B is therefore questionable.

 

MEN-2B patients can have mucosal neuromas of the eyelids, lips, and tongue, and wide-spread ganglioneuromatosis of the gastrointestinal tract resulting in an abnormal gastrointestinal motility with complaints of diarrhea, constipation, colonic dilatation, or even megacolon at a young age (29).   

 

As most MEN2B patients present with de novo mutations, the diagnosis is almost always delayed, even in the presence of clinical features (29,30). Recognition of nonendocrine symptoms like ocular symptoms (tearless crying) or the highly penetrant oral manifestations is important. Recent studies re-emphasize neonatal gastro-intestinal manifestations due to ganglioneuromatosis as the most important early feature for MEN2B diagnosis while body proportions and stature were non-specific in children with MEN2B (28,31). Those diagnosed based on nonendocrine symptoms instead of symptomatic MTC or PHEO were significantly younger (mean of 5.3 vs. 17.6 years), emphasizing the importance of early recognition. 

 

Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma (MTC)

 

MTC is a tumor originating from the parafollicular cells (C-cells) of the thyroid. The production of calcitonin is a characteristic feature of this tumor. Most patients present with a solitary nodule or cervical lymphadenopathy. Compared to sMTC, hMTC occur at a younger age and has typically multifocal and a bilateral pattern. It is often localized in the middle to upper regions of the thyroid lobe (32). In sMTC, up to 60% of cases appear to harbor a (driver) RET mutation, amongst other mutations, which has therapeutic implications (21). hMTC is preceded by CCH (33). The age-related penetrance of CCH and hMTC is mutation dependent. Most MEN2A patients (85%) are asymptomatic at MTC diagnosis, while 15% have presenting complaints (34). Especially in advanced disease diarrhea can be present. Peak incidence in index patients is in the third decade of life in MEN2A.

 

In MEN2B, MTC occurs very early, over 80% have MTC in their first year of life (30), underscoring the necessity of thyroidectomy before the age of 1. Unfortunately, the substantial diagnostic delay due to the high proportions of de novo mutations, median age of thyroidectomy in MEN2B patients is 14 years (30). The outcome of MTC in MEN2B is correlated to the way the diagnosis is made. If the diagnosis is made after recognition of nonendocrine symptoms, patients are significantly younger at diagnosis and therefore have often less lymph node metastases (43% vs 100%) or distant metastases (8% vs 79%) and were more often biochemically cured after treatment (58% vs 0%) (35). If the diagnosis is made before the age of 1 year, when there is only a preliminary stage of MTC, patients can be cured.  

 

Pheochromocytoma (PHEO) 

 

PHEOs are catecholamine-secreting tumors that arise from chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla. Prevalence of PHEO in MEN2A is 17-42% compared to 50% in MEN2B with median age at diagnosis 42 and 24 years respectively (13). Extra-adrenal PHEO is very rare in MEN2. Tumoral hypersecretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine causes episodic headache, sweating, and tachycardia with 50% of MEN2 patients being symptomatic. PHEO was the first presenting manifestation in 25% in MEN2A patients and 6% in MEN2B (8). PHEO is bilateral in most cases and rarely malignant (0-4%) (8,13). MEN2-related PHEO typically produce epinephrine or both epinephrine and norepinephrine, but not exclusively norepinephrine (36).

 

Primary Hyperparathyroidism (pHPT) 

 

pHPT is caused by a parathyroid adenoma or hyperplasia with autonomous secretion of PTH, leading to elevated calcium levels. Disease is multiglandular in the majority of patients, but can occur metachronous, with long intervals with normocalcemia, simulating single gland disease (37). The prevalence in MEN2 is RET-mutation dependent, varying from 0-35% and pHPT is rarely the first manifestation with median age at diagnosis between 35-46 years of age (23,38). Since most MEN2 patients have mild pHPT, most patients are asymptomatic at diagnosis (56-88%). Symptoms of pHPT are often nonspecific, like constipation, fatigue, depression, anorexia, nausea, and polyuria. pHPT is rarely seen in MEN-2B patients. 

 

Cutaneous Lichen Amyloidosis (CLA) 

 

CLA is an uncommon disease characterized by pruritic lichenoid papules and 

occurs rarely in MEN2A patients. In sporadic cases they occur in the pretibial bilateral regions, and in MEN2A patients the lesions typically occur in the (inter)scapular regions (fig 1) (39). Although MEN2A patients rarely develop CLA, if it occurs this will be at a mean age of 20 years and is often 11 years prior to the diagnosis of MEN2A in index patients. 

Therefore patients with an atypical location of CLA must be considered for RET testing (39). 

 

Hirschsprung’s Disease (HD) 

 

Most patients with HD will present shortly after birth and those with exon 10 RET mutation must be screened for MEN2A (12). Older MEN-2A patients with exon 10 RET mutations and colonic symptoms must be evaluated for HD.

 

DIAGNOSIS AND SCREENING

 

The diagnosis of MEN2 is established when a RET pathological variant is detected by molecular genetic testing. Genetic screening can identify gene carriers with high accuracy (98%) (40). Sanger or next generation sequencing are the recommended methods to detect RET mutations in exon 10 (codons 609, 611, 618, and 620), exon 11 (codons 630 and 634), and exons 8, 13, 14, 15, and 16 (12). For MEN2B, the M918T mutation (exon 16) and A883F mutation (exon 15) should be evaluated. If initial sequence analysis is negative, and the clinical suspicion of a genetic syndrome remains high based on family history, physical characteristics, young age at diagnosis, or pathologic findings in the thyroid such as extensive CCH or bilateral MTC, then whole gene sequencing should be considered (12). Patients who present with MTC, even with a negative family history need to be screened for RET mutations, as up to ~25% will be found to have a hereditary syndrome. At least 33% of all PHEO patients have a familial disorder, affected succinate dehydrogenase genes, Von Hippel Lindau (VHL) and MEN2 are the most frequently identified syndromes (41,42). The relative percentage of underlying germline mutation depends on the age of onset, family history, or clinical features like multifocal-, bilateral- or metastatic disease, but genetic screening need to be considered in all patients with PHEO. Those with other clinical characteristics, associated with MEN2, such as HD or CLA in the interscapular/scapular region should also be considered for testing (12). Those with physical characteristics suggestive of MEN2B such as mucosal neuromas and alacrima also need to be considered for genetic screening. Accurate evaluation of early onset severe constipation can lead to the detection of intestinal ganglioneuromatosis. These patients need to be screened as well for MEN2(31). A negative family history is not reliable in excluding patients from genetic testing, since about 40% of MEN2A gene carriers do not develop clinically apparent disease. De novo mutations are rare in MEN2A (up to 10%), in contrast to MEN2B, where de novo mutations are more frequent (45% of A883F carriers and 84% M918T carriers), emphasizing the limited value of a negative family history in MEN2B (13). First-degree relatives of patients with proven MEN2 should be offered genetic counseling. All patients of reproductive age carrying RET mutations, particularly those with mutations in codon 634 and 918, should be offered genetic counseling and be informed on the benefits and the potential risks of reproductive options, such as prenatal diagnosis and preimplantation diagnostic testing (12). Furthermore, the option of genetic testing in offspring should be discussed with future parents, where testing either directly after birth or at an older age could be discussed, based on the specific mutation in the family as well as individual preferences of the parents.

 

Patients at risk or with MTC, where genetic testing is not possible, should be under surveillance for MTC, PHEO and pHPT. There are very rare families who meet the clinical criteria for MEN2A (one or more first-degree relatives have characteristic clinical features for MEN2A), where no causative pathogenic variant in RET can be found. In these families, the periodically screening for MTC, PHEO and pHPT should be considered in the first degree relatives at risk (12).  

 

Once a mutation is identified, the carrier should be screened for related manifestations, e.g., MTC, PHEO and pHPT. Prophylactic thyroidectomy is the mainstay of the treatment with the risk classification of the mutation defining the optimal age (see section on surgical treatment for MTC). Annual biochemical screening for all three manifestations is recommended, combined with neck ultrasound and physical examination, starting at an age based on the ATA risk category (12). Patients with M918T mutation should have a thyroidectomy within the first year of life. Patients with an ATA high risk often develop MTC in the first years of life as well, so annual screening from the age of 3 with physical examination, serum calcitonin, and cervical ultrasound is recommended by the current ATA guideline (12). The phenotypes in the ATA moderate risk category varies significantly and the development of MTC is at a later age in most patients, but clinical MTC can occur before the age of 10 in this group as well. Therefore, annual screening for MTC is advised from the age of 5 (12). Family members, who have no pathological RET variant, do not need to undergo biochemical testing.

 

Medullary Thyroid Cancer

 

For MTC, biochemical testing is similar to patients with sporadic disease. Patients with clinical MTC have elevated serum calcitonin. Calcitonin is a neuropeptide derived from the parafollicular cells (C-cells) of the thyroid and calcitonin levels are directly related with C-cell (tumor) volume (43,44).

 

Patients with CCH or subclinical MTC usually do not have elevated basal serum levels of calcitonin. Physicians screening patients for CCH or subclinical MTC must be thoroughly familiar with the particular calcitonin assay being used, as normal ranges vary. Reference ranges for calcitonin differ among laboratories, and are also gender and age dependent (45,46). Calcitonin is higher in boys and in both sexes, a significant decrease in calcitonin levels is observed after the second year of life. Several studies defined age-, and gender specific calcitonin levels in a pediatric population, but since the normal range of calcitonin varies between the different assays and laboratories, basal calcitonin is of limited help in the initial management of very young children and infants (45,46). Since, there are no globally accepted calcitonin cutoff levels to predict MTC, each institution has to define its own reference ranges and clinicians should use the same laboratory and essay for serial measurements. Elevated calcitonin levels are an indication for thyroidectomy.  

 

Provocative tests like pengastrin- or calcium stimulated calcitonin tests have no added value anymore since identification of mutation carriers is replaced by genetic testing and the newest immunochemiluminometric calcitonin assays are highly sensitive and specific for monomeric calcitonin. A recent study by Niederle, et al. illustrated no added value of calcium-stimulated calcitonin compared to basal calcitonin in the diagnosis of (sporadic) MTC or to differentiate between patients with CCH and micro-MTC in those with only mildly elevated calcitonin levels (47).

 

Pheochromocytoma

 

Screening for PHEO should be performed in all MEN2 patients prior to therapeutic thyroidectomy, as well as in female MEN2 patients who are considering pregnancy, to avoid a potential hypertensive crisis. Furthermore, annual screening for PHEO should be performed in all children in ATA highest and high risk categories from age 11 onwards, and in moderate risk children by age 16 (table 1) (12). PHEO is likely when elevated plasma concentrations of free metanephrines or elevated 24-hour urinary fractionated metanephrines and normetanephrines are detected. Practitioners should be aware of the pitfalls, conditions of sampling and possible influencing factors when analyzing the (nor)metanephrines to minimize the risk of false-positive results (42). MEN2-related PHEO produce epinephrine or both epinephrine and norepinephrine, but not exclusively norepinephrine (36).

 

When there is biochemical evidence for PHEO, imaging studies need to be initiated to locate the PHEO. Computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the adrenal glands is the first choice of imaging. CT has a high sensitivity (93-100%) in detecting intraadrenal tumors > 5 mm(36).  

 

Primary Hyperparathyroidism

 

Screening for pHPT is similar to those with sporadic disease and includes measurement of (ionized) calcium or serum calcium with albumin and intact PTH. Additional evaluation and follow up of bone density and kidney function in patients with pHPT is advised. ATA guidelines recommend that annual screening start at the same time as screening for PHEO: at age 11 for those in the high risk category and at age 16 for those in the moderate risk category (table 1)(12). Once pHPT is diagnosed, imaging studies are advised to visualize enlarged parathyroid glands. Neck ultrasoundshould be part of the diagnostic strategy. Combined radiology techniques increase localization accuracy, so the combination of neck ultrasound with parathyroid scintigraphy with Technetium (Tc) 99m sestamibi, 18F-fluorocholinePET/CT, or 4-dimensional CT is recommended. The type of imaging to use must be based on knowledge of the clinician regional imaging capabilities and experience (48).

 

Given the intra- and interfamilial variability in PHEO and pHPT incidence, a static surveillance was advised by the ATA guideline. Some authors have suggested to tailor the frequency of biochemical screening for PHEO and pHPT, based on age and ATA risk category (49). However, large prospective studies are needed to validate their findings on age-related penetrance before a more tailored surveillance by age can be applied.

 

SURGICAL MANAGEMENT

 

PHEO may cause a dangerous hypertensive crisis during surgery (12,50). Therefore, PHEO should be excluded preoperatively in all patients. Very young patients who undergo prophylactic thyroidectomy may be excluded from this advice, since PHEO is not described in patients <8 years old (51). If present, the PHEO should be resected prior to surgery for either MTC or pHPT (12).

 

Adrenalectomy

 

Surgical resection is the cornerstone of treatment for PHEO (52). To prevent hypertensive crisis during surgery, caused by vasoconstriction due to catecholamine release, adult as well as pediatric patients should be prepared preoperatively during 1-2 weeks using α-adrenergic blockade (52–54). In case of tachycardia, additional treatment with β-adrenergic blockade should be started (52,54). A minimally invasive technique such as the laparoscopic or retroperitoneoscopic approach is recommended (12,52). The transabdominal and retroperitoneal approach take place in the lateral and prone position, respectively. There is increasing evidence in favor of the retroperitoneoscopic approach due to less blood loss, shorter operation time and length of stay, and less postoperative pain (55,56). Sixty-five percent of MEN2 associated PHEO are initially bilateral (54). The majority of patients with unilateral PHEO develop contralateral disease within 10 years (12,54). To prevent lifelong steroid dependency, adrenal cortical function should be preserved for as long as possible. Therefore, for patients with unilateral PHEO, unilateral resection is the treatment of choice, despite the high chance of developing a contralateral PHEO (12). Moreover, cortical function can be preserved by performing a subtotal adrenalectomy. This is appropriate for patients with bilateral, as well as unilateral PHEO (12,57). An international retrospective study showed excellent results in 563 MEN2 patients of who 114 (21%) underwent adrenal-sparing surgery. Steroid dependency was avoided in 57% of patients after adrenal-sparing surgery for bilateral PHEO. Recurrence of PHEO after adrenal-sparing surgery occurred in 3% of the 153 operated glands (57).

 

Parathyroidectomy

 

The amount of affected parathyroids in MEN2A patients varies from a single to all glands (5). Only the enlarged glands should be resected (12,48). Due to the short half-life (3 minutes) of PTH, intraoperative PTH monitoring can help determine whether parathyroidectomy has been successful. If PTH values remain elevated, it is necessary to look for other enlarged parathyroids (48). The surgical approach is tailored to the amount and location of the enlarged glands. In case of one affected parathyroid, minimally invasive adenomectomy is the treatment of choice. In case of more enlarged glands a conventional exploration is performed. If all (four) glands are enlarged, a part of one parathyroid should be left in situ on a vascular pedicle or transplanted heterotopically to preserve parathyroid function (12,48). In some cases, pHPT is diagnosed at the same time as MTC. For these patients, thyroidectomy and parathyroidectomy can be performed during one surgery.

 

Preoperative imaging and marking of the location of the parathyroid adenoma is essential to perform minimally invasive adenomectomy. The incision is made right above the parathyroid, to reduce incision length and limit dissection. Conventional neck exploration is a more extensive procedure. After incision of the skin and passage of the platysma, the linea alba colli is dissected and the strap muscles are lateralized. Hereafter, mindful of the recurrent laryngeal nerve, the parathyroids can be identified and removed beyond the thyroid (58).

 

Thyroidectomy

 

Surgery is the only curative option for patients with MTC and remains the cornerstone of MTC treatment. Since virtually all MEN2 patients develop MTC, the question is not whether MEN2 patients should undergo thyroidectomy, but at what age? To prevent recurrence, it is essential that the thyroid is entirely removed, given the multifocal and bilateral growth in inherited MTC. If possible, thyroidectomy should be performed prophylactically, before developing (clinically relevant) MTC (12). Central neck dissection is not indicated in MEN2A patients with normal calcitonin and neck ultrasound undergoing prophylactic thyroidectomy. Genetic screening in family members of RET mutation carriers have led to the early diagnosis of MEN2 in a significant proportion of patients. Early prophylactic thyroidectomy in these patients is associated with excellent results and minimal operative morbidity: biochemical cure rates approximating 100% over 7-16 years of follow up (59,60). However, timing of thyroidectomy in known mutation carriers is challenging as risk of surgery in younger infants should be balanced with the probability of curing the patient. Surgery in (young) pediatric patients should be performed in specialized centers by experienced surgeons. Current decision making is mostly based on specific RET mutation (ATA risk category), age, and calcitonin levels (12,61).

 

Patients in the highest ATA risk category (table 1) should undergo total thyroidectomy within the first year of life. Timing of surgery in this group cannot be based on calcitonin levels since calcitonin levels are naturally high in the first months after birth. Risk of complications, especially the risk of hypoparathyroidism due to the inability to identify the parathyroids, is increased in children and infants (62). Therefore, if there are no suspicious lymph nodes and the parathyroids cannot be identified, central neck dissection might not be necessary.

 

The ATA high risk category consists of patients with RET codon C634 and A883F mutation. Children in this category should undergo screening for possible MTC from the age of three. These patients should undergo total thyroidectomy before the age of five, or earlier based on their calcitonin values (12). Considering the risk of complications, surgery before the age of three is not advised in this group (63). If lymph node metastases are suspected or calcitonin levels are >40 pg/ml, central neck dissection is needed.

 

Patients in the ATA moderate risk category generally develop a less aggressive type of MTC at an older age. These patients should be screened every 6-12 months from the age of five and should undergo thyroidectomy in childhood or early adulthood primarily based on calcitonin levels. Alternatively, thyroidectomy can be timed before calcitonin is elevated as yearly screening and calcitonin elevation might impose a psychological burden. Timing of thyroidectomy should be in consultation with child’s parents and involved pediatricians and surgeons. ‘Prophylactic’ thyroidectomy is advised from the age of five in this moderate risk group (12).

 

The best calcitonin cut off point to prevent loco regional disease varies between studies. A large French multicenter study showed that no lymph node metastases were detected when calcitonin was <31 pg/mL while a Norwegian study found that all patients were cured when calcitonin was <40 pg/mL before total thyroidectomy (64,65). These studies on calcitonin levels illustrate that progression from CCH to MTC is imminent once calcitonin levels exceeds the upper limit of normal and the ‘window of opportunity’ to perform surgery without addition of extended node dissection is closing. Therefore, thyroidectomy should be performed once calcitonin levels exceed the upper limit of normal (12).   

 

For patients with de novo mutations or unknown MEN2, MTC is often already present at first presentation. In adults with normal calcitonin values, the ATA guideline advises yearly screening and surgery when calcitonin becomes elevated (12). Two studies show that calcitonin values <20 and <60 pg/ml are associated with intrathyroidal MTC, and that calcitonin can be safely used to determine timing of surgery (61,66). Unfortunately, these patients usually present with higher calcitonin values and advanced disease. Ultrasound of the neck is performed prior to therapeutic surgery as it may give important information as to the extent of macroscopic thyroid and lymph node disease, not apparent on clinical exam. Patients with clinically apparent MTC on either clinical exam or neck ultrasound should undergo screening for metastatic disease, with attention to the most common sites such as the lungs, mediastinal lymph nodes, liver, and bones. Patients with markedly elevated serum calcitonin levels (>500 pg/ml) or extensive neck disease should also be screened for distant metastatic disease.   

 

The standard treatment for MTC consists of total thyroidectomy and central neck dissection. There is no controversy regarding the need for central neck (level 6) lymph node dissection for MEN2 patients with clinically apparent MTC. Metastases to central neck lymph nodes are noted in up to 81% of patients with palpable tumors (67,68).

 

In case of cervical lymph node metastases in the lateral compartment of the neck, patients should undergo additional dissection of the lateral neck compartments (levels II–V) (12). Unfortunately, patients with cervical lymph node metastases can only be cured by total thyroidectomy and extensive lymph node dissection in 10% of cases (54,69,70). Lateral neck dissection in the absence of clinical or radiologic pathological lymph nodes (prophylactic lateral dissection) has no prognostic value (71). Patients with distant metastases cannot be treated with curative intent. In case of poor prognosis and locally advanced disease invading the surrounding structures, a less aggressive palliative resection should be considered for the purpose of local control and preservation of quality of life (12).

 

Standard procedure for thyroidectomy is the open approach. The patient’s neck is positioned in hyperextension. After Kocher incision 1 cm above jugulum, the thyroid is visualized by dissection of the platysma, opening of the linea alba colli and lateralization of the strap muscles. The thyroid is dissected and mobilized starting at the superior or inferior pole, depending on the surgeon’s preference. The thyroid vasculature should be ligated, clipped or sealed. Identification and preservation of the recurrent laryngeal nerve (located in the tracheoesophageal groove) and parathyroids (located posterior to the thyroid) is essential to prevent complications. After mobilization of one lobe, the same procedure is performed on the contralateral lobe. Thereafter, dissection of the central neck is performed (72,73).

 

RECURRENT OR METASTATIC DISEASE

 

Surveillance After Surgery

 

Patients who underwent surgery for one of the manifestations should be screened for disease recurrence. For PHEO and pHPT, screening is the same as initial screening, i.e. annual biochemical evaluation with plasma fractionated metanephrines and calcium (see diagnosis and screening), with the first evaluation 2-4 weeks after surgery, followed by imaging in case of biochemical evidence for disease (42).

 

After thyroidectomy, the risk of recurrence is based on the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) Tumor, Node, Metastases (TNM) classification, the total number of metastatic lymph nodes resected and pre- and postoperative calcitonin (12,64,65,69,74). Since calcitonin is a marker for tumor volume, pre- and post-operative calcitonin correlate with the extend of disease. A fairly standard post-operative follow up regimen to detect recurrent MTC includes physical examination, neck ultrasound, and measurement of serum calcitonin and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels every 6-12 months, depending on the initial postoperative findings (12). Post-operative calcitonin should be measured 3 months after surgery and undetectable following complete removal of thyroid tissue (75).

 

In patients with undetectable post-operative calcitonin, surveillance should be repeated after 6 months and then every 12 months if it remains undetectable. These patients are considered biochemically cured with 10-year disease specific survival rate of 100% (61).

 

In patients with detectable calcitonin <150 pg/ml, persistent disease is mostly confined to cervical lymph nodes. Calcitonin should be repeated every 6 months in these cases together with ultrasound of the neck to detect persistent disease (12,76). Fine-needle aspiration for cytology can be used to confirm recurrence or residual disease.

 

Post-operative calcitonin >150 pg/ml is an indication for evaluation of distant metastasis by imaging procedures (CT or MRI) with focus on the lungs, liver and axial skeleton. The clinical utility of PET/CT with various radiopharmaceutical tracers in MTC is limited (77). Currently, only 18F-FDOPA PET/CT have an acceptable sensitivity for the detection of distant metastatic disease in MEN2 with a patient detection rate of 66% in patients suspected of recurrent MTC (77,78).      

 

CEA is a non-specific marker which may be elevated in patients with MTC. It is not useful for early diagnosis, but has a role for monitoring disease progression and for detecting recurrence after thyroidectomy. CEA levels should be obtained concurrently with calcitonin measurements. In rare cases, serum CEA increases progressively while calcitonin remains stable or decreases. This suggests cellular dedifferentiation and a more aggressive course of disease, or secondary non-MEN2 related malignancy like colon carcinoma.

 

In case of biochemical or radiological evidence for residual disease, recurrence, or metastatic disease, the tumor growth rate can be estimated from sequential imaging studies using response evaluation criteria in solid tumors (RECIST) or by CEA and calcitonin serial measurements over time (12). Calcitonin and CEA doubling times are efficient biomarkers for assessing tumor progression. In one study, 94% of patients with doubling times within two years showed RECIST defined disease progression (79). Consequently, the doubling time of each biomarker has an important prognostic value, especially when values double within a year, survival rates are much lower compared to longer doubling times (80,81). Disease progression should be confirmed on imaging before initiating systemic treatment.  

 

Treatment of Recurrent or Metastatic Disease in MTC

 

LOCAL RECURRENCE  

 

The treatment of recurrent MTC in patients with genetic syndromes is similar to their sporadic counterparts and remains challenging. In patients with disease confined to the neck, an aggressive surgical approach may be considered since surgery is the only curative treatment in MTC. There is generally little role for external beam radiation therapy (EBRT) to the neck. The intent of EBRT is to achieve local control since there is no survival benefit demonstrated (82,83). The recent ATA guidelines suggest that EBRT may be helpful in selected circumstances where the risk of local recurrence is felt to be high (12). These circumstances are very limited since the benefits must outweigh toxicity and the potential for making subsequent neck re-exploration, if required, more difficult. Post-operative radiation therapy is reasonable in those patients in whom there is gross residual disease, particularly if there is a concern for potential airway compromise.

 

METASTATIC DISEASE

 

Patients with metastatic disease should be carefully evaluated and the course of disease must be determined to optimize and tailor treatment. The timing of treatment initiation and the choice of treatment depends on the rate of disease progression and symptoms versus the quality of life, treatment efficacy and toxicity.

 

In patients with an indolent course of disease or low tumor burden without symptoms, a watch-and-wait strategy can be followed. Imaging should be repeated every 6 months in these patients. If calcitonin doubling time is less than 6 months, imaging should be more frequent (84).   

 

In patients presenting with local symptoms or complications such as airway- or spinal cord compression, neurological symptoms, or pathological bone fractures, local treatment modalities such as surgery, glucocorticoid therapy, and/or ERBT must be used before initiating systemic therapy. Treatment of symptomatic bone or brain metastases from MTC is similar to metastases due to other histologic types. Those with painful bone metastases may have a good symptomatic response to EBRT, and bisphosphonate therapy may also be helpful (12,85).

 

In patients with symptomatic or RECIST defined progressive disease and a significant tumor burden, systemic therapy should be considered. A significant tumor burden is defined as multiple lesions >1-2 centimeters in diameter (84).      

 

The choice of first line systemic treatment is not clear, since the armamentarium of therapeutic options is still expanding, direct head-to-head comparison is missing, and availability and approval is varying between countries. There is no role for radioactive iodine (RAI). C-cells do not take up RAI and no benefit was observed in a multicenter study (86). Current options in metastatic MTC are chemotherapy, multikinase inhibitors (vandetanib, cabozantinib) and selective RET inhibitors (pralsetinib, selpercatinib).

 

Data on cytotoxic chemotherapy is heterogeneous and the study population is small in most papers. The response rate is around 20% in most studies and 5FU/dacarbazine regimen or doxorubicin, alone or in combination with cisplatin seems to be the best choice (84). Because of the poor response rates and adverse events, chemotherapy is no longer first line treatment.  

 

Two multikinase inhibitors (MKI) have been approved by both the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the European Medicines Agency (EMA) for the treatment of MTC patients: vandetanib and cabozantinib. Other multikinase inhibitors are under investigation (23). The kinases of RET and of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor-2 (VEGFR-2) are the main targets in MTC. Vandetanib and cabozantinib target both these kinases among others. Significant increases in progression free survival (PFS) were observed (vandetanib +11 months; cabozantinib +7 months), compared with placebo but toxicity was also significant (toxicity (>grade 2) for vandetanib and cabozantinib: 55% (24%) and 69% (33%)) respectively, leading to discontinuation of treatment or dose reduction in a significant proportion of study participants (87,88). Studies in hMTC showed better response rates. Vandetanib had an overall disease control rate of 73% in 30 patients with hMTC with an estimated PFS of >27 months (89). In 17 adolescents and children with MEN2B-associated MTC, 10 had partial response and 6 stable disease with vandetanib (90). PFS was prolonged with cabozantinib versus placebo (60 vs 20 weeks) in a subgroup of patients with RET mutations (91).

 

Selpercatinib and pralsetinib are selective RET kinase inhibitors with more specific RET-targeting. This have led to an improved side effect profile and higher response rates in phase I/II studies (92,93).

 

Selpercatinib (former LOXO-292) showed a 69% response rate and 82% 1-year PFS in 55 patients with progressive RET-mutant MTC who had previously received vandetanib or cabozantinib. Response rate in MKI treatment naïve patients (n=88) was 73% and 1-years PFS 92%. Hypertension (21%) and diarrhea (6%) were the most important grade 3 side effects and 2% discontinued medication because of adverse events (92). 

 

Pralsetinib (former BLU-667) is being evaluated in the ARROW trial (ongoing). Response rate in previously MKI treated patients was 60% and 71% in TKI-naïve patients. Serious treatment related adverse events were reported in 15% and 4% discontinued medication.  

 

Several other potential therapies are under investigation, including immunotherapy and peptide receptor radionuclide therapy (PRRT) (23). Despite the advances of MKI over conventional chemotherapy, the clinical utility is still limited. The absence of overall survival benefit and severe toxicity profiles leading to a reduction in quality of life are thresholds for treatment initiation. Drug resistance is another major issue in MKI treatment and still poorly understood. A selective RET kinase inhibitor seems to be a better treatment choice in patients harboring RET germline mutations, regarding the high objective response rates and better toxicity profiles in phase I/II studies. However, trials are still ongoing and large, phase 3 trials are needed before we can determine its true value in the clinical armamentarium.   

 

Treatment of Metastatic Disease in PHEO

 

Malignant PHEO is rare in MEN2 (0-4%). Surgery is the only potential curative option in malignant PHEO. In recurrent or low volume metastatic disease, local inventions such as surgical resection, ablation, or ERBT must be discussed in an experienced multidisciplinary team. For the time being, systemic treatment is similar to sporadic malignant PHEO. With ongoing advances in MKI and selective RET inhibitors, tailored management for MEN2-related PHEO could be possible in the future. Current systemic options in metastatic disease are Iodine-131 metaiodobenzylguanidine (131I-MIBG), PRRT with radiolabeled somatostatin analogues (PRRT), MKI (i.e. sunitinib), or conventional chemotherapy with cyclophosphamide, vincristine, and dacarbazine (13,94).      

 

PROGNOSIS

 

MTC is the major cause of death in MEN2. PHEO does not seem to have an association with shorter survival: median survival is 499 months in patients with PHEO vs. 444 months without (95). Prognosis of patients with sMTC and those with inherited disease is similar after adjustment of age and disease stage at diagnosis in multivariate analysis (34). Together with the presence of certain RET mutations, serum calcitonin, and number of lymph node metastases, these parameters are important factors influencing prognosis. The 10-year overall survival for patients with MTC was 64 % in population based study from Denmark (34)

 

Disease stage is one of the most important prognostic factors: 10-year disease specific survival for patients with MTC is 98%, 93%, 87%, and 53% for disease stage I-IV, respectively (34). In children with MTC, higher disease stage also portends a worse prognosis (90).

 

Age as an independent prognostic factor is preserved in some studies but not all studies (23). A poorer prognosis in older patients may be related to a more advanced tumor stage at diagnosis. The 5-year and 15-year survival rates in children with MTC is 95% and 86%, respectively. Mean survival after diagnosis in children is 28 years (96).  

 

10-year survival rate in MEN2A patients (97%) is better than in patients with MEN2B (76%) which might be influenced by an earlier onset of disease and delay in diagnosis of MTC in (de novo) MEN2B patients (97).

 

Furthermore, as mentioned above, a rapid CEA and/or calcitonin doubling time and high number of lymph node metastases at presentation are all harbingers of an aggressive disease course. 

 

To conclude, the amount of data which has accumulated over the last decade has truly been staggering, and has resulted in significant changes in MEN2A and MEN2B patient management. Further refinements in risk stratification will undoubtedly occur as additional long-term data become available on genotype-phenotype, effects of prophylactic thyroid surgery, and effects of surveillance. Molecular based therapies now offer hope to those with advanced or metastatic MTC. The increasing molecular knowledge and selective RET inhibitors will hopefully lead to new treatment strategies or therapies useful not only for metastatic MTC, but as adjuvant treatment in high-risk patients, or perhaps even in prevention. 

 

REFERENCES

 

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Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 1

ABSTRACT

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 1 (MEN1) is a rare autosomal dominantly inherited endocrine tumor predisposition syndrome, caused by mutations in the MEN1 gene. Cardinal manifestations are primary hyperparathyroidism (pHPT), pituitary adenomas (PA), and neuroendocrine tumors (NETs) of the pancreas (PanNET) and duodenum. Other manifestations are NETs of thymus, lung, and stomach, adrenal tumors, and an increased breast cancer risk in women. Malignant NETs are the most important cause of disease-related mortality, mainly NF-PanNETs, gastrinomas and thymus NETs. MEN1 can be diagnosed genetically and a clinical diagnosis in patients with negative comprehensive testing has been debated. Timely recognition of MEN1, referral for genetic testing and swift cascade screening is essential. MEN1-related pHPT (penetrance >95%) is a multiglandular disease and recurrence after initial operation is to be expected. Subtotal parathyroidectomy is the preferred initial operation. Prolactinomas are the most prevalent PA in MEN1, followed by non-functioning (NF) PAs. Treatment and treatment results do not differ from sporadic PAs. Life-time penetrance of duodenopancreatic NETs is >80%. NF-PanNETs are most frequent, followed by gastrinomas and insulinomas. Surgical resection is the mainstay of treatment, and is indicated in non-gastrinoma functional PanNETs and NF-PanNETs >2cm or with progression during follow-up. No consensus exists on the surgical treatment of MEN1-related gastrinoma. MEN1-related dpNETs are currently detected at earlier stages and more indolent small dpNETs are seen. The main challenge is to identify patients at risk for an aggressive disease course. Thymic NETs (2-8%) occur predominantly in males and have a poor prognosis. Bronchopulmonary NETs are more frequent than previously thought, occur in both sexes, and are usually indolent although cases with a deviant progressive course occur. Adrenal tumors are mostly indolent non-functioning adenomas, but adrenocortical carcinomas and pheochromocytomas do occur. Women with MEN1 have an increased (RR 2.8) risk of breast cancer, at a younger age than the general population. Given the complexity of the disease, it is strongly advised that patients, whenever possible, be followed and treated in centers of expertise.

 

 

INTRODUCTION

 

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 1 (MEN1) is an inherited endocrine tumor predisposition syndrome. The prevalence is estimated at 1 in 20.000 to 1 in 40.000, and is therefore considered a rare disease (1). The syndrome predisposes mutation carriers to develop several endocrine tumors (Figure 1) with a high lifetime incidence of primary hyperparathyroidism (pHPT), pituitary adenomas (PA), and neuroendocrine tumors (NETs) of the pancreas (PanNET) and duodenum (dNET) (2). These tumors are considered the cardinal manifestations of the syndrome. Besides the cardinal manifestations, patients with MEN1 are at a higher risk for developing NETs of the thymus, lung, and stomach. In addition, there is a higher risk for adrenal tumors and a higher risk for developing breast cancer in women (3, 4). Next to these endocrine manifestations, patients are at risk for developing several non-endocrine lesions of the skin and subcutaneous tumors such as lipomas.

 

Figure1. Manifestations of MEN1

After identification of the causative MEN1 mutation an intensive lifelong surveillance program follows, if possible, starting at childhood because of the high life-time risk for developing tumors (2). This intensive follow-up is aimed at early detection of tumors to enable timely interventions in order to prevent complications and metastases of tumors and thereby preventing premature death and improving the quality of the life of patients. In 2001 the first set of clinical practice guidelines was published by Brandi et al (5). Because of paucity of scientific evidence, these guidelines were mainly based on expert opinion. Although more evidence was available, the updated clinical guidelines of Thakker, et al. which were published in 2012 were also written in the absence of robust scientific evidence (2). However, publishing the clinical practice guidelines led to more structured care of patients, which facilitated studies of the natural course of the disease and the effect of follow-up and treatment strategies. Therefore, in the last two decades large and sometimes nation-wide MEN1 cohort studies were initiated which led to new insights into the course of the disease and knowledge about more optimal follow-up and treatment. However, to date there remains a paucity of prospective data from interventional trials designed specifically for MEN1 patients.

 

GENETICS

 

The MEN1 gene (OMIM 613733 (gene) and OMIM 131100 (phenotype)), identified in 1997  (6, 7), consists of 10 exons and is localized on chromosome 11q13. Exon 1, the 5’ region upstream of exon 2 and the 3’ region of exon 10 are non-coding, so there are 9 coding exons (exons 2 through 10). The MEN1 gen encodes the protein menin, a 610 amino-acid nuclear scaffold protein that regulates gene transcription by coordinating chromatin remodeling.

 

In 2008, Lemos and Thakker published an overview of the 459 different germline mutations reported in the first decade since the discovery of the gene (8). In 2016, Concolino, et al. identified an additional 208 novel germline variants, of which 76 were reported as Variant of Unknown Significance (VUS) (9). Around 40% of all identified mutations are frameshift mutations, 25% nonsense, 20% missense, 10% splice-site, and the remainder 5% are rarer mutations such as in-frame deletions/insertions and partial or whole gene deletions (10). Frameshift, nonsense, and splice-site mutations, which are the majority, are predicted to be loss of function mutations that lead to truncated forms of menin (8). The variants are scattered throughout the MEN1 gene with no evident hotspots, although some mutations are found in apparently unrelated families. This is considered to be a founder effect (11). Sequence analysis of the MEN1 gene will reveal most of the variants. Since 1-2% of the variants are (partial) deletions of the MEN1 gene (8), multiplex ligation-dependent probe amplification (MLPA) or Copy Number Variation (CNV) analysis should also be included in the diagnostic DNA testing.

 

When a sequence variant is identified in the MEN1 gene this is classified by the genetic laboratory as either benign or likely benign (which is considered a “negative” result i.e., no disease-causing variant is found, clinically similar to no sequence variant identified), as a VUS (uncertain if the variant is disease causing) or as pathogenic or likely pathogenic (which is considered a “positive” result, a disease-causing variant is found). Especially new non-truncating (mostly missense) mutations may be difficult to classify (12).

 

The approximate prevalence of MEN1 has been reported as 1 in 30,000 individuals with no apparent gender bias. MEN1 follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance with >95% penetrance by age 40–50 years (11). The cardinal clinical manifestations of MEN1 are primary hyperparathyroidism (pHPT), anterior pituitary adenomas (PA), and NET of the duodenum and pancreas, the so called three P’s.

 

If a patient is diagnosed with MEN1, he or she should be advised to undergo screening to detect manifestations and remain under lifelong surveillance in a center of expertise where care is provided by multidisciplinary teams (MDTs) comprising relevant specialists with experience in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with endocrine tumors (2).

 

Single center cohorts have identified certain genotypes that are associated with a more aggressive course of the disease (especially related to duodenopancreatic NETs), such as mutation in the JUND (13) or the CHES1 (14)interacting domain or nonsense/frameshift versus missense mutations (15), but since none of these associations have been independently validated, genotype cannot be used to individualize surveillance.

 

Evaluation of 10 Dutch families suggest genetic anticipation (decreased age of disease onset or an increased disease severity in successive generations), a known phenomenon which to date cannot be explained in autosomal dominant inherited disease genes without trinucleotide repeat expansions (“growing genes”) (16). Somatic mosaicism with subsequent germline inheritance has been described (17).

 

Function of the MEN1 Gene

 

MEN1 is considered to act as a tumor suppressor gene which is demonstrated by the identification of inactivating mutations, together with loss of heterozygosity (LOH) in MEN1-related tumors. Biochemical, proteomics, genetics and genomics approaches have identified various potential roles, which converge on the regulation of gene expression. The most consistent findings show that menin connects transcription factors including JUND (OMIM 165162), NFKB (OMIM 164011), and SMAD3 (OMIM 603109) and modulates their activities. In the nucleus, menin acts as a scaffold protein to regulate gene transcription by coordinating chromatin remodeling interacting with chromatin regulatory proteins in the MLL1 /MLL2 complex. Menin is implicated in both histone deacetylase and histone methyltransferase activity (HMT), and via the latter it regulates the expression of cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor (CDKI) and homeobox domain genes (18, 19). While the MEN1 gene functions as a tumor suppressor gene in MEN1, it has an oncogenic role in sporadic breast cancer cells (18). Some excellent reviews on the function of the MEN1 gene can be found elsewhere (11, 18, 20).

 

Potential Therapeutic Opportunities (18)

 

Loss of menin in MEN1-associated tissues, leads to the disruption of anti-proliferative gene expression programs and to the development of endocrine tumors. Restoration of the epigenetic perturbations or correction of the function of aberrantly expressed genes in the absence of menin hold promise for molecular mechanism-based means to treat or prevent MEN1-related tumors. The fate and function of a cell are determined by its gene expression signature. As menin is a transcriptional regulator, MEN1-related tumorigenesis is likely to be the result of aberrant tumor suppressive gene expression due to the loss of menin. Restoration of the expression of menin target genes in MEN1-affected tissues could therefore have therapeutic consequences. This has been shown in a preclinical study in mice, where MEN1 replacement in pituitary tumors of Men1 (+/-) mice led to a decrease in proliferation of the pituitary tumors (21).

 

DIAGNOSIS AND GENETIC TESTING

 

Diagnosis of MEN1

 

Patients with MEN1 are at risk to develop different endocrine and non-endocrine manifestations. The most important of which are (with approximate lifetime prevalence in parentheses):

  • Cardinal manifestations/Major criteria: pHPT (>95%), duodenopancreatic NETs (dpNETs) (>80%) and anterior pituitary tumors (50–65%)
  • Minor clinical criteria: adrenal adenomas (11–35%) and bronchopulmonary, thymic, and gastric NETs (20–30%) (22, 23).

 

Additionally, there might be an association with meningioma (<10%). Cutaneous manifestations such as subcutaneous lipomas (but visceral, pleural, or retroperitoneal lipomas have also been described), facial angiofibromas (22-88%) and collagenomas (0-72%) are also seen (2). Women with MEN1 have a 2-3-fold elevated risk of developing breast cancer (3, 4).

Presently, MEN1 can be diagnosed genetically by identifying the germline heterozygous (likely) pathogenic variant in the MEN1 gene through DNA analysis. According to the guidelines, a diagnosis of MEN1 can also be made on familial grounds in a patient with one of the cardinal MEN1 manifestations and a first-degree family member with MEN1 (2). Additionally, a clinical diagnosis can be made in individuals with two of the three cardinal manifestations (2). However, with modern-day sensitive DNA testing, the value of the clinical criterion in patients with negative DNA testing is under debate. There is mounting evidence that patients who have clinical MEN1, but negative DNA testing have a different clinical course from patients with positive DNA testing (24, 25). The same could also be argued for patients with a familial diagnosis with negative DNA testing for the family mutation, as these may have a sporadically occurring endocrine tumor. This subject is discussed in more detail in the paragraph on genetic heterogeneity.

 

Patients with MEN1 suffer from high morbidity and a decreased life expectancy. In the present day and age, MEN1-related malignancy is the main MEN1-related cause of death, particularly due to duodenopancreatic and thymic NETs (26, 27). A timely and accurate diagnosis of MEN1 is paramount to improve disease outcomes. This enables early identification of tumor manifestations allowing timely treatment to reduce morbidity and improve survival (28).

 

It is therefore important for clinicians to consider the diagnosis of MEN1 not only in those patients meeting clinical or familial criteria, but also in patients with a suspicious family or personal medical history, but not meeting clinical or familial diagnostic criteria. In patients presenting with an endocrine tumor within the MEN1 spectrum, taking a family history of MEN1-related tumors is very important. Additionally, a young age at presentation or multifocality of tumors within a single organ may point to a diagnosis of MEN1. The combination of a major and minor criterion or two minor criteria should also raise suspicion of MEN1. In all these cases of suspected MEN1, the patient should be referred to a clinical geneticist or genetic counselor for counseling and consideration of DNA testing. For patients presenting with sporadically occurring endocrine tumors, de Laat, et al. developed and validated a prediction rule to predict the presence of an MEN1 mutation (29). In this model, recurrent pHPT, non-recurrent pHPT, dpNETs, PA, NET of the stomach, lung and thymus, a positive family history for a NET and age, predicted the risk of having MEN1. The authors developed a nonogram for clinical practice, allowing the clinician to calculate the risk of MEN1 in patients suspected of MEN1 with sporadically occurring endocrine tumors (29).

 

DNA Testing

 

According to current practice guidelines diagnostic DNA testing for MEN1 should be offered to (2):

  • all patients fulfilling the diagnostic criteria of a clinical or familial MEN1 diagnosis
  • all patients with a pHPT under the age of 30 or multiple (synchronous) parathyroid adenomas under the age of 40 or recurrent parathyroid adenomas
  • patients with a gastrin-producing NET (irrespective the age of presentation)
  • patients with multiple PanNETs (irrespective the age of presentation)
  • patients with two different minor criteria
  • a patient with an MEN1-related tumor with a positive family history of MEN1-related tumors

 

Once MEN1 is diagnosed in the proband, genetic counseling and DNA testing should be offered to family members, preferably by means of cascade screening. Data from the DutchMEN Study Group (DMSG) emphasize the importance of timely genetic testing of family members and prompt clinical screening according to MEN1 guidelines. In a study determining lag time between MEN1 diagnosis in index cases and their non-index family members, they found a median lag time of 3.5 years (range 0-30) years, in which clinically significant manifestations occurred in the non-index family members with MEN1 (30). Genetic testing in asymptomatic family members of MEN1 patients is called pre-symptomatic or predictive genetic testing and involves testing the at-risk family members for the familial MEN1 mutation. This is single-site testing, and outcome is whether the family mutation is present or absent in this particular family member.

 

Genetic Heterogeneity

 

Some studies have reported that between 5% and 10% of patient who fulfill the clinical criteria for MEN1 will not harbor mutations in the coding region or adjacent splice sites. In some of these patients a (likely) pathogenic variant can be found in the CDKN1A (OMIM 600778 ), CDKN1B (OMIM 116899 ), CDKN2B (OMIM 600431 ) or CDKN2Cgene (OMIM 603369 ). Mutations in CDKN1B are the cause of the MEN4 syndrome, the latest of the MEN syndromes and most rare, with <50 cases reported in the literature to date (31-33). Rather than being a separate phenotype, (likely) pathogenic variants in these genes are more likely to cause a MEN1 phenotype, with pHPT, PA and gastroenteropancreatic NETs as the main features, and are best met with the same guidelines for surveillance, until more is known about the phenotype of this rare syndrome.

 

Recent data have shown that patients with a clinical diagnosis of MEN1, in whom no (likely) pathogenic variant in the MEN1 gene can be found (genotype-negative MEN1/GN-MEN1), and who do not have another known germline mutation, have a different phenotype and clinical course compared to mutation positive patients (24, 25). Genotype-negative patients develop MEN1 manifestations at higher age, rarely develop a third main MEN1 manifestation, and have a life expectancy comparable with the general population (24, 25).

 

Additionally, regarding the individual manifestations, it seems that GN-MEN1 patients have less recurrent or multigland pHPT, less multifocal PanNETs, and more somatotrophinomas and less prolactinomas compared to genotype-positive patients (25). Most patients with GN-MEN1 present with the combination of pHPT and PA, followed by pHPT/dpNET and dpNET/PA (25). The apparent differences in clinical course suggest that GN-MEN1 patients do not have true MEN1, but another MEN1-like syndrome or sporadic co-incidence of two NETs (2, 33). In these patients there is usually a negative family history for MEN1-related disease. Although not specified in the current guidelines, these patients may benefit from a separate classification with alternative surveillance recommendations based on the clinical picture, as has been suggested by Pieterman, et al. (25). Important baseline considerations for an alternative surveillance are genetic counseling, comprehensive genetic testing based on the personal and family history, and baseline screening to identify any unrecognized manifestations. In these patients, there is generally no cause for surveillance of the first-degree relatives, although these decisions should be individualized and discussed in multidisciplinary teams.

 

GN-MEN1 patients with a positive family history of clinical MEN1 or a foregut NET and those presenting with all three main MEN1-related tumors, should be followed according to MEN1 guidelines as should their relatives. In these patients, a “false-negative result” of DNA testing should also be considered. This may either be because deletion/duplication analyses are not performed, a sequence variant exists outside of the assayed region, or polymerase chain reaction primer selection led to selective amplification of wild-type DNA (25). Additionally, somatic mosaicism or alternative mechanisms of MEN1 gene silencing could lead to inactivation of normal menin (25).

 

Depending on the presenting clinical picture and the family history, other hereditary syndromes causing endocrine tumors should also be considered.

 

If pHPT is the primary phenotype, other genes associated with hereditary pHPT are for example CDC73, CASR and RET (MEN2). Germline CDC73 (formerly HRPT2) (OMIM 607393) analysis is recommended in individuals with (suspected) Hyperparathyroidism-Jaw Tumor (HPT-JT) syndrome, familial isolated pHPT, atypical or malignant parathyroid histology, and young individuals with pHPT. These criteria would increase germline CDC73 mutation detection, enabling optimal clinical management of pHPT as well as genetic counseling and surveillance for family members at risk for developing CDC73-related disorders(34).

 

If PAs are the primary phenotype, mutations in the AIP gene (OMIM 605555) should be considered as these can cause (familial) pituitary adenomas. Predictors of a genetic cause of sporadic pituitary adenomas are young age of diagnosis, and also in AIP pathogenic variants there is an association with gigantism and macroadenomas (35).

 

PanNETs can also be seen in neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1), Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL), and Tuberous Sclerosis Complex (TSC).

 

Pretest Counseling

 

Before DNA testing, pretest counseling is of utmost importance. The patient should be informed by genetic counseling about all aspects (medical, psychological, social, and familial implications) of the possible outcome of genetic testing. This should lead to an individual decision whether or not to opt for DNA testing. In case of DNA testing in minors the counseling should be offered to the parents, and include the minor if possible (which is obligatory over the age of 12 in the country where the authors practice (the Netherlands) to obtain informed consent for testing.

 

In case of diagnostic testing the patient must be informed about the possible outcomes of the DNA test (finding an (likely)pathogenic variant, finding a VUS, and not finding (likely) pathogenic variants) and the implications of these findings for the patient and family members.

 

In diagnostic DNA testing the MEN1 gene should be analyzed, for which Sanger sequencing can be used, or Next Generation Sequencing (NGS) techniques. To exclude deletions MLPA or CNV analysis must be performed. As mentioned earlier there is genetic heterogeneity and panel DNA diagnostics can be considered. In particular CDKN1A, CDKN1B, CDKN2B, CDKN2C, CDC73 and AIP can be added to the panel using NGS techniques, also to be completed with CNV analysis, depending on the clinical picture. In case of panel testing, the patient must be prepared for the possible findings in the different genes, differentiation of the consequences, and implications of these findings.

 

In case of testing for a familial (likely) pathogenic variant (so-called presymptomatic or predictive DNA testing) presence or absence of the familial mutation can be ascertained, but the differences in expression of the MEN1 syndrome, both within and between families must be emphasized.

 

In case of future pregnancy the possible options like invasive prenatal diagnostics and Preimplantation Genetic Diagnosis (PGD) should be discussed so the prospective parents can make an informed decision about the desired pregnancy.

 

Periodical Screening

 

The identification of an MEN1 mutation in patients and family members at risk is followed by the advice to remain under lifelong surveillance, with at least annual clinic visits including history, physical examination, biochemical screening, and radiological screening at specific intervals (2). This should preferably be carried out in centers of expertise with a dedicated multidisciplinary team well versed in management of patients with MEN1. In MEN1 there are no prophylactic treatments, so the goal of this screening & surveillance program is early detection of MEN1-related tumors to minimize morbidity by hormonal hypersecretion and to prevent malignant NETs by timely intervention. In the absence of known genotype-phenotype correlations and with a heterogeneous clinical course, even within families, the specific mutation or family history cannot solely guide the surveillance program. In the following sections screening and surveillance is discussed within each manifestation.

 

Screening at the Pediatric Age

 

The current clinical guidelines for MEN1 suggest starting clinical and biochemical screening at the age of 5 years (2), which is based on the earliest reported case of a patients with a clinical MEN1 manifestation (36). For radiologic screening in asymptomatic children, pituitary imaging is suggested from age 5 years onward (every 3 years), with abdominal imaging starting at age 10 years (every 1-3 years) and thoracic imaging starting at age 15 years (every 1-2 years) (2). However, this intensive surveillance at the pediatric age has been questioned by some groups who suggest postponing routine screening of asymptomatic patients until ages 15 or 16 years while counseling parents about typical clinical signs of MEN1 manifestations and contacting providers if they occur (37).

 

PRIMARY HYPERPARATHYROIDISM

 

Primary hyperparathyroidism (pHPT) (Figure 1) is one of the cardinal manifestations of MEN1 and has an almost complete lifetime penetrance (24, 38). It is often the first clinical manifestation of the disease and biochemical (asymptomatic) pHPT can be diagnosed several years before symptoms arise. The reported mean age of pHPT diagnosis in published MEN1 cohorts is in the fourth decade of life (39-45), with wide ranges. When interpreting these mean ages at diagnosis it is important to realize that these cohorts often span multiple decades, are made up of both index cases and family members, and contain patients who did and did not follow prospective screening programs. Recent studies reporting on MEN1 at the pediatric age show that in a screened population at least half of the pediatric patients already have primary hyperparathyroidism, although rarely seen before the age of 10 (46-49). In most cases, patients diagnosed at a pediatric age are asymptomatic and the diagnosis is made biochemically by screening (46-49). Clinical and symptomatic pHPT is usually seen in the third decade of life.

 

Primary hyperparathyroidism in MEN1 is a multiglandular disease, affecting all parathyroid glands, although often asymmetrically and asynchronously. Parathyroid tumors in adults with MEN1 usually represent mono- or oligoclonal proliferations that probably arise independently in each parathyroid gland (50). Tumorigenesis is initiated when the remaining normal allele of the MEN1 gene is lost (the second hit), and as this cumulative chance increases with age, normal parathyroid tissue is less often seen with increasing age (51). Supernumerary glands (that is, more than four parathyroid glands) are frequently seen in MEN1, with reported ranges between 12-30% (52). Parathyroid glands at ectopic locations are also not uncommon in MEN1, especially in the thymus.

 

The diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism can be made when there is hypercalcemia in combination with an elevated or inadequately normal parathyroid hormone (PTH). In patients with MEN1 who follow a prospective screening program from an early age, the diagnosis is often made while they are still asymptomatic. Classic objective symptoms of pHPT include polyuria and polydipsia, gastro-intestinal complaints (nausea, abdominal pain, constipation, pancreatitis), (symptomatic) urolithiasis, and decreased bone mineral density (BMD) which can lead to pathological fractures. Non-specific symptoms occurring in pHPT are fatigue, musculoskeletal complaints, neuropsychiatric symptoms such as anxiety, depression, concentration disturbance and sleep-disturbances, and a general decrease in quality of life.

 

The diagnosis of pHPT in patients with known MEN1 or from a known MEN1 kindred is straightforward. However, pHPT can also be the first clinical clue to an MEN1 diagnosis in a patient or family without prior MEN1 diagnosis or suspected history. The prevalence of pHPT in the general population can be up to 1% (53, 54) and among cohorts of patients with pHPT, depending on the characteristics, the incidence of MEN1 is 1-18% (2). Considering MEN1 in patients presenting with pHPT is extremely important, because the diagnosis alters the management and prognosis of pHPT, allows screening and surveillance for other endocrine tumors associated with MEN1, and allows for cascade screening within the family to identify MEN1 germline mutations carriers. Important clues to an MEN1 diagnosis in a patient presenting with pHPT are young age of onset, a family history of pHPT or other MEN1-related tumors, a personal history of other MEN1-related tumors, and multiglandular disease or persistent/recurrent pHPT (29). Recurrent pHPT is one of the strongest predictors for the presence of an MEN1 mutation (29). Compared to sporadic pHPT, patients with MEN1-related pHPT present at an earlier age, have an almost equal gender distribution compared to female predominance in sporadic pHPT, and present with lower levels of calcium and PTH (55, 56). Even though they have biochemically milder disease, BMD seems to be lower in patients with MEN1-related pHPT and renal involvement similar compared to patient with sporadic pHPT, which may reflect longer standing disease (55). MEN1-related pHPT is a multiglandular disease, as already stipulated, while sporadic pHPT is predominantly caused by single-gland adenomas (56, 57). This also affects recurrence rates which are much higher in MEN1-related pHPT (56, 57). The American Association of Endocrine Surgeons (AAES) guidelines advise genetic counseling for patients younger than 40 years with pHPT and multiglandular disease and to consider this for those with a family history or syndromic manifestations (57). The European guidelines slightly differ suggesting genetic testing for MEN1 in patients with pHPT before the age of 40, multiglandular disease, or persistent/recurrent pHPT (58).

 

When comparing, several studies show that patients with MEN1-related pHPT have lower BMD compared to patients with sporadic pHPT (55, 59, 60), although a Chinese study found no significant difference (61). In patients with MEN1-related pHPT, decreased BMD is frequently seen and already present at a young age (62-64). When measured the 1/3 distal radius seems most affected, so including this location in dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) should be considered in patients with MEN1 (62, 64). Parathyroidectomy improves BMD (59, 65), although in one small study improvement was less for patients with MEN1 compared to patients with sporadic pHPT (59). A factor contributing to the earlier and more severe bone involvement in MEN1-related pHPT may be the early-onset of the disease thereby also influencing peak bone formation. In addition, other MEN1-related diseases may also contribute to bone loss such as pituitary insufficiency caused by pituitary adenomas or their treatment, hypercortisolism (although infrequent in MEN1), and gastro-intestinal surgery (66).

 

Urolithiasis is also frequently seen and at a young age in patients MEN1-related pHPT (55, 62, 64). In addition, a recent study showed that patients with MEN1 age 20-59 had a higher prevalence of chronic kidney disease stage 3 compared to the general US population (67).

 

It is therefore important to perform Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) to assess BMD as well as a renal ultrasound and 24-hour urine for calcium excretion to asses risk of urolithiasis in patients with MEN1 diagnosed with pHPT. And if initial observation is chosen, DEXA should be repeated every 2 years (68).

 

In patients with MEN1 and pHPT, the interplay with Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome (ZES; increased gastric acid section due to gastrinomas) is also relevant, as calcium can increase gastrin levels. In a study among 84 patients with MEN1-pHPT and ZES, successful parathyroidectomy resulted in biochemical cure of ZES without any resection of duodenal or pancreatic NETs in 20% of the patients (69). In a recent perspective paper Hackeng and colleagues propose a parathyroid-gut axis arguing that hypercalcemia may promote the gastrin-cell hyperplasia to neoplasia sequence through the calcium-sensing receptor (70). The reverse, a more severe form of pHPT among patients with MEN1-ZES has also been suggested, because in the aforementioned study of 84 patients with MEN1-pHTP and ZES, patients had a higher frequency of urolithiasis at presentation, higher serum PTH, and higher recurrences rates after initial subtotal parathyroidectomy compared to the literature (69).

 

Parathyroidectomy

 

The treatment of hyperparathyroidism in MEN1 is surgical. Intervention is aimed at achieving eucalcemia for as long as possible, while preventing permanent hypoparathyroidism and facilitating potential subsequent surgery.

 

The optimal timing of the initial operation is still a matter of debate, especially in (asymptomatic) children and young adults. The guidelines for the management of asymptomatic pHPT recommend surgical intervention in case of significant hypercalcemia (1 mg/dL or 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal), skeletal abnormalities (a T-score of < -2.5 at the Lumbar Spine, Total Hip, Femoral Neck or 1/3 Distal Radius or a vertebral fracture), risk of renal complications (creatinine clearance below 60 ml/min, 24-h urine calcium excretion of >400 mg/d (>10 mmol/L)), the presence of nephrolithiasis/nephrocalcinosis, or age below 50 (68). However, these guidelines are not intended for patients with MEN1 and most patients with MEN1 will meet the age-criterion regardless of other values. In patients with MEN1 surgery is indicated in case of symptoms, significant hypercalcemia, and renal or skeletal complications. In addition, concomitant gastrinoma may also provide an indication for surgical intervention of pHPT. For patients not meeting any of these criteria, there is no evidence to determine timing of surgery. Arguments have been made in favor of observation to avoid the risk of symptomatic hypoparathyroidism, multiple operations, and by allowing the disease to progress a little bit more, making the glands more easily identifiable upon intervention. However, on the other hand, data showing early bone and renal complications have made others suggest and prefer early intervention to prevent downstream disabilities (71).

 

For initial parathyroidectomy in patients with MEN1 there are theoretically four different strategies: focused parathyroidectomy (removing a single affected parathyroid gland), unilateral clearance (resection of all parathyroid tissue on one side, including unilateral cervical thymectomy), subtotal parathyroidectomy with concomitant cervical thymectomy, or total parathyroidectomy, cervical thymectomy and immediate auto-transplantation of parathyroid tissue (usually to the non-dominant forearm).

 

The initial operation recommended by most experts and guidelines is a bilateral cervical exploration, identifying all four parathyroid glands and performing a subtotal parathyroidectomy (leaving a vascularized remnant about 1.5-2 times the size of a normal gland) with concomitant cervical thymectomy (2, 57, 58, 71-73). The latter serves the dual purpose of removing any ectopic/supranumerary parathyroid glands and potentially decreases the risk of subsequent development of thymic NETs. This approach offers the best balance between persistence (persisting pHPT after operation or recurrence within 6 months after operation) and recurrence (recurrent pHPT 6 months or more after the operation preceded by a eucalcemic period) on the one hand and permanent (lasting >6 months after the operation) hypoparathyroidism on the other hand. Persistence is infrequent in subtotal (0-22%) and total parathyroidectomy (0-19%), but rates range from 0-53% in less than subtotal parathyroidectomy(58, 72). Recurrence rates are also significantly higher after less than subtotal parathyroidectomy (0-100%) compared to subtotal (0-65%) or total parathyroidectomy (0-56%) (58, 72) and occur earlier (74). Permanent hypoparathyroidism on the other hand is rarely seen after less than subtotal parathyroidectomy. When comparing subtotal with total parathyroidectomy, hypoparathyroidism is significantly more frequent after total parathyroidectomy (RR 1.61 (95%CI 1.12-2.31) (72).

 

Pre-operative imaging plays a limited role at initial parathyroidectomy in patients with MEN1, because the recommended initial operation always constitutes bilateral neck exploration( 58). In addition, data has shown that pre-operative imaging (consisting of neck ultrasound and sestamibi scan as first line and parathyroid computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) as second line) only identified 68% of the largest glands pre-operatively (75). Pre-operative imaging may have some use for identifying ectopic glands (7% of ectopic glands were identified by pre-operative imaging in one series) and for identifying concomitant thyroid abnormalities that need attention (71, 75). Similar, intra-operative PTH monitoring seems of little value during the initial parathyroidectomy (76).

 

Recently, several groups have advocated unilateral clearance as an initial operation, especially for young patients with MEN1 (74, 77-79). The rationale behind this approach is to provide several years of eucalcemia during acquisition of peak bone mass, while preventing hypoparathyroidism and allowing subsequent reoperations to be performed in a non-operated neck (the contra-lateral side). A prerequisite for this strategy is that pre-operative imaging concordantly shows unilateral disease. Intra-operative PTH monitoring should be used to ensure there is an adequate drop in PTH after the resection. Although persistence rates between 10-15% after unilateral clearance or single-gland excision have been reported by these groups (74, 77), others state that less than subtotal parathyroidectomy has an unacceptable failure rate (69% in one study) (80). Several remarks must be made when using retrospective studies to evaluate this strategy. The first being that intentional less than subtotal resection is a different entity from an intended subtotal or total resection in which not all glands were identified (78). Secondly, true unilateral clearance in which all parathyroid tissue on one side of the neck is removed including unilateral cervical thymectomy is a very different operative strategy from minimal invasive parathyroidectomy/single gland excision and in retrospective studies these are often lumped together under “less than subtotal” resections. Thirdly, the success of such an approach is dependent on the sensitivity of pre-operative imaging and in most retrospective studies, more sensitive imaging modalities such as 18F-fluorcholine positron emission tomography (PET)/CT have not been used. Finally, since in MEN1 inherently all parathyroids are affected, although asynchronously, such an approach may be more successful in younger patients, where there may still be normal parathyroid glands (51). Currently this approach is controversial. Therefore, prospective data are needed to determine if and when unilateral clearance can benefit patients with MEN1 at the time of their initial parathyroidectomy.

 

Currently, subtotal parathyroidectomy remains the initial procedure of choice, but total parathyroidectomy or unilateral clearance can be considered depending on individual circumstances. Single gland excision is generally not recommended.

 

After initial subtotal parathyroidectomy, the 10-year recurrence rate is approximately 50% (2). Reoperation is therefore a frequent necessity in patients with MEN1. Recurrence can be caused by parathyroid glands missed during the initial operation, parathyroid glands intentionally left in situ, growth of the remnant of a partially resected gland, supranumerary and/or ectopic glands, and hyperplasia of autotransplanted parathyroid tissue. As reoperations are more complex and have a higher risk of complications (12% not including hypoparathyroidism in one study of reoperative parathyroidectomy in MEN1 (81)), the timing of the reoperation is individualized and patients with mild biochemical recurrence are usually initially observed. When reoperation is indicated, careful examination of the operation notes and pathology reports of previous procedures, if available, is very important. In contrast to the initial surgery, pre-operative imaging is essential for surgical planning in reoperations. First-line imaging studies are neck ultrasound and Tc99m-sestamibi scan, although this may not show all enlarged glands. Second-line imaging studies are 4-dimentional CT or MRI and PET (18F-fluorocholine or 11C-methionine) (82, 83). In a small study 18F-fluorocholine PET-CT has also shown to be of added value in MEN1-related pHPT (84). If first- and second-line studies are inconclusive more invasive localization studies can be considered such as arteriography, venous sampling, and neck ultrasound with fine needle aspiration and PTH measurement (83). The exact operative strategy (bilateral or unilateral neck exploration or focused resection) is individualized based on previous operation(s) and results of preoperative imaging. If the thymus was not removed during the initial operation, its removal is recommended at reoperation (81). Intra-operative PTH monitoring is valuable for the reoperative setting in MEN1 as it can inform when the exploration can be ended (71, 81).

 

As a consequence of the extended initial operation necessary, as well as frequent reoperation, life-time risk of postoperative hypoparathyroidism is relatively high for patients with MEN1. Transient hypoparathyroidism, defined as lasting less than six months after parathyroidectomy, may be seen in more than 50% of patients and its absence after subtotal parathyroidectomy may even be associated with recurrence (85, 86). Rates of permanent hypoparathyroidism are dependent on the procedure performed and vary greatly between series. It is important to realize that, unless patients are truly aparathyroid, recovery of parathyroid function can occur after 6 months up to several years, and permanent hypoparathyroidism may therefore be more aptly termed “prolonged” hypoparathyroidism (86). To prevent hypoparathyroidism immediate autotransplantation is used when it is suspected that all parathyroid glands are resected or when there is concern about parathyroid tissue viability in situ (57). Cryopreservation with delayed autotransplantation can also be used as a rescue from permanent hypoparathyroidism, but is not available everywhere and its use has been under debate (57).

 

Non-Surgical Interventions

 

For those patients who require intervention, but who are not surgical candidates, cinacalcet, an allosteric agonist of the calcium receptor, can be used. It has been shown to reduce/normalize calcium and PTH in small studies in patients with MEN1, although it has no effect on bone and renal complications(87-89). Cinacalcet should be used with great caution in children, as a death from acute hypocalcemia has been reported in a 14-year-old (90). Another alternative may be ethanol ablation of enlarged parathyroid glands. A study from the Mayo Clinic reported results from 37 patients who had an average of 2.2 treatments and a mean duration of eucalcemia of 25 months. Complications were hypocalcemia in 8%, hoarseness in 5%, and cough in 1% (91).

 

Parathyroid Carcinoma

 

Parathyroid carcinoma is a very rare endocrine malignancy seen in <1% of all patients with pHPT (92). It is likewise very rare in patients with MEN1, with only 21 reported cases in the literature (based on a review published in 2020) (93). In three large series from The University of Texas MD Anderson Cancer Center, the Mayo Clinic, and The Peking Union Medical College Hospital the prevalence of parathyroid carcinomas was 2/242 (0.8%), 1/348 (0.3%) and 1/153 (0.7%) respectively and the prevalence of atypical parathyroid neoplasm was 1/242 (0.4%), 0, and 2/153 (1.3%) respectively (93-95).

 

Conclusion

 

In conclusion, pHPT in MEN1 has an almost complete penetrance and is responsible for most MEN1-related surgeries. It is a multiglandular disease and recurrence after initial operation is to be expected. End-organ damage (bone, renal) can occur early and in asymptomatic patients and should be systematically looked for. Recognizing MEN1 in a patient presenting with apparently sporadic pHPT has important consequences for both the patient and his/her family. Surgical decision making is complex both for initial and reoperations and patients with MEN1 should whenever possible be treated in centers of expertise by a high-volume endocrine surgeon. Treatment decisions are made by multidisciplinary teams in shared decision making with the patient taking into account not only medical information but also the patient’s individual situation, such as but not limited to, ability to adhere to follow-up and insurance issues.

PITUITARY ADENOMAS

 

In 1903, the first description of a case with MEN1 was published by Erdheim. The necropsy report of a patient with acromegaly revealed a pituitary adenoma and enlarged parathyroid glands (96). Pituitary adenomas (PAs) are one of the three cardinal features associated with MEN1 and part of the so-called ‘three Ps’ (Figure 1). PAs are in general benign lesions and do not seem to negatively affect survival in patients with MEN1(26), although cases of mortality due to PAs have been reported (27). However, they can cause significant morbidity due to mass effect on the optic chiasm or hormone secretion leading to functional symptoms or hormone deficiency.

 

As in other main manifestations of MEN1, loss of heterozygosity (LOH) at the MEN1 locus has been demonstrated in pituitary adenomas in patients with MEN1, confirming the role of MEN1 in the pathogenesis of these tumors (97-100). However, in contrast to PanNETs, the role of MEN1/menin in tumorigenesis of sporadic PAs seems to be limited. Although initially, before the identification of the MEN1 gene, 19-33% of sporadic PAs showed allelic loss on chromosome 11 (101, 102), subsequent studies investigating LOH, somatic mutations, and messenger mRNA expression found limited involvement of MEN1 in sporadic PAs (103-107).

 

As the prevalence of clinically relevant PAs is 68-98/100,000 in the general population and in general <3% of patients with a PA will have MEN1, the question is when to think of MEN1 in a patient presenting with a PA (2, 35). Obviously, MEN1 should be considered in a patient with a family history of MEN1-related tumors or presenting with other MEN1-related tumors. For patients with apparently sporadic PAs (no suspicious family history or syndromic features), a recent systematic review has shown that MEN1 mutation analysis is recommended in patients ≤ 30 years, although this was a weak recommendation based on low quality of evidence (35).

 

Characteristics of Pituitary Adenoma in MEN1

 

From the earliest descriptions of MEN1 in the 1950s PAs have been recognized as one of the main characteristics of the syndrome. However, since the original description of MEN1, the clinical picture of MEN1-related PAs has changed. In a summary of the first 85 reported cases of MEN1 (many of which were autopsy cases), Ballard found a very high prevalence of 65% of PA, with 42% being chromophobe adenomas and more than one in four being acromegaly/eosinophilic adenoma (108). With the discovery of prolactin, it was soon realized that in fact prolactinomas were the most frequently occurring PA in patients with MEN1. The discovery of the MEN1 gene in 1997 (6, 7), and more advanced genetic testing techniques such as NGS and MLPA, have allowed better identification of patients as having MEN1. This has led to the recognition that patients with a clinical diagnosis of MEN1 because they have two out of the three main MEN1-related tumors, but negative mutation analysis, have a different clinical course than mutation positive patients and arguably do not have true MEN1, but rather an MEN1-like syndrome or a co-occurrence of two sporadic tumors (24, 25). Most patients in this group have a clinical MEN1 diagnosis based on the combination PA and pHPT. As these patients may have been included in older MEN1 cohorts, before the widespread availability of genetic testing, and these patients seem to have macro-adenomas and somatotrophinomas more often, this can be one of the reasons of the changing clinical picture of MEN1-related PAs. Additionally, imaging techniques have markedly improved over the last decades and guidelines have been developed for the screening and surveillance of patients with MEN1 including regular pituitary imaging and biochemical screening using Insulin-like Growth Factor-1 (IGF-1) and prolactin (2, 5). All this has led to earlier identification of PAs in patients with MEN1 and more frequent detection of (small) non-functioning PA (NFPAs).

 

After the discovery of the MEN1 gene (1997), six cohorts of MEN1-PA have been published, the first two by the French multicenter Groupe d’étude des Tumeurs Endocrines (GTE) in 2002 (109) and 2008 (110), in 2015 the DutchMEN Study Group (DMSG) published the results from their national population-based database (111), which was followed by two single-center cohort from China (112) and the Mayo Clinic respectively (113). Recently, the GTE have published an update to their previous study, only including patients diagnosed since January 1st 2000 (114).

 

As in sporadic PAs, PAs in patients with MEN1 show a slight female predominance (52-69%) (109, 111-114). With exception of the Chinese cohort, where the mean age of diagnosis was 54 years (112), the mean/median age of diagnosis of MEN1-related PAs is in the fourth decade. Lifetime prevalence of a PA in patients with MEN1 is 49-58% (38, 111).

 

Although not as frequent as pHPT, PAs are often the first clinical manifestation of the MEN1 syndrome. In the Dutch cohort, in 29% of the patients with a PA, it was the first manifestation (111). In the most recent GTE cohort, 88/202 patients with a PA were the index case in their family and in 84% of these patients a PA was (one of) the first manifestation(s) (114).

 

Prolactinomas are the most prevalent PA in patients with MEN1 and account for 30-80% of adenomas diagnosed in patients with clinically evident disease (42, 43, 109, 111-114). Second most prevalent are non-functioning PA comprising 36-48% in the most recent cohorts (111-114). Other functioning PAs are seen in <10%, and are in decreasing order of prevalence somatotropinomas, ACTH-producing adenomas (Cushing’s disease), and TSHomas and gonadotropinomas (the latter two being equally rare) (109, 111-114). Co-secreting tumors are seen in less than 10% (109, 111-114).

 

Multifocal PAs are rare in MEN1, and are found in 1.5% in the most recent GTE cohort (114) and in 4% in the 2008 GTE cohort of surgically resected MEN1-related PAs (110). In this latter cohort the prevalence of multifocal tumors was compared to that in non-MEN1 resected PAs and was found to be significantly larger. Additionally, MEN1-related resected PAs were more often plurihormonal on immunostaining (110).

 

Signs and symptoms in MEN1-related PAs (Table 1) are not different from those observed in sporadic PAs and are caused by size effects (chiasm compression, compression of nerves in the cavernous sinus, hypopituitarism) and effects of hormonal hypersecretion in functioning tumors.

 

Table 1. Signs and Symptoms of Pituitary Adenomas in MEN1

Related to tumor size/ growth

headache, visual field defects (usually bitemporal hemianopsia), diplopia, hypopituitarism

Prolactinoma

females: amenorrhea, galactorrhea, infertility

males: hypogonadism, impotence, lack of libido, galactorrhea (rare), infertility

Somatotrophinoma

Acromegaly: local overgrowth of bone (most often mandible, skull), soft tissue growth (acral enlargement, coarse facial features), hyperhidrosis, fatigue, hyperglycemia, hypertension, sleep apnea, skin tags, hypogonadism.

Corticotrophinoma

Cushing syndrome: central obesity, hypertension, hyperglycemia, gonadal dysfunction, moon facies, plethora, osteoporosis, proximal muscle weakness, psychological disturbance, wide purple striae, easy bruising

Thyrotropinoma

heat intolerance, unintentional weight loss, anxiety, tremor, palpitations, frequent bowel movements

Gonadotropinoma

hypogonadism, ovarian hyperstimulation in women

Pediatric specific

delayed or halted pubertal development, primary amenorrhea (females), accelerated linear growth, poor growth velocity, decline in school performance

 

Presently, most non-functioning PAs in MEN1 are microadenomas detected by prospective screening. These micro-adenomas show indolent behavior during follow-up. In the Dutch series after a median follow-up of 5.3 yrs, 9.7% showed minimal tumor growth which was without clinical significance in all and none progressed to macro-adenoma (111). In the Mayo Clinic cohort, in those with asymptomatic non-functioning PA (size not specified) progression to surgery was seen only in 1.7/100yr (113). In the most recent GTE cohort, after a median follow-up of 2 years (IQR 0-4), progression in Hardy classification was only seen in 1 out of 63 patients with a non-functioning micro-adenoma (2%) (114). In the Chinese cohort, of the 19 patients with non-functioning micro-adenomas, no progression to macro-adenomas was seen during a median follow-up of 3 years (112).

 

Prolactinomas are also mostly micro-adenoma, while 30-38% are macro-adenomas (111, 113, 114). As in sporadic PAs, GH-secreting tumors are more often macro-adenomas and ACTH-secreting tumors are generally microadenomas.

 

Although the youngest patient with a clinical manifestation of MEN1 described in the literature is a 5-year-old boy with gigantism and a lactosomatotroph macro-adenoma (36), PAs are rare in patients with MEN1 below the age of 10 (37, 46-49). However, pediatric cohorts show that in children and adolescents who have clinical manifestations of MEN1 up to 1/3 have PAs (37, 47-49). As in adults, most PAs the pediatric and adolescent age are prolactinomas followed by non-functioning PAs and more rarely GH or ACTH producing tumors (37, 46-49, 115). In the two largest pediatric cohorts, PAs were symptomatic in 50% of the cases and were macro-adenomas in 33-51% (47, 48).

 

Treatment

 

The treatment of MEN1-related pituitary adenomas follows the same strategy as sporadic pituitary adenomas. Management is aimed at tumor reduction, normalization of hormone secretion, and preservation of pituitary function.

 

Dopamine agonists are the first line of treatment for patients with prolactinoma (116), in which cabergoline has proven to be most effective at restoring normal prolactin concentrations and achieving tumor shrinkage than other dopamine agonists. With regards to adverse effects, cabergoline shows fewer side effects than bromocriptine. In case of treatment resistance, or treatment intolerance, surgery or radiotherapy are considered as second-line treatment options (116).

 

In Cushing’s disease(117) and acromegaly(118) surgery is the first treatment option. In addition, non-functioning PAs with mass effect or rapid progressive adenomas will also benefit from surgery.

 

MEN1-related functional PAs were initially considered more resistant to medical treatment than those with sporadic disease (109). However, the latest reports do not confirm this (111, 114) and treatment results seem to be in line with what is reported in sporadic PAs. The latter cohorts consist of a population with meticulous surveillance and therefore PAs are detected in an early phase (111, 114). 

 

Pituitary Carcinoma

 

Pituitary carcinoma is extremely rare, and this is equally so in patients with MEN1. Although at higher risk for PA than the general population, there does not seem to be an increased risk of pituitary carcinoma. Single cases of malignant, metastatic prolactinoma (119, 120), gonadotropinoma (121), thyrotropin secreting adenoma (122), and non-functioning PA (123) have been reported.

 

Surveillance for Pituitary Adenoma

 

Current guidelines recommend examination by MRI of the pituitary gland every three years from the age of five years, and an annual blood test of IGF-I and prolactin concentrations, together with a clinical assessment (2). The young starting age – which was based on a single case-report – has been disputed, given that PAs are rarely seen before the age of 10.

 

The aim of surveillance imaging is to detect the PAs in an early phase before clinical symptoms become apparent. In general, surveillance leads to detection of smaller non-functioning PAs (111, 113, 114). However, early diagnosis by surveillance is not associated with smaller prolactinomas, but treatment is required less frequently and a longer safe observation period can be conducted (111). There are currently no specific recommendations for the follow-up of MEN1-related (micro-)adenomas under observation, on medical treatment or after surgical resection.

 

DUODENOPANCREATIC NEUROENDOCRINE TUMORS AND GASTRIC NETS

 

General

 

Duodenopancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (dpNETs) (Figure 1) are one of the cardinal features of MEN1 and highly penetrant, with a prevalence of over 80% at the age of 80 in recent cohorts (24, 38, 124). Malignant dpNETs are the most important cause of MEN1-related death (26, 125).

 

Duodenopancreatic NETs in MEN1 can secrete hormones that produce a clinical syndrome or be functionally silent (non-functioning, NF). Due to improved imaging techniques in the past decades, including endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) and somatostatin receptor (SSTR) imaging, non-functioning pancreatic NETs (NF-PanNETs) are now recognized as the most frequent type of dpNET in patients with MEN1. Of the functional dpNETs, gastrinomas are the most frequent, seen in approximately 30% of patients with dpNETS. In patients with MEN1, gastrinomas are almost exclusively of duodenal origin (126). Insulinomas (pancreatic in origin) are the second most common functional dpNET and occur in approximately 10-15% of patients with MEN1. More rare functional PanNETs such as glucagonomas, vipomas, somatostatinomas (127) or even rarer PanNETs secreting GHRH (128), calcitonin or PTH-related peptide (129), can also occur. Upon histological examination of the duodenum in patients with MEN1, small somatostatin-positive tumors can also be found (130) although they do not seem to give rise to the somatostatinoma syndrome.

 

The hallmark of duodenopancreatic involvement in MEN1 is multifocality, with the pancreas usually containing multiple NETs <5mm, called micro-adenomas, combined with one or more macroscopic PanNETs (130). These micro-adenomas already have loss of heterogeneity (LOH) of the MEN1 locus and are considered precursors to PanNETs (130). Similarly, duodenal gastrinomas in MEN1 are usually multiple and accompanied by gastrin cell hyperplasia, although LOH was demonstrated in duodenal gastrinomas, but not in gastrin cell hyperplasia (131). This multiplicity sets MEN1-related dpNETs apart from sporadic duodenal and pancreatic NETs, which are usually single tumors.

 

For patients with MEN1, the cumulative probability of having a dpNET increases with age, however the age of onset varies somewhat per tumor type. In a recent study from the Dutch MEN1 cohort, the modeled cumulative probability of having developed a NF-PanNET was 8.6% (95%CI 0.8-15.3%) at age 15, 12% (95% CI 5.9-17.0) at age 18, 16.1% (11.2-21.5) at age 21 and rising to 80% at age 70 (72.2-97.0)(15). Insulinomas can also occur at a young age and the prevalence of insulinoma among the larger (n>50) cohorts describing pediatric and adolescent MEN1 ranges from 6-25% (37, 46-48). Data from a recent multicenter cohort study show that half of the patients with MEN1-related insulinoma were diagnosed before the age of 30 (96 patients who underwent surgery for MEN1-related insulinoma from 46 centers in Europe and North-America between 1990-2016) (132). The onset of gastrinomas is usually later, with a reported mean age of onset around 30-35 years in the National Institutes of Health (NIH) MEN1-ZES cohort (133, 134) to 51 years in the Dutch MEN1 cohort (135). The occurrence of MEN1-related gastrinoma in childhood or adolescence is rare.

 

Duodenopancreatic NETs can be the first manifestation of MEN1, both in patients from known MEN1 families but also in the index case. Approximately 20-25% of all patients with gastrinoma have MEN1 (136), a rate much lower for insulinomas (approximately 5%) (2). Therefore, genetic testing for MEN1 is recommended in all patients diagnosed with gastrinoma (137). For patients presenting with a non-gastrinoma dpNET without a family history of MEN1, referral for genetic testing should be guided by the individual clinical characteristics, such as patient age, concomitant other MEN1-related tumors, multifocality of dpNETs, and family history of endocrine tumors. If a new diagnosis of MEN1 is made in a family, cascade screening and subsequent screening and lifelong surveillance of affected family members is of utmost importance, as delays may lead to preventable morbidity and mortality in non-index cases in the family (30).

 

Distant metastases occur in approximately 15-30% of MEN1-related dpNETs and are the most important prognostic factor for disease-related survival (125, 134, 138, 139). In the Dutch MEN1 cohort, 5- and 10-year overall survival rates were 95% and 86% for patients with dpNETs without liver metastases, compared to 65% and 50% for those with liver metastases (139). Non-functional pancreatic NETs and duodenal gastrinomas are the most frequent cause of distant metastases. Regional lymph node metastases are seen more often, but the exact reported prevalence highly depends on the type of cohort, primary dpNET, and the manner of diagnosis (i.e., surgical cohorts versus observational cohorts, surgery with or without systematic lymph node dissection, imaging with or without SSTR-PET imaging, etc.). In a recent publication from the Dutch MEN1 cohort, in 350 patients with MEN1-related NF-PanNETs without metastases at diagnosis, metastases (regional and/or distant) developed in 18%, while the cumulative probability of having any PanNET-related metastases at the age of 70 was 41.2% (95%CI 31.3-50.3) (15). Since patients with MEN1 often have multiple concomitant dpNETs and most patients with duodenal gastrinomas have concomitant NF-PanNETs, it may be difficult to determine the primary tumor for regional and distant metastases.

 

Unlike in MEN2, in MEN1 there is no clear genotype-phenotype correlation. Several groups however have studied the association between MEN1 germline mutation and the disease course of dpNETs in their cohorts, to see if genotype might be able to identify a subset of patients with a more aggressive clinical course. This was in part fueled by the clinical observation that in some families dpNETs seem to be more prevalent, occur at a younger age and have a higher proportion of metastatic disease.

 

Several associations have been reported: in the French GTE cohort mutations in the JUND interacting domain were associated with death (13), in the German Marburg cohort CHES1 loss of interaction was associated with aggressive pNETs and pNET-related mortality (14), in the Italian Florence cohort mutations in exon 8 were associated with higher risk of progression and mortality (140), in the MD Anderson cohort mutations in exon 2 were associated with a higher risk of distant metastases (141), and in the Dutch MEN1 cohort nonsense/frameshift mutations were associated with a higher cumulative probability of developing metastases in NF-PanNET (regional and/or distant) compared to missense mutations 53.9 (37.8-74.3%) vs 10% (2.6-82.7%)) (15). However, these associations up until now have not been independently validated, either because associations were not confirmed in other cohorts or validation was not performed.

 

In patients with MEN1, dpNETs are usually diagnosed at an early stage, especially in patients from families with MEN1 or who have had predictive genetic testing. Additionally, even in index cases, benign MEN1 manifestations may lead to the diagnosis of MEN1 and dpNETs can be diagnosed early. In the French GTE cohort and the Dutch MEN1 cohort, both spanning multiple decades, synchronous metastases were seen in 6.5 and 6.4% of patients with a dpNET respectively (125, 139). In MEN1-related dpNETs the focus of care therefore lies before the onset of metastatic disease and with a younger population than is seen in sporadic dpNETs. The goals of follow-up and treatment are to prevent metastatic disease, cure hormonal hypersecretion, and prevent complication from hormonal hypersecretion, while minimizing treatment-related complications and preserving Quality of Life. It is therefore of utmost importance that whenever possible patients with MEN1 and MEN1-related dpNETs are treated in centers of expertise with a knowledgeable and experienced multidisciplinary team.

 

Staging and Grading

 

MEN1-related dpNET are graded according to the latest WHO classification (Table 2) of digestive system tumors (2019, 5th edition) and the WHO Classification of Tumors of Endocrine Organs (2017, 4th edition) (142). Where previously dpNET grading was only covered in the Classification of Tumors of Endocrine Organs, it is now included in the classification of digestive system tumors as well (142).

.

Table 2. WHO Classification of Digestive Neuroendocrine Tumors

Classification

Ki-67 proliferation index

Mitotic rate (mitoses/2mm2)

Well-differentiated Neuroendocrine Tumors (NET)

NET, G1

<3%

<2

NET, G2

3-20%

2-20

NET, G3

>20%

>20

Poorly-differentiated Neuroendocrine Carcinomas (NEC)

NEC (G3)

Small-cell type

Large-cell type

>20%

>20

 

Pancreatic NETs are staged according to the AJCC UICC 8th edition Neuroendocrine tumors of the pancreas (Table 3a and b).

 

Table 3a. TNM Staging of Pancreatic Neuroendocrine Tumors (AJCC UICC 8thedition)

Primary Tumor (T)

For any T add (m) for multiple tumors e.g., T2(m).

TX

Tumor cannot be assessed

T1

Tumor limited to the pancreas*, <2 cm

T2

Tumor limited to the pancreas*, 2-4 cm

T3

Tumor limited to the pancreas*, >4 cm; or tumor invading the duodenum or CBD

T4

Tumor invading adjacent organs (stomach, spleen, colon, adrenal gland) or the wall of large vessels (celiac axis or the superior mesenteric artery)

Regional lymph Nodes (N)

NX

Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed

N0

No regional lymph node involvement

N1

Regional lymph node involvement

Distant Metastases (M)

M0

No distant metastases

M1

Distant metastases

M1a

Hepatic metastases only

M1b

Extra-hepatic metastases only

M1c

Both hepatic and extra-hepatic metastases

* Limited to the pancreas means no invasion of adjacent organs or the wall of large vessels. Extension into peripancreatic adipose tissue is included in “limited to the pancreas”. CBD common bile duct

 

Table 3b Stage Grouping

Stage I

T1 N0 M0

Stage II

T2-3 N0 M0

Stage III

T4 N0 M0

Any T N1 M0

Stage IV

Any T Any N M1

 

Duodenal NETs are staged according to the AJCC UICC 8th edition Neuroendocrine Tumors of the duodenum and ampulla of Vater (Table 4a and b).

 

Table 4a. TNM Staging of Duodenal Neuroendocrine Tumors (AJCC UICC 8th edition)

Primary Tumor (T)

If the number of tumors is known use T (#), if unavailable or too numerous T(m) e.g., T2(3) or T2(m)

TX

Tumor cannot be assessed

T1

Tumor invades the mucosa or submucosa only and is ≤ 1 cm (duodenal)

Tumor ≤ 1 cm and confined within the sphincter of Oddi (ampullary)

T2

Tumor invades the muscularis propria or is >1 cm (duodenal).

Tumor invades through sphincter into duodenal submucosa or muscularis propria, or is >1 cm (ampullary).

T3

Tumor invades the pancreas or peripancreatic adipose tissue

T4

Tumor invades the visceral peritoneum (serosa) or other organs

Regional lymph Nodes (N)

NX

Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed

N0

No regional lymph node involvement

N1

Regional lymph node involvement

Distant Metastases (M)

M0

No distant metastases

M1

Distant metastases

M1a

Hepatic metastases only

M1b

Extra-hepatic metastases only

M1c

Both hepatic and extra-hepatic metastases

 

Table 4b. Stage Grouping

Stage I

T1 N0 M0

Stage II

T2-3 N0 M0

Stage III

T4 N0 M0

Any T N1 M0

Stage IV

Any T Any N M1

 

Non-Functioning Pancreatic NETs

 

In patients with known MEN1, screening is advised for early detection of NF-PanNETs. When NF-PanNETs are diagnosed and there is no immediate indication for intervention, surveillance should be performed at regular intervals to re-evaluate indications for intervention, as well as to detect newly developing dpNETs. Current guidelines suggest to start screening for NF-PanNETs in MEN1 below the age of 10 by a combination of biochemical tests and yearly imaging (either MRI, CT or EUS) (2).

 

Since the publication of the guidelines, it has become clear that the diagnosis of NF-PanNETs in patients with MEN1 relies heavily on imaging, since tumors markers chromogranin A, pancreatic polypeptide, and glucagon have low accuracy for the diagnosis of NF-PanNETs as summarized in a recent systematic review (143). Additionally, since the publication of the guidelines SSTR-PET-CT has emerged as a high-sensitive diagnostic imaging tool for dpNETs and its role within the screening and surveillance of MEN1-related dpNETs has yet to be determined.

 

There is currently no consensus regarding the best imaging modality and interval for screening and surveillance of MEN1-related NF-PanNETs (144). In a recent systematic review on the diagnosis of NF-PanNETs in MEN1, it was concluded that for lifelong screening and surveillance CT was probably least suitable given the inferior sensitivity compared to EUS and SSTR-PET-CT in combination with the cumulative exposure to ionizing radiation, although head-to-head comparisons with MRI are not available (143). This does not mean that a CT scan cannot still be indicated and be the best imaging for specific clinical situations (for example pre-operative imaging). EUS is the most sensitive method for the diagnosis of NF-PanNETs and offers the possibility of obtaining tissue for analysis pre-operatively. However, it is also invasive, operator dependent, clinically significant PanNETs can be missed in the pancreatic tail, and for the diagnosis of NF-PanNETs in MEN1 histological confirmation is usually not necessary given the high pre-test likelihood and the typical appearance on imaging. On the other hand, tissue-based analysis prior to intervention may become more relevant in MEN1 as more novel prognostic factors are identified. MRI has the advantage of performing more homogenously throughout the pancreas and the absence of ionizing radiation although a significant proportion of NF-PanNETs >2 cm is missed. The authors of the systematic review therefore suggest alternate use of EUS and MRI (143).

 

Given a reported growth rate of 0.1-1.32 mm/year for small NF-PanNETs, if initial screening imaging is negative, the next imaging can be performed with an interval of two to three years, providing no clinical reason for earlier imaging. For prevalent NF-PanNETs without an indication for intervention, the interval for active surveillance imaging should be individualized according to growth rate. Initial repeat imaging should be done after 6-12 months to assess growth rate, but afterwards in small stable NF-PanNETs the interval can be extended to once every 1-2 years. The imaging modality can be either MRI or alternating with EUS. EUS alone should always be combined with an imaging method for metastases detection, since it does not offer complete abdominal imaging. The exact role of SSTR-PET-CT in the screening and surveillance of MEN1-related NF-PanNETs is still to be determined, however, based on currently available evidence, it is best employed when results may change management such as in prevalent NF-PanNETs >10 mm for early detection of metastases, or as comprehensive staging before planned interventions (143, 145).

 

Another dilemma is when to start radiological screening for NF-pNET in children with MEN1. As mentioned before, current guidelines advise initiating screening before the age of 10 (2). However, others have advocated postponing until the age of 16, in the absence of signs and symptoms (37). Recently, modeled data from the Dutch population-based MEN1 cohort show that the estimated age at a 1%, 2,5% and 5% risk of having developed a clinically significant NF-PanNET (≥ 20mm or documented growth of ≥1.6 mm within one year above a baseline size of ≥ 15mm) is 9.5, 13.5 and 17.8 years respectively and they conclude that there is medical indication to initiate radiological screening during the second decade of life and that starting between 13-14 years of age is justifiable (15).

 

It is important to remember that each screening and surveillance schedule should be tailored to the needs of the individual patient in his or her unique circumstances, should be based on well-informed shared decisions making between providers and patients (and parents if applicable), with multidisciplinary team input when necessary.

 

The only curative treatment for NF-PanNETs in MEN1 is surgical resection, and the goal of surgical intervention in NF-PanNETs is to prevent metastases and thereby NF-PanNET-related mortality, while preserving as much pancreatic tissue as possible and limiting treatment-related morbidity and mortality. Although theoretically, total duodenopancreatectomy would prevent metastatic disease altogether, short-term morbidity associated with this complex major surgery is high and the subsequent life-long brittle diabetes that follows rarely justifies such major intervention when balanced against the risk of distant metastases and PanNET-related death.

 

Since the risk of future metastases and disease-related death must be balanced against short- and long-term treatment-related morbidity and mortality, information regarding prognosis in MEN1-related NF-PanNETs is of vital importance to make well-informed decisions regarding timing and extent of intervention. However, presently there is a paucity of prognostic factors on which to base these decisions (146). The most important factor to date is tumor size, with the risk of (distant) metastases increasing with increased size. Recent data from retrospective cohort studies have shown that small (<2cm) NF-PanNETs generally have an indolent course, that surgical resection of small NF-PanNETs does not seem to offer benefit over active surveillance, and that the risk of metastases and disease-related death is low, albeit not zero (124, 146-150). Most small NF-PanNETs are stable during follow-up, but there is a subset with progression in size (150). Generally, size progression is also considered to be a prognostic factor. An important tissue-based prognostic factor is tumor grade, with grade 2 tumors being more often associated with metastases (146). Grade 3 NF-PanNETs or NECs are rarely seen in patients with MEN1, but are associated with a worse prognosis. More recently, advancements in molecular techniques have identified several potential prognostic biomarkers for NF-PanNETs, mostly in sporadic NF-PanNETs, but limited data in MEN1-related NF-PanNETs is also available. Mutations in alpha-thalassemia/mental retardation X-linked (ATRX) and death domain-associated protein (DAXX), which lead to the alternative lengthening of telomeres (ALT) phenotype have been found to be associated with decreased disease-free survival and higher rates of distant metastases (146, 151). Mutations in DAXX and ATRX result in loss of nuclear expressions of their proteins by immunohistochemistry (IHC) and ALT can be identified in tissue-samples by telomere-specific fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH). Next to DAXX/ATRX and ALT, the differential expression of transcription factors aristaless-related homeobox gene (ARX) and pancreatic and duodenal homeobox 1 (PDX1) as assessed by IHC was also found to be associated with risk of metastases (152, 153). In patients with MEN1-related NF-PanNETs, one study showed that liver metastases were only seen in ARX+ or ARX-/PDX1- tumors and that ALT positivity was only seen in ARX+ or ARX-/PDX1- tumors and significantly correlated with relapse rate (152). However, since the publication of these data, a large international cohort of 1322 NETs (not including MEN1-related NETs), was evaluated by immunolabelling for ARX/PDX1, ATRX/DAXX and by telomere-specific FISH for ALT and it was found that ATRX/DAXX and ALT, but not ARX/PDX1 were independent negative prognostic factors (151).

 

A recent study by Fahrmann, et al. identified a 3-marker polyamine signature that distinguished patients with metastatic dpNETs from controls and which yield an AUC of 0.84 (95% CI: 0.62-1.00) with 66.7% sensitivity at 95% specificity for distinguishing cases form controls in an independent test set (154). These results form the basis for prospective testing of plasma polyamines as a prognostic factor for MEN1-related dpNETs.

 

Further validation of these molecular markers in MEN1, may also change the role of pre-intervention EUS-guided aspiration or biopsy.

 

So, when to intervene in MEN1-related NF-PanNETs? Presently, these decisions are mostly based on tumor size and growth, with the current guidelines suggesting considering surgical resection in NF-PanNETs >10 mm or those that show significant growth during follow-up (doubling of tumor size over a 3–6-month interval and exceeding 10 mm) (2). Given the emerging evidence that most  NF-PanNETs <20 mm are indolent in nature as described above, a more recent consensus statement states that surgical resection is indicated for  NF-PanNETs >20 mm and those that progress during surveillance (155). Additionally, the presence of suspicious lymph nodes, or a higher grade on EUS-guided aspiration may guide intervention decisions. In all cases these decisions should be made in multidisciplinary teams and in shared decision making with the patient. The extent of resection depends on multiple patient-, tumor- and MEN1-related factors and should be individualized.

 

Gastrinoma

 

Gastrinomas, NETs secreting gastrin, cause the Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome (ZES). ZES is a syndrome characterized by tumor-related hypergastrinemia leading to gastric acid hypersecretion.

 

Sign and symptoms of ZES/Gastrinoma are gastro-esophageal reflux disease (GERD), (proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) responsive) diarrhea, abdominal pain, nausea/vomiting, weight loss, and peptic ulcer disease. Complications may arise from the peptic ulcer disease including upper gastro-intestinal bleeding, strictures, and bowel perforation.

 

Before the introduction of PPIs, complications from gastric acid hypersecretion were an important cause of death in patients with MEN1 (134). With the arrival of proton pump inhibitors, gastric acid hypersecretion can be effectively treated, although higher dosages are needed than for the treatment of non-ZES hyperacidity.

 

The diagnosis of gastrinoma in MEN1 is challenging at present. The gold standard for the diagnosis is the demonstration of inappropriate fasting hypergastrinemia without the use of antisecretory drugs. The diagnosis is established if the fasting serum gastrin (FSG) is more than tenfold the upper limit of normal with a gastric pH of less than two (after ruling out retained antrum) (156, 157). When gastric pH is low and FSG is <10-fold upper limit of normal, additional testing is needed to establish the diagnosis, such as a secretin provocative test or measuring basal acid output (156, 157). The latter situation occurs in 60% of ZES, and this might even be higher in MEN1, given the early detection through prospective screening programs. Due to unreliable gastrin assays, the limited availability of secretin and therewith the loss of expertise in performing the secretin provocative test, the wide-spread use of PPIs and the risk associated with cessation of PPI for proper testing, the diagnosis of gastrinoma is challenging (157, 158). Additionally, the value of non-biochemical tests in the diagnosis of gastrinoma (such as SSTR-PET-CT and EUS/ esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)-guided cytology/biopsy) might also need re-evaluation (157). Recently experts have therefore suggested possible new criteria for diagnosis of ZES in patients with fasting hypergastrinemia with and without PPI use (157).

 

Patients with MEN1 are screened for the presence of a gastrinoma by at least annually assessing clinical symptoms and fasting serum gastrin (2). If a diagnosis of gastrinoma is established or suspected, EGD should be performed to assess the presence of complications of gastric acid hypersecretion, type II gastric NETs, and possibly to identify duodenal gastrinomas. Duodenal gastrinomas in MEN1 are small, but despite their small size 70-80% are metastatic to the regional lymph nodes at the time of diagnosis (159). However, these regional lymph node metastases do not seem to have a negative impact on overall survival (159). In MEN1, attributing locoregional lymph nodes to the correct primary dpNET is important for adequate treatment planning and prognostic inferences. It is also challenging however, given that most patients with MEN1 and duodenal gastrinoma(s) also have concomitant PanNETs, and the duodenal gastrinoma(s) may not be visible on imaging due to their small size. Hackeng, et al. studied 137 microscopic and macroscopic dpNETs and 36 matched metastases (lymph node and distant) in 10 patients with MEN1 to unravel the relationship between the multiple primary dpNETs in MEN1 and the metastases (160). They found that most patients had a single NET of origin for their metastases, but multiple metastatic primaries were also seen. In addition, and very important for MEN1-related gastrinomas, in 6 patients with MEN1 and hypergastrinemia, periduodenopancreatic lymph node metastases clustered with minute duodenal gastrinomas and not with larger pancreatic NETs. So a duodenal origin for periduodenopancreatic lymph node metastases in patients with MEN1 and hypergastrinemia should always be considered (160).

 

Although its role still needs to be delineated, in MEN1-gastrinoma next to EUS/EGD, SSTR-PET-CT may be very useful for staging to visualize duodenal gastrinomas, lymph node metastases, and concomitant PanNETs.

 

Presently, as in other MEN1-related dpNETs, surgery is the only potentially curative treatment. And although MEN1-related ZES has been historically been considered a surgically incurable disease, more recent small studies have shown, that when the correct target organ is addressed, namely the duodenum and not the pancreas, biochemical cure can be achieved after partial pancreaticoduodenectomy(PD), combined with regional lymph node dissection (159). However, this must be balanced against the risk of peri-operative and long-term complications and loss of quality of life. Overall survival is generally good in duodenum-preserving operations as well, but persistence or recurrence of ZES occurs in 6-100% (159). Most often, hyperacidity can be adequately controlled with PPIs, making the main goal of surgical resection the prevention of distant metastases and disease-related death. The majority of MEN1-ZES patients with associated small PanNETs have an indolent disease course with excellent overall survival even without surgical intervention (161). Still, in retrospective studies around a quarter of the patients develop liver metastases and around 15% shows aggressive growth (138), and presently there are no good markers to predict which patients with MEN1-ZES will have a more aggressive disease course. In a study from the NIH age at ZES diagnosis (≤33), FSG levels ≥10,000 pg/mL, pancreatic tumors >3 cm, presence of liver/bone metastases and presence of gastric carcinoids were associated with aggressive tumor growth (138). In a study from the DutchMEN Study Group, overall survival rates of MEN1-gastrinoma were 83% and 65% at 5 and 10 years respectively, which was significantly worse than age- and gender-matched patients without gastrinoma. FSG ≥ 20x upper limit of normal, PanNETs≥ 2cm, synchronous liver metastases, EGD suspicious for gastric NETs, and multiple concurrent NETs were associated with decreased overall survival (135). A recent study from the French GTE, ZES was independently associated with a higher risk of distant metastases, but did not significantly seem to be associated with decreased overall survival (125).

 

So presently, if surgical intervention should be performed, when surgical intervention should be performed and how (to what extent) surgical intervention should be performed for gastrinoma in MEN1 are all controversial topics. Treatment of patients in centers of expertise with a highly dedicated multidisciplinary team and experienced surgeons is therefore very important. Treatment decisions for MEN1-ZES should be made after MDT discussion in shared decision making with the patient.

 

As stands to reason, treatment of MEN1-ZES patients with (high-dose) PPI is mandatory and patients should not cease this treatment without consultation with their provider. If specific testing without PPI is needed this needs to be performed under close supervision in centers of expertise.

 

As mentioned in the section on parathyroid tumors, the interplay between pHPT and ZES in MEN1 is important to realize as hypercalcemia can increase gastrin levels. Additionally, a recent paper on the Tasmanian MEN1 cohort showed an association between H. pylori seropositivity and hypergastrinemia and severe ZES-range hypergastrinemia. Further work is needed to fully elucidate this relationship, but testing for H. Pylori and eradication if positive might be consider in patients with MEN1-ZES (162).

 

Insulinoma

 

As already stated, MEN1-related insulinomas occur at a young age and are the most frequent functional PanNET at the pediatric age. Early recognition of signs and symptoms of insulinoma is of extreme importance in both children and adults. Signs and symptoms may be erroneously attributed to epilepsy or behavioral or neurological disorders, especially if insulinoma is the presenting manifestation of MEN1 in an index case. In children this can lead to decline in school performance and in children and adults alike episodes of hypoglycemia can lead to accidents or irrational behavior.

 

As insulinomas secrete insulin inappropriately and lead to hypoglycemia the signs and symptoms are those of hypoglycemia; both adrenergic symptoms (such as fast heartbeat, jitteriness/shakiness, sweating and pale skin) as well as neuroglycopenic symptoms (such as mental status changes and irritability). Symptoms are relieved with food (glucose) intake. They usually occur during fasting, before meals or after exercise, but can occasionally occur at other times. In patients fulfilling Whipple’s triad (symptoms and/ or signs consistent with hypoglycemia, a low plasma glucose concentration, and resolution of symptoms/signs after plasma glucose concentration is raised) diagnosis can be established by a supervised fast (163). In patients with MEN1, screening for insulinoma is advised from the age of five by careful history taking and measurement of fasting insulin and – more importantly – glucose (2). However, almost all patients with MEN1 and insulinoma are symptomatic, therefore the history is probably the most important element.

 

When the diagnosis of insulinoma is made, localization in MEN1 can be challenging, if there are multiple PanNETs. These usually are concomitant NF-PanNETs, since in surgical series multiple insulin-positive PanNETs in patients operated for insulinoma were seen in 8-40% (132, 164-166).

 

For MEN1-related insulinoma, especially if conventional imaging shows multiple PanNETs and correctly identifying the insulinoma(s) among them would change surgical strategy, 86Ga-Exendin-4 PET-CT is very promising. Although there is limited data in MEN1 patients, a recent meta-analysis showed a positive predictive value (PPV) of 94%, with a negative predictive value (NPV) of 67%; In MEN1 PPV was 95% with NPV 96%, although based on a limited number of patients (167, 168).

 

Surgical resection is the treatment of choice for MEN1-related insulinomas and is associated with a high cure rate. In a retrospective cohort study of 40 European and 6 North-American institutes 92 patients with MEN1-related insulinomas who underwent surgical resection were followed for a median of 8 years after surgery (132). Overall, after different surgical procedures, only 1 patient had persistence of hypoglycemia and six had recurrent hypoglycemia, four due to new primaries and 2 due to development of liver metastases, leading to a 10-year hypoglycemia-free survival of 91% (95% CI 80-96). For those with unifocal insulinoma based on pre- and intra-operative assessment (n=63), 1/46 (2.2%) undergoing pancreas resection had persistent disease, while among those who underwent enucleation 1/17 (6%) had recurrence of hypoglycemia based on a new primary insulinoma. For those with multifocal insulinoma (n=33), of whom 30 underwent pancreatic resection, mostly distal pancreatic resection, and three had multiple enucleations, 15% had recurrent hypoglycemia (9% based on new primaries and 6% based on liver metastases) (132).

 

Therefore, given the better outcomes of pancreatic function over the long-term and young age of the patients, if surgically feasible, enucleation seems the better option for solitary insulinomas in MEN1, provided of course that concomitant functional and non-functional tumors do not make a different strategy necessary (132).

 

Among MEN1-related dpNETs, insulinomas have the best oncological prognosis (26, 125, 169). Data from the international MEN1 Insulinoma Study Group and the DutchMEN Study Group show that for surgically resected insulinomas 10-yr liver-metastases free survival was 87% (72-91%) (169). Malignant insulinoma is rare, both in sporadic and MEN1-related insulinoma. In the two largest MEN1-insulinoma cohorts synchronous liver metastases were seen in 3.8-8.1% and metachronous liver metastases in 0-2.2% after a median follow-up of 8-9 years (132, 165).

 

Rare Functional dpNETS

 

Functional dpNETs besides gastrinomas and insulinomas, are rare in MEN1 and are seen in <1% of patients with dpNETs(2). These include PanNETs producing vaso-active intestinal peptide (VIPoma), somatostatin, glucagon and other (ectopic) hormones such as growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH), calcitonin, or PTH-related peptide (PTHrP). A rare functional tumor is considered if there are elevated hormone levels in conjunction with a fitting clinical syndrome. Without a clinical syndrome, tumors are not considered functional but merely hypersecreting. This is relevant as for example glucagon can be elevated in patients with MEN1 and PanNETs without the patient having the glucagonoma syndrome. VIPomas lead to watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, achlorhydria and dehydration, the somatostatinoma syndrome consists of diabetes mellitus, diarrhea, steatorrhea and cholelithiasis, while glucagonomas give rise to necrolytic migratory erythema, diabetes mellitus, and weight loss. Tumors producing GHRH, calcitonin, and PTHrP lead to acromegaly, diarrhea and hypercalcemia, respectively. In these rare functional dpNETs without synchronous distant metastases surgery is generally indicated.

 

Non-Surgical Treatments of Non-Metastatic dpNETs in MEN1

 

Although for most non-metastatic functional dpNETs in MEN1 surgery is indicated, there may be a (temporary) need to control the hormonal syndrome medically. As such gastrinomas are treated with high-dose PPI, insulinomas with diazoxide or frequent feedings and in all cases somatostatin analogues might be considered if needed to control the functional syndrome.

 

Local resection of sporadic small dNETs is increasingly considered as an alternative to surgery (170), and current European Neuroendocrine Tumor Society (ENETS) guidelines recommend endoscopic management for dNETs ≤ 10mm in size, confined to the submucosal layer and without lymph node and distant metastases (171). However, since in MEN1 dNETs are usually multiple, may grow beyond the submucosa and, in case of gastrinomas, are associated with lymph nodes in up to 80% of the cases, this is not generally recommended (159).

 

Similarly, for PanNETs EUS-guided intervention using ethanol or radio-frequent ablation has been reported in around 80 and 70 cases respectively in the literature, with only a handful procedures performed in patients with MEN1 (172). Whether or not interventional EUS may play a role in treatment of MEN1-related PanNETs is therefore unclear at the present time.

 

There is much interest in chemoprevention in small NF-PanNETs using somatostatin analogues (SSA). SSA have proven anti-proliferative effect in advanced PanNETs (173, 174) and the question has been raised if SSA may be used to prevent progression and metastases of small NF-PanNETs in patients with MEN1. In mouse models of Men1PanNET lanreotide and pasireotide showed the ability to decrease tumor proliferation. In a retrospective non-controlled study of 20 patients with small NF-PanNETs who received long-acting octreotide for 12-75 months 10% had an objective tumor response, 80% stable disease, and 10% showed progression (175). In another small (n=8) prospective series patients with small NF-PanNETs were treated with SSA for up to 72 months, with stable disease in all, however again without a control group (176). In a recent observational cohort study lanreotide was compared with standard of care active surveillance in n=42 patients with pNETs <2 cm (N=23 lanreotide vs n=19 active surveillance) during a median follow-up of 6 years (177). The study showed improved RECIST-defined progression-free survival (PFS) in the lanreotide group. In both groups however, one patient developed distant (liver) metastases (177). Limitations include sample size, non-experimental and therefore non-randomized design, and non-blinded outcome evaluation. In addition, improved RECIST PFS is not yet known to predict longer overall survival for MEN1 patients with small NF-PanNETs. Ideally this is further evaluated in a randomized double-blind trial. The most important challenge in the design of such a study however, is the definition of appropriate surrogate endpoint for distant metastases and overall survival (144).

 

Metastatic dpNET in MEN1

The treatment of stage IV dpNET in patients with MEN1 is similar to that of patients with sporadic dpNETs(178). There is very limited evidence regarding MEN1-specific outcome data, and from the limited evidence available there seems to be no difference with sporadic NETs. In landmark studies leading to approval of lanreotide (173), everolimus (179), sunitinib (180) and peptide receptor radionuclide therapy (PPRT) (181), patients with MEN1 were either excluded, only single cases included or MEN1-status was not mentioned (182). With the advancing molecular understanding of MEN1-related NETs, MEN1-specific targeted therapies might be possible in the future, which in turn might benefit the almost 50% MEN1-mutated sporadic PanNETs (182).

Gastric NETs in MEN1 (Type II Gastric NETs)

 

NETs of the stomach (Figure 1), formerly called gastric carcinoids or carcinoids of the stomach, are classified into three different types(171):

  • Type I, associated with atrophic gastritis
  • Type II, associated with MEN1/ZES
  • Type III, without associated conditions

 

Gastric NETs are graded according to the latest WHO classification of digestive system tumors (2019, 5th edition) as described above for dpNETs (Table 2) (142). TNM staging is shown in Table 5a and b.

 

Table 5a. TNM Staging of Neuroendocrine Tumors of the Stomach (AJCC UICC 8th edition)

Primary Tumor (T)

For any T, add (m) for multiple tumors, for multiple tumors with different Ts, use the highest (e.g., if three tumors’ sizes 0.5, 0.5, and 1.5 cm, T stage should be T2(m).

TX

Tumor cannot be assessed

T0

No evidence of primary tumor

T1

Invades lamina propria or submucosa and ≤ 1 cm

T2

Invades muscularis propria or >1cm

T3

Invades through the muscularis propria into subserosal tissue without penetration of overlying serosa

T4

Invades visceral peritoneum (serosal) or other organs or adjacent structures

Regional lymph Nodes (N)

NX

Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed

N0

No regional lymph node involvement

N1

Regional lymph node involvement

Distant Metastases (M)

M0

No distant metastases

M1

Distant metastases

M1a

Hepatic metastases only

M1b

Extra-hepatic metastases only

M1c

Both hepatic and extra-hepatic metastases

 

Table 5b. Stage Grouping

Stage I

T1 N0 M0

Stage II

T2-3 N0 M0

Stage III

T4 N0 M0

Any T N1 M0

Stage IV

Any T Any N M1

 

Gastric NETs are tumors of the gastric entero-chromaffin like (ECL) cells, which develop in MEN1 due to the trophic effect of gastrin on ECL-cells combined with the predisposing germline MEN1 mutation. Both components seem to be necessary for the development of gastric NETs in patients with MEN1. Gastric NETs are rarely seen in sporadic ZES patients and loss of heterogeneity was demonstrated in 75% of MEN1-related gastric NETs (183, 184), while in patients with MEN1 gastric NETs occur almost exclusively in patients with gastrinoma and regression of gastric NETs has been reported after normalization of hypergastrinemia (185, 186). ECL-cell hyperplasia is considered a precursor lesion for gastric NETs (187).

 

In the NIH-ZES cohort, 57 patients were extensively studied for gastric ECL-cell changes. All of the patients were found to have proliferative ECL-cell changes, with advanced changes in 53% and gastric NETs in 23% (188). More recently, data on ECL-cell changes in patients with MEN1 was reported from the Marburg MEN1 database (185). They reported on 38 MEN1 patients who underwent regular screening including EGD, regardless of gastrinoma status. Sixteen of these patients had a gastrinoma diagnosis, 13 of whom had biochemical ZES at the time of first EGD. They found that ECL-changes and gastric NETs were exclusively seen in patients with MEN1-gastrinoma albeit in a lower percentage than in the NIH. They found ECL hyperplasia in 62.5% of patients with a gastrinoma diagnosis, versus 0% in those without gastrinoma. No advanced ECL-cell changes were seen and gastric NETs were found in 12.5% of patients with a gastrinoma diagnosis (185). These differences might also reflect practice changes with earlier gastrinoma diagnosis due to screening and surveillance and more frequent surgical treatment of gastrinoma in the Marburg cohort compared to the NIH cohort.

 

In the NIH cohort, higher levels of FSG as well as longer duration of ZES were associated with a higher risk of advanced ECL-cells changes and gastric NETs (188). Higher levels of FSG as risk factor could not be confirmed in the Marburg cohort, however numbers of MEN1-ZES were small (185). As mentioned above, in the section on gastrinoma, the presence of gastric NETs in patients with MEN1-ZES was associated with a more aggressive disease course (138) and decreased overall survival (135).

 

Therefore, in the current MEN1 Clinical Practice Guidelines, EGD with biopsy, is recommend every 3 years in patients with MEN1 and hypergastrinemia. Although treatment of MEN1-related gastric NETs is not well established (2, 171), the guideline suggest that lesions <10 mm may remain under endoscopic surveillance, while larger tumors require endoscopic resection or local resection, which is analogue to the treatment of type I gastric NETs (2, 171).

 

The prognosis of MEN1-related gastric NETs is generally good, with metastases (regional and distant) reported in 10-30% and disease-related death <10% (171). Nevertheless, aggressive symptomatic and metastatic cases leading to mortality have been reported (189, 190).

 

Conclusion

 

In conclusion, dpNETs are highly prevalent in patients with MEN1 reaching a more than 80% penetrance at the age of 80.  NF-PanNETs are most frequently seen, followed by gastrinomas and insulinomas. Most MEN1-related dpNETs are diagnosed at an early stage and NF-PanNETs <2 cm generally have an indolent course. However, distant metastatic dpNETs (mostly NF-PanNETs and gastrinoma) are the most important cause of MEN1-related mortality. Treatment goals for MEN1-related dpNETs are therefore to prevent metastatic disease, cure hormonal hypersecretion, and prevent complication from hormonal hypersecretion, while minimizing treatment-related complications and preserving Quality of Life. Surgical resection is the mainstay for treatment, and is indicated in non-gastrinoma functional PanNETs and NF-PanNETs >2cm or with progression during follow-up. No consensus exists on the surgical treatment of MEN1-related gastrinoma. With increasing awareness of MEN1, increasingly refined and defined screening and surveillance programs, and increasing sensitive imaging modalities, MEN1-related dpNETs are detected at earlier stage and more indolent small dpNETs are seen. The main challenge at this point is therefore identifying those patients who are at risk for a more aggressive disease course and distant metastases to be able to offer those patients close follow-up schedules and earlier and more aggressive treatment, while limiting treatment-related morbidity in patients with low risk. Novel prognostic indicators are therefore needed, ideally blood-based, so minimal invasive assessment is possible. Other future directions are the investigation of chemoprevention in small NF-PanNETs.

 

Gastric NETs in MEN1 are almost exclusively seen in patients with gastrinoma and usually have an indolent course. Screening with EGD should be performed in all patients with MEN1-ZES.

 

THORACIC NEUROENDOCRINE TUMORS

 

General

 

Thoracic NETs occurring as part of the MEN1 syndrome are thymic (thNET) and bronchopulmonary NETs (bpNET) (Figure 1), although recently it was suggested that thymomas may also be part of the MEN1-related tumor spectrum (191). These tumors are not considered main disease-defining manifestations. As in other MEN1-related tumors, loss of heterogeneity (LOH) at the MEN1 locus was demonstrated in bpNETs in patients with MEN1 (97). This in contrast to thymic NETs, where until recently no LOH at the MEN1 locus was found. However, in a recent publication by the NIH, LOH was seen at the MEN1 locus in both MEN1-related thymic NETs (8 out of 12) and two (out of two) thymomas in patients with MEN1 (191). MEN1 is also the most frequently mutated gene in sporadic well-differentiated bpNETs, this is not described in thymus NET (192). However, approximately 25% of patients with thNET have germline mutations in MEN1, therefore it is very important to consider the diagnosis of MEN1 in patients presenting with a sporadic thNET (193). Thymic and bronchopulmonary NETs in MEN1 generally develop in adults. In pediatric and adolescent series (age up to 21, 31 in one series), there is only one reported case of thNET (diagnosed at age 16) and two cases of bpNET (diagnosed at age 15 and 20 respectively) (37, 46-48).

 

Staging and Grading

 

bpNET and thNET are classified according to the WHO classification (Table 6). TNM staging for thymicNETs is shown in Table 7a and b. TNM staging of bronchopulmonary NETs follows the same classification as bronchogenic lung carcinomas (Table 8a and b).

 

Table 6. WHO Classification of Bronchopulmonary and Thymic Neuroendocrine Tumors

Classification

Mitotic Rate and Necrosis

Well-differentiated

Typical Carcinoid, NET G1

Mitotic rate <2 and absence of necrosis

Atypical Carcinoid, NET G2

Mitotic rate 2-10 and/or presence of necrosis

Poorly differentiated

Neuro-endocrine carcinomas

Small-cell type

Large-cell type

Mitotic rate >10

 

Table 7a. Staging of Thymic Neuroendocrine Tumors (AJCC UICC 8th edition)

Primary Tumor (T)

TX

Tumor cannot be assessed

T0

No evidence of primary tumor

T1

 

T1a

T1b

Tumor encapsulated or extending into the mediastinal fat; may involve the mediastinal pleura

Tumor with no mediastinal pleura involvement

Tumor with direct invasion of mediastinal pleura

T2

Tumor with direct invasion of the pericardium (either partial or full thickness)

T3

Tumor with direct invasion into any of the following: Lung, brachiocephalic vein, superior vena cava, phrenic nerve, chest wall, or extrapericardial pulmonary artery or veins

T4

Tumor with invasion into any of the following: Aorta (ascending, arch, or descending), arch vessels, intrapericardial pulmonary artery, myocardium, trachea, esophagus

Regional lymph Nodes (N)

NX

Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed

N0

No regional lymph node involvement

N1

Metastasis in anterior (perithymic) lymph nodes

N2

Metastasis in deep intrathoracic or cervical lymph nodes

Distant Metastases (M)

M0

No pleural, pericardial, or distant metastasis

M1

Pleural, pericardial, or distant metastasis

M1a

Separate pleural or pericardial nodule(s)

M1b

Pulmonary intraparenchymal nodule or distant organ metastasis

 

Table 7b. Stage Grouping

Stage I

T1 N0 M0

Stage II

T2 N0 M0

Stage IIIa

T3 N0 M0

Stage IIIb

T4 N0 M0

Stage IVa

Any T N1 M0

Any T N0-1 M1a

Stage IVb

Any T N2 M0-M1a

 

Any T Any N M1b

 

Table 8a. TNM Staging of Bronchopulmonary Neuroendocrine Tumors (AJCC UICC 8th edition)

Primary Tumor (T)

If the number of tumors is known used T (#), if unavailable or too numerous T(m) (e.g., T2a(2) or T2a(m)).

TX

Primary tumor cannot be assessed or tumor proven by presence of malignant cells in sputum or bronchial washings but not visualized by imaging or bronchoscopy

T0

No evidence of primary tumor

Tis

Tumor in situ

T1

 

 

T1a(mi)

T1a

T1b

T1c

Tumor ≤3 cm in greatest dimension surrounded by lung or visceral pleura without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e., not in the main bronchus)*

Minimally invasive adenocarcinoma

Tumor ≤1 cm in greatest dimension

Tumor >1 cm but ≤2 cm in greatest dimension

Tumor >2 cm but ≤3 cm in greatest dimension

T2

 

 

 

 

 

T2a

T2b

Tumor >3 cm but ≤5 cm or tumor with any of the following features:

Involves main bronchus regardless of distance from the carina but without involvement of the carina

Invades visceral pleura

Associated with atelectasis or obstructive pneumonitis that extends to the hilar region, involving part or all of the lung

Tumor >3 cm but ≤4 cm in greatest dimension

Tumor >4 cm but ≤5 cm in greatest dimension

T3

Tumor >5 cm but ≤7 cm in greatest dimension or associated with separate tumor nodule(s) in the same lobe as the primary tumor or directly invades any of the following structures: chest wall (including the parietal pleura and superior sulcus tumors), phrenic nerve, parietal pericardium

T4

Tumor >7 cm in greatest dimension or associated with separate tumor nodule(s) in a different ipsilateral lobe than that of the primary tumor or invades any of the following structures: diaphragm, mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve, esophagus, vertebral body, and carina

Regional lymph Nodes (N)

NX

Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed

N0

No regional lymph node involvement

N1

Metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary nodes, including involvement by direct extension

N2

Metastasis in ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph node(s)

N3

Metastasis in contralateral mediastinal, contralateral hilar, ipsilateral or contralateral scalene, or supraclavicular lymph node(s)

Distant Metastases (M)

M0

No distant metastasis

M1

Distant metastases

M1a

Separate tumor nodule(s) in a contralateral lobe; tumor with pleural or pericardial nodule(s) or malignant pleural or pericardial effusion

M1b

Single extrathoracic metastasis

M1c

Multiple extrathoracic metastases in one or more organs

 

Table 8b. Stage Grouping

Stage 0

Tis N0 M0

Stage IA

T1 N0 M0

Stage IB

T2a N0 M0

Stage IIA

T2b N0 M0

Stage IIB

T1a-c N1 M0

T2 N1 M0

T3 N0 M0

Stage IIIA

T1a-c N2 M0

T2 N2 M0

T3 N1 M0

T4 N0-1 M0

Stage IIIB

T1a-c N3 M0

T2 N3 M0

T3 N2 M0

T4 N2 M0

Stage IIIC

T3-4 N3 M0

Stage IVA

Any T Any N M1a-b

Stage IVb

Any T Any N M1c

 

Thymic NET

 

ThNETs develop in 2.0 - 8.2% of MEN1 patients, with a median age at diagnosis of 43 years (range 16–72 years) (194-201). There is a strong male predominance (male to female ratio 4:1) in MEN1-related thNET, which is more pronounced in American and European cohorts compared to Asian series (194). Although one of the earliest studies on MEN1-related thNET suggested a higher prevalence of truncating MEN1 mutations in patients with thNET (202), no clear genotype-phenotype relationship has been described in later cohorts (196, 197, 199, 200). Furthermore, familial clustering of thNET within MEN1 families has been reported in a number of studies (193, 197, 199) but others could not find comparable results (196, 200). The suggested link between smoking and the occurrence of thNET in MEN1 remains controversial as well, as the portion of (heavy) smokers varied significantly among studies (193-196, 199, 201).

 

With the exception of a small subset of ACTH-producing tumors, most thNETs are functionally silent. As a result, the majority of patients only experiences symptoms when the tumor has reached an advanced stage, underlining the importance of periodic thoracic imaging for a timely detection.

 

MEN1-related thNET are characterized by their aggressive nature, illustrated by their frequent presentation with metastatic disease (53.5% of patients), usually located in lymph nodes, bones and lungs (194). Despite the low prevalence of thNETs among patients with MEN1, they are responsible for 19% of MEN1-related deaths (134). The poor prognosis of MEN1-related thNET has also been illustrated in a meta-analysis of 99 MEN-1 thNETs: median survival was 8.4 years, and the 10-year survival rate was 33%. An older age at diagnosis, a tumor diameter >5 cm and the presence of metastasis were associated with worse outcome (194).

 

Total (thoracic) thymectomy, including excision of the tumor, the entire thymus and perithymic fat, is the recommended treatment of choice (2, 203). Additional radiotherapy and chemotherapy may be used in patients with unresectable or metastatic disease. Data from the earlier mentioned meta-analysis suggested that adjunctive therapy after surgery tended to result in a better survival compared to surgery alone (after adjusting for gender, age at diagnosis, tumor size and smoking), but this effect did not reach statistical significance (HR 0.557, 95%CI: 0.110–2.817) (194). Prophylactic cervical thymectomy, generally performed during parathyroid surgery for primary hyperparathyroidism, may decrease the chance of the occurrence of thNET. However, several cases of thNET have been reported in patients after this procedure, indicating that surveillance imaging is still required in these patients (197, 202).

 

Bronchopulmonary NET

 

Histopathologically proven bpNETs occur in 4.7-6.6% of MEN1 patients, but a much higher proportion of MEN1 patients may be diagnosed with lesions radiologically suspect of bpNET (22.9%, 26.0% and 29.3% in the Dutch, Tasman and German cohort respectively) (195, 204-207). BpNETs are diagnosed at a median age of ± 45 years and the reported age at bpNET diagnosis ranges between 20 and 69 years. Although the earliest report suggested a female predominance among MEN1 patients with bpNET (205), later studies could not find a relationship between the occurrence of bpNET and sex (200, 204, 206, 207). Likewise, genotype (the type of mutation) or smoking status does not seem to influence the development of bpNET in MEN1 patients (204, 206, 207).

 

Only a minority of patients experience symptoms (dyspnea, cough, hemoptysis), which explains the high rate of bpNET (77–100%) diagnosed through periodic thoracic imaging surveillance (195, 206, 207). Growth analysis of lung lesions highly suspect of bpNET have demonstrated their overall indolent course, illustrated by a tumor doubling time of ±12 years at long-term follow-up in a Dutch national cohort study (204). However, a very small number of lesions showed sudden aggressive tumor growth. Unfortunately, no prognostic factors for tumor growth have been identified to date.

 

The vast majority of MEN1-related bpNETs are well-differentiated NETs (typical and atypical carcinoids); only five cases of poorly differentiated neuroendocrine carcinomas have been identified in MEN1 patients until now, all in the French Groupe d’étude des Tumeurs Endocrines (GTE) cohort (206). Considering the large cohort size (n=1023 MEN1 patients), long-term follow-up, high frequency of smokers and lack of molecular analyses confirming a causal relationship with the MEN1 syndrome, a sporadic coincidental occurrence of neuroendocrine carcinomas in MEN1 patients might also be a possible explanation for the manifestation of these carcinomas in this particular study. The overall benign histopathological characteristics of MEN1-related bpNET may explain their usually good prognosis: large cohort studies have shown that bpNETs do not significantly affect survival in MEN1 patients (204, 206), although a few (eight) aggressive cases with fatal outcome have been described (206, 207). A recent comparison between patients with MEN1-related and sporadic bpNET with comparable histopathological features showed a significantly higher disease-specific mortality in sporadic bpNET, however this has not yet been confirmed in other cohorts (208).

 

Data from the largest cohort of histologically proven bpNETs in MEN1 patients (n=51) suggested that patients with distant metastasis at diagnosis and non-operated patients had a significantly worse survival (206). Additionally, females, patients with a typical carcinoid (compared to atypical carcinoid) and those without lymph node involvement tended to have a better survival (p=0.07, p=0.08 and p=0.08, respectively (206). However, the most recent Dutch cohort study could not find any prognostic factors (204).

 

Surgical resection is considered the first treatment of choice, and should be done as lung-sparing as possible, including considering endobronchial resection if feasible (2, 203). Given their usually indolent course, watch-and-wait policy may be considered in patients with small, non-central, slow-growing lesions (203). Parallel to treatment regimens in sporadic bpNET, additional radiotherapy and/or chemotherapy could be used in case of persistent or metastasized disease, although data on the effect of these regimens in aggressive MEN1-related bpNET is very limited.

 

Surveillance

 

Current clinical guidelines recommend thoracic imaging (CT or MRI) every 1-2 years for detection of thymic and bronchopulmonary NETs (2). The optimal imaging modality still remains to be elucidated, although CT scans are used in the far majority of cases. A direct comparison between MRI and CT scans among MEN1 patients is lacking, and the role of nuclear imaging in screening programs for thoracic NETs has to be determined yet (209-212). Furthermore, the frequency of periodic surveillance is subject of debate; on one hand, the overall indolent course of bpNET and rareness of thNET might argue for less frequent screening – thereby diminishing radiation exposure, physical and psychological distress for patients, and health care costs –, but the lack of predictors for (sudden) aggressive tumor growth in bpNET and the aggressive nature of thNET plead for frequent thoracic imaging in order to enable timely intervention if necessary. Therefore, treating physicians should inform their patients about the benefits and disadvantages of a strict surveillance program, in order to come to a personalized surveillance strategy based on shared decision-making. 

 

ADRENAL TUMORS

 

Adrenal involvement (Figure 1) is frequently seen in patients with MEN1 and considered to be part of the syndrome though not one of the cardinal manifestations. Mice with heterozygous inactivation of the Men1 gene develop adrenocortical lesions to a greater proportion than Men1 wild-type controls (213, 214) and the adrenal tumors show loss of heterogeneity (LOH) and loss of menin staining. In humans with MEN1, LOH is rarely seen in benign adrenocortical tumors (215-217). It has been hypothesized that the development of adrenal tumors in MEN1 might be related to PanNETs and hyperinsulinemia, because in some cohorts an association was seen between the occurrence of PanNETs, hyperinsulinemia, and adrenal lesions. However, in the largest series to date, no difference was found in the prevalence of main MEN1 manifestations between those with and without adrenal lesions (217).

 

In retrospective cohorts on adrenal involvement in MEN1 the reported prevalence greatly differs from 20-73% (216-225). Prevalence in part differs by the way adrenal lesions are defined (i.e. also including hyperplasia) and the manner of diagnosis, with prevalence being the highest (73%) in an EUS study (n=49) including all adrenal lesions from ‘plump’ adrenals to adenomas (221). In the series (n=27) with the second-highest prevalence (63%) all CT scans were re-read with the purpose of classifying adrenal lesions and every adrenocortical lesion >5 mm was considered a nodule (225). The largest series to date from the French GTE (n=715) has the lowest prevalence of 20.4% (217). Adrenal lesions are rarely the reason for an MEN1 diagnosis or the first manifestation of the disease, and are most frequently diagnosed asymptomatically by screening/surveillance imaging during follow-up or at the time of initial comprehensive imaging after the diagnosis of MEN1 is made (217, 223). Mean age of diagnosis is usually in the fifth decade, but ranges vary widely (217, 223, 224).

 

The French GTE series compared MEN1-related adrenal lesions to a cohort of sporadic incidentalomas (n=144) and found that adrenal lesions in patients with MEN1 were diagnosed at a younger age and were similar in size and in prevalence of bilateral lesions (217).

 

Benign Adrenocortical Tumors

 

Most MEN1-related adrenal lesions are benign adrenocortical lesions and include hyperplasia, (macro)nodular hyperplasia, and adenomas. Bilateral lesions are frequently seen, but again prevalence reported varies widely from 12.5% to >50% in different series( 216-219, 221-224). Most adrenocortical lesions in MEN1 are non-functioning and generally stable over the course of follow-up (216-224). In a minority of the cases ACTH-independent hypercortisolism, autonomous cortisol secretion, or primary hyperaldosteronism are seen (216-219, 221-224). Interestingly, in the French series, when comparing MEN1-related adrenal lesions with adrenal incidentalomas, functional tumors were more common (15% vs 6.9%), especially primary hyperaldosteronism and ACTH-independent hypercortisolism (217). Pheochromocytomas on the other hand were more common among sporadic incidentalomas.

 

Adrenocortical Carcinoma

 

Adrenocortical carcinoma (ACC) is a rare occurrence among patients with MEN1, with a 2019 review of literature identifying 19 published cases (226). In the Swedish cohort, one patient had an ACC and in the tumor LOH at the MEN1 locus was seen (216, 222). Three papers reporting from the same German institutions reported two, four and one case of ACC respectively, but some of these might represent the same patients (220, 224, 227). In the large French series, eight patients with 10 ACCs were reported, which was 5% of patients with an adrenal lesion, but 13.8% of those with an adrenal tumor (>10mm) (217). ACC prevalence was also significantly higher than in the sporadic adrenal incidentaloma cohort (217). There are also several case reports describing patients with MEN1-related ACC (226, 228-233). It is important to mention that there are several cases reported were the ACC developed from an initially observed relatively small adrenocortical tumor, although when reported these lesions did not have Houndsfield Units (HU) ≤ 10. In the French cohort one patient had two nodules (8 and 13 mm, 38 HU) in one adrenal, which grew to 29 and 30 mm after 5 years, which turned out to be ACCs. Another patient had a 25 mm calcified lesion (40 HU) which grew to 40 mm in 4 years(217). One case report describes a female patient with a 2 cm left adrenal tumor which grew to 3 cm in 7 years (advised to undergo surgery but refused) and then to 4 cm in 4 years, after which the tumor was removed and turned out to be an ACC (233). In other cases more rapidly progressing tumors are described (220, 231). When ACCs are functioning, they are mostly cortisol producing or sex-steroid producing. In sporadic ACC,MEN1 is considered one of the driver genes (234).

 

Pheochromocytoma

 

Pheochromocytoma is one of the hallmark conditions of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 2 (MEN2), caused by germline mutations in the RET oncogene. In MEN1, the occurrence of pheochromocytoma is rare, with a 2020 case report and review of literature describing 20 published cases (235). The authors identified LOH at the MEN1 locus in the resected pheochromocytoma of the patient they report (235), and in another published series, two resected pheochromocytomas from patients with MEN1 were examined and LOH at the MEN1 locus was found in both, with one having absent menin staining and one weak menin staining (236).

 

Screening, Treatment and Follow-up

 

In patients with MEN1, minimal recommended screening for adrenal lesions as per the current guidelines, is abdominal imaging with CT or MRI every 3 years for those without adrenal lesions (2). Since abdominal imaging is also performed to screen for and/or surveille pancreatic lesions this can often be combined. However, care should be taken that the adrenals are properly imaged in the right phase to not only judge their size but also, should a lesion be present, to judge its characteristics. The preponderance to develop adrenal lesions should be mentioned in the clinical information to the radiologist and the images should be read by a radiologist experienced in adrenal imaging.

 

If an adrenal lesion is identified hormonal screening is recommended if patients are symptomatic or lesions are >1 cm (2). The current guidelines recommend that screening be focused on hyperaldosteronism and hypercortisolism (2), but given that pheochromocytomas do occur in MEN1 as described above and the consequence of missing the diagnosis can be serious, it is prudent to screen for the presence of a pheochromocytoma by either plasma free (nor)metanephrines or urinary fractionated (nor)metanephrines.

 

Indications for surgical resection parallel those of adrenal incidentalomas, being clinically significant hormone excess and/or concerns about malignancy either due to atypical characteristics on imaging, size (>4 cm), or significant growth over a 6-month period, which in the adrenal incidentaloma guidelines is suggested as increase in 20% (in addition to at least 5mm increase in actual size) (2, 237). Given the reports of ACCs in MEN1 arising from initially small lesions, some authors recommend to use a size cut-off of 3 cm in MEN1 (220).

 

If there is no indication for surgery, surveillance imaging is indicated, initially after 6 months. In the absence of a surgical indication at this point, frequency of further imaging follow-up should be determined individually and discussed by the multidisciplinary team. Unlike in sporadic adrenal incidentalomas, surveillance cannot be ended, given that multiple adrenal lesions can arise. There may be indications during follow-up to repeat initially negative hormonal screening, such as the development of symptoms or a new adrenal lesion.

 

CUTANEOUS LESIONS

 

Facial angiofibromas and collagenomas are the main skin lesions in MEN1 (Figure 1) (238, 239). Frequencies of 64% for angiofibromas and 62% for collagenomas have been described. Multiple angiofibromas and collagenomas are present in 77–81% of the MEN1 patients (238). Primarily angiofibromas are seen in patients with MEN1 (238, 240). An odds ratio of 6.6 (95% CI, 1.09–40.43) for cutaneous lesions in MEN1 in 29 patients with MEN1 in comparison with their non- affected family members is described (240).

 

These findings are further supported by the allelic loss of the MEN1 gene in six angiofibromas, three collagenomas, and one lipoma, suggesting that loss of function of the wild-type MEN1 gene product plays a role in the development of these skin lesions in patients with MEN1(241). Melanomas and other skin lesions are also described in the MEN1 population, but not with significant prevalences.

 

Lipomas (Figure 1) are reported in 17-34% of patients with MEN1 (238-240). Loss of heterozygosity of the MEN1 gene is described in MEN1-related lipomas (97, 241, 242) and may also play a role in sporadic lipomas (242). Menin seems to be an important factor for adipogenesis and contributes to lipoma development (243, 244).

 

A case of a novel MEN1 gene mutation with a recurrent sarcoma addresses the need for cautiousness of (atypical) skin lesions in patients with MEN1 (245).

 

BREAST CANCER AND MEN1

 

A higher incidence of breast cancer (Figure 1) was found in four independent MEN1 cohorts in the Netherlands, France, Tasmania and the United States. In the Dutch cohort a relative risk of 2.83 was found, which was significantly higher than in the general Dutch population (3). The median age for breast cancer was 45 years, which is approximately 15 years younger than the general Dutch population. The increased risk for breast cancer for MEN1 carriers was not associated with other breast cancer risk factors or a familial breast cancer risk. Considering the younger age of breast cancer occurrence and an earlier age of breast cancer, surveillance should be considered. Breast cancer surveillance from the age of 40 is initiated in the Dutch MEN1 cohort (4). After the latter publication, several cases of early breast cancer in MEN1 patients were reported (246-249).

 

These epidemiological findings are supported by basic research. Loss-of-function Men1 mouse models have shown an increased incidence of both in situ and invasive mammary cancer (250). Menin, the tumor suppressor protein encoded by MEN1, is co-localized with the estrogen receptor (ER) alfa in breast cancer cells. In this manner, menin functions as a direct activator of Erα (251). In sporadic ER-positive breast cancer, menin seems to have a proliferative role, which is in contrast with breast cancer in MEN1 carriers, in whom LOH of the MEN1 gene could be found (3, 252). Recent studies showed that reduced menin staining is associated with ER-negative breast cancer and in ER-positive breast cancer with larger tumors, higher grade tumor, and luminal subtypes tumors. Providing further evidence that there is an important role of menin in ERα regulation and the breast cancer formation (253).

 

PSYCHOSOCIAL ASPECTS

 

Recently there has been more interest in the psychosocial wellbeing of patients with MEN1 (254-259).The first study was published in 2003, which showed that psychosocial outcomes such as anxiety, depression, intrusion, and avoidance are not altered by the hospital or home setting. A higher burden of disease led to more depression. Compared to the population-based norm values, patients with MEN1 scored lower for General Health and Social Functioning according to the SF-36 (260).

 

Postoperatively, quality of life (QOL) scores did not differ after pancreaticoduodenal surgery in MEN1 patients in comparison with the general population. Financial difficulties caused by the treatment were significantly worse in MEN1 patients (261). Financial burden seems to be associated with having MEN1. The degree of financial burden has a linear relationship with worse health-related QOL. Patients were three-times more likely to be unemployed in comparison with the US population (256).

 

The largest QOL-related study showed that employment status was the most consistent predictor for QOL. This is in line with the former studies. The health-related QOL according to the SF-36 was significantly lower for patients with MEN1 on all subscales except for the physical functioning scale. Patients who are aware of their PA and PanNET have worse QOL scores in comparison with patients who are not aware of having these tumors(259). The degree of fear of disease recurrence is high in patients with MEN1. This fear is negatively associated with health-related QOL and is higher in patients who consider themselves at high risk for developing a MEN1-related tumor. More MEN1-related manifestations lead to more fear of disease occurrence (258). In comparison with other chronic diseases MEN1 scores worse regarding anxiety, depression and fatigue (257).

 

QOL did not overly differ from the general population in the Italian cohort (255) and patients were more optimistic than in the Swedish cohort (260). This could be due to cultural differences, population selection, and awareness of the disease and its implications.

The high response rate in the MEN1 population illustrates the motivation of patients to participate in research and care about their wellbeing (259, 260).

 

CONCLUSION

 

In conclusion, in the past decades there have been great advances in the understanding of the natural course of MEN1-related tumors, which has had direct consequences on clinical care. In the coming decade one of the main research objectives will be the identification of individual predictors of disease course which can guide personalized treatment and surveillance. Increasing international collaborations will enable prospective studies. Given the complexity of the disease, it is strongly advised that patients, whenever possible, be followed and treated in centers of expertise. If this is not feasible, consultation with a center of expertise should be considered.

 

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Snakebite Envenomation and Endocrine Dysfunction

ABSTRACT

 

Snakebite envenoming (SBE) is a life-threatening medical emergency encountered in tropical parts of Asia, Africa, and Latin America. Toxins in the venom cause local damage and multi-organ dysfunction, predominantly affecting neurological, hematological, and vascular systems. Endocrine anomalies are less frequently reported and often masked by more severe disorders. Anterior pituitary insufficiency is the most common endocrine manifestation and mainly observed after Russell’s viper (Daboia russelii and D. siamensis) bite. SBE-induced hypopituitarism can manifest early or have a delayed presentation. Primary adrenal insufficiency, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hyperkalemia, and hyperglycemia are also described. These complications are uncommon and under-reported, as SBE occurs in remote areas and medical facilities for endocrine assessment might not be available. Timely identification and management of these problems are critical for optimum medical outcome.

 

INTRODUCTION

 

Snakebite envenoming (SBE) occurs predominantly in rural parts of Asia, Africa, and Latin America (1,2). The World Health Organization (WHO) included SBE in the priority list of neglected tropical diseases in 2018. According to the WHO, 4.5–5.4 million people get bitten by snakes annually, but many cases are not reported as people living in remote areas with limited healthcare access are affected. Clinical illness from SBE develops in 1.8–2.7 million, and the annual mortality is around 81,000 to 138,000 (3).

 

Toxins in snake venom can cause local tissue destruction, neurological damage, hemorrhagic tendency, renal failure, and cardiovascular compromise. Endocrine dysfunctions are uncommon but can have ominous consequences if not recognized. Anterior pituitary insufficiency (API) after Russell’s viper (RV) envenomation (RVE) is the most common endocrine manifestation of SBE. Electrolyte disturbances and hyperglycemia are the other complications described (4). Timely recognition and appropriate management of endocrine derangements like hypocortisolism and electrolyte imbalances can save lives.

 

SPECIES OF SNAKES AND SNAKE VENOM

 

The medically relevant poisonous snakes usually belong to the Elapidae and Viperidae families. Rare cases of envenoming from Atractaspididae and Colubridae families are also described. The common Elapidae snakes include cobras, mambas, kraits, coral snakes, death adders, and sea snakes. The Viperidae snakes of significance are vipers, including RV, adders, asps, and pit vipers. The general notion that Elapidae envenomation results in neuroparalytic manifestation and Viperidae bite induce local reaction and vasculotoxicity does not always hold.

 

Snake venoms contain mixtures of polypeptides, amines, carbohydrates, lipids, phospholipids, nucleosides, and minerals. The principal constituents are proteins belonging to the four families: phospholipase A2, metalloprotease, serine protease, and three-finger peptides. Additional secondary protein families include cysteine-rich secretory proteins, l-amino acid oxidases, kunitz peptides, C-type lectins/snaclecs, disintegrins, and natriuretic peptides (5).

 

Snake venom toxicity can be classified into three main categories: vasculotoxic, neurotoxic, and cytotoxic. Various proteins with enzymatic properties such as phospholipase A2, hyaluronidases, peptidases, and metalloprotease can cause local tissue destruction. Phospholipase A2, metalloproteases, and other protein components can cause neurotoxicity, damage the coagulation cascade, induce muscle necrosis, and sometimes exert cardiotoxic and nephrotoxic effects (6). Cardiac compromise and acute kidney injury (AKI) can also emerge as secondary complications. Endocrine disorders after SBE are uncommon and pathophysiologic mechanisms are incompletely understood.

 

ANTERIOR PITUITARY INSUFFICIENCY

 

Anterior pituitary insufficiency (API) is the most well-recognized endocrine manifestation of SBE. Most cases are from Sri Lanka, India, and Myanmar and occur after RVE (Daboia russelii and D. siamensis).

 

Etiology

 

Wolff first narrated SBE-induced hypopituitarism in 1958 after bite from Bothrops jararacussu (7). The first description of API following RVE in the Indian subcontinent came from Eapen et al. (8). Although RV is found in many south Asian countries, most accounts of RVE-induced API are almost exclusively from Myanmar, India, and Sri Lanka (9–16). It could be related to the geographic variation in venom composition among the same snake species. The incidence of API in a study from northern India was 14.6% (6/41) among patients admitted with vasculotoxic snakebites (presumed RVE) (12).

 

Pathophysiology

 

The pituitary gland is a highly vascular structure enclosed in a bony cavity called the sella tursica. The low-pressure hypothalamic-pituitary portal system originating from the superior hypophyseal artery provides blood supply to the anterior pituitary. The hypophyseal portal system is susceptible to compressive effects from an enlarged or engorged gland and renders the anterior pituitary vulnerable to vascular insults after stimulation from any cause.

 

Sheehan’s syndrome and RVE-induced hypopituitarism share similar pathophysiology (16,17). In Sheehan’s syndrome, hemorrhagic infarction of the pregnancy-induced hyperplastic gland occurs during severe postpartum bleeding-related hypovolemic shock (18). Predisposition to vascular damage in RVE could result from gland engorgement due to a generalized increase in capillary permeability as in capillary leak syndrome (19–21). Additionally, the toxins in RV venom can stimulate pituitary cells as suggested by in-vitro studies, further increasing the susceptibility to damage (22).

 

The vascular supply to an engorged and stimulated gland might be compromised due to microthrombi deposition or hemorrhage from disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) (16,23), circulatory or hypovolemic shock (14), thrombotic occlusion of major vessels including cerebral venous thrombosis (24,25), and increased intracranial pressure (14). Autoimmune damage has been postulated to contribute to delayed pituitary injury in Sheehan’s syndrome (26,27). The role of similar immune-mediated damage in the development of delayed hypopituitarism after RVE has not been studied.

 

Clinical Features

 

ACUTE HYPOPITUITARISM

 

Acute onset API has been observed after RVE in several series and can present as early as the first day (11,12,15). In one series of nine patients, API occurred after a median interval of nine days (range 2-14 days) (15). The usual manifestations of RVE include local reaction, coagulopathy, neuromuscular paralysis, and AKI (28,29). Circulatory shock, another feature of RVE, is multifactorial in etiology (14). In the acute phase, adrenal insufficiency (AI) dominates the clinical presentation of API. The symptoms of AI often get masked by other systemic effects of RVE. Clinical clues could be refractory hypotension and the presence of hypoglycemia or hyponatremia.

 

Central hypothyroidism may coexist with secondary AI and is diagnosed if serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is low or normal along with decreased serum thyroxine levels. TSH can also get suppressed due to sick euthyroid syndrome and glucocorticoid administration. The diagnosis of central hypothyroidism is difficult to discern in the acute phase, and a follow-up test after recovery is necessary for confirmation. Reassessment of hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) and additional evaluation of the gonadotrophic and growth hormone (GH) secretion should be performed after 4-6 weeks. Acute hypopituitarism is sometimes transient, but the typical outcome is a permanent disease (12,13).

 

DELAYED HYPOPITUITARISM

 

API is often diagnosed years after RVE (30–33). The symptoms depend on the hormone axis involved and the extent of hormone deficiency (34). Delayed hypopituitarism often presents as secondary amenorrhea and infertility in females. In males, hypogonadotropic hypogonadism usually manifests as loss of libido and erectile dysfunction. Loss of secondary sexual characteristics can be present in both genders.

 

Standard features of secondary hypothyroidism include cold intolerance, weight gain, constipation, dry skin, and hoarseness. Secondary AI presents as fatigue, loss of appetite, and orthostatic dizziness (34). Involvement in early childhood can cause stunted growth and delayed or absent puberty (31). In a case series of delayed API, secondary hypothyroidism and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism were present in all the cases (8/8); and GH and secondary AI were present in 75% (6/8) (30). Table 1 depicts the recent case series describing API.

 

Predictors of Hypopituitarism

 

The presence of acute kidney injury (AKI) most consistently correlates with the development of API after RVE (13,30). Bhat et al. found that in patients (n=51) with vasculotoxic snakebite-associated AKI, the risk factors for API were younger age, the number of hemodialysis sessions, and 20-min whole blood clotting time (13). There was a history of AKI in 75% of cases of delayed hypopituitarism in another series (30). In a study describing nine patients with acute API, the predictors were multi-organ dysfunction, lower platelet counts, and more bleeding with a requirement for transfusions (15). However, coagulopathy, AKI, hemodialysis, and clinical severity scores failed to show any association with hypopituitarism in a prospective study (12).

 

Table 1. Case Series of Hypopituitarism After Snakebite Envenoming

Author, year

Region

Snake species

No. of patients

Onset,  Time

Clinical features/ hormone axes involved/ comments

Tun Pe, 1987(10)

Myanmar

Not defined

Snakebite – 220

Acute API – 3

PH (on autopsy) – 4

 

Delayed  API – 11

Acute: 21 hr - 9 d

 

Delayed: 2 wk - 24 yr

Acute - C, GH, PRL

 

Delayed

Symptomatic - 7 Asymptomatic – 4

Proby, 1989 (35)

Myanmar

RV

Acute API (probable) – 20

 

Delayed API – 11/12

Acute, NA

 

Delayed – 8 - 226 wk

C - 10/15

T - 19/20

G -12/17

Golay, 2014 (11)

West Bengal, India

Vasculotoxic snakebite

API - 9/96 cases of snakebite associated AKI

Acute and delayed, 2 wk - 10 yr

C - 6/9

G, GH, T - 9/9

1 empty sella, rest normal

Rajagopala, 2014 (15)

Puducherry, India

Vasculotoxic snakebite

9/989 cases

Acute, 2-14 d

Hypoglycemia (100%), hypotension (67%)

C - 9/9

Partial empty sella in 6/9

Naik, 2018 (12)

India

Vasculotoxic snakebite

9/41 cases

Acute (10%), Mean - 32 hr

Primary AI - 2/6,

C, GH, G - 6/6

PRL - 2/6

 

White, 2019 (36)

Myanmar

RV (85.4%), Rest - cobra, krait, green pit viper, others

20/948 cases

Acute (2%)

Coagulopathy - 68.9%,

 AKI - 72.2%

Gopalkrishnan, 2018 (14)

India

RV, saw-scaled viper

SB - 248

AI – 12

API - 4

Acute

C -19/48

Autopsy - 52.

PH or ischemic necrosis - 46%

Bilateral adrenal hemorrhage - 26%, Adrenal ischemic necrosis – 6%

Shivaprasad, 2018 (30)

Karnataka, India

RV

Delayed API - 8

Delayed, 5-11 yr

C, GH - 6/8

T, G - 8/8

Bhat, 2019 (13)

West Bengal, India

Vasculotoxic snakebite

API - 11/51 at 7 d and 13/33 at 3 mn after snakebite associated AKI

Acute and delayed,

7 d – 3 mn

C – 12/13

PRL – 9/13

G – 9/13

GH – 5/13

T – 4/13

RV - Russell’s viper, C - cortisol, GH - growth hormone, G - gonadotropin, PRL - prolactin, T - thyroid, API – anterior pituitary insufficiency, AI - adrenal insufficiency, PH – pituitary hemorrhage, AKI – acute kidney injury, SB- snake bite

 

Diagnosis

 

ACUTE HYPOPITUITARISM

 

It is challenging to diagnose API during the acute phase. The indicators associated with API are summarized in table 2. The assessment of the HPA axis is required to decide the necessity for glucocorticoid replacement. Hypocortisolism in the acute phase is diagnosed from random cortisol or with the cosyntropin stimulation test. In remote areas, if a delay is anticipated in obtaining the cortisol report, hydrocortisone replacement should be started in suspected cases. The different criteria that have been used to diagnose hypocortisolism in the acute phase are (a) fasting serum cortisol < 3 μg/dL (83 nmol/L) (13), (b) random serum cortisol < 5 μg/dL (138 nmol/L) in suspected pituitary apoplexy (37), (c) random serum cortisol < 10 μg/dL (275 nmol/L) in a critically ill patient (14), (d) post-cosyntropin peak cortisol < 18 μg/dl (500 nmol/L), and (e) post-cosyntropin delta cortisol < 9 μg/dL (250 nmol/L) (38). Note in very ill patients serum cortisol levels can be artifactually low secondary to a decrease in cortisol binding protein.

 

The interpretation of the thyroid function test can be problematic in the acute phase. Low luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and prolactin might be indicative but not diagnostic of API. The gonadal axis and sex hormone secretion (testosterone in males and estradiol in females) is usually suppressed during any severe illness. The pituitary function should be reassessed after 4-6 weeks of recovery. The MRI findings reveal a normal gland on imaging in acute cases (11,12,15). Pituitary hemorrhage has been demonstrated in autopsy findings but is seldom observed in imaging studies (15).

 

Table 2. Features Suggestive Of or Associated with Acute Hypopituitarism after Russell’s Viper Bite

Clinical features

Laboratory results

Imaging

Persistent or unexplained hypotension

Hypoglycemia

Pituitary hemorrhage or infarct on MRI

Acute kidney injury

Hyponatremia

Capillary leak syndrome

 

 

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

 

 

 

DELAYED HYPOPITUITARISM

 

Acute hypopituitarism may progress to chronic disease or manifest insidiously years later (11,12,30). It may be prudent to perform periodic surveillance to rule out the development of API following RVE. Hypogonadism has been described in 100% of cases, central hypothyroidism in 96.4%, secondary AI in 82%, and GH deficiency in 77% (30). Central diabetes insipidus (CDI) is very rare and discussed next. The clinical presentation depends on the age, the hormone axes involved, and the mode of onset. The tests recommended for the diagnosis of pituitary hormone deficiency are outlined in table 3. However, facilities for the dynamic tests may not be available in remote areas where SBE is prevalent (34). MRI usually reveals a normal pituitary during the initial year, but partial or complete empty sella may be found later on (4). 

 

Table 3. Investigations for Diagnosis of Chronic Anterior Pituitary Insufficiency

Hormone

Tests

Interpretation/comments

ACTH

Cortisol, ACTH between 8- 9 AM

Serum cortisol values < 3 μg/dL (83 nmol/L) at 8–9 AM on 2 occasions strongly suggest AI in an appropriate clinical setting. Intermediate levels (3-18 μg/dl; 83 – 497 nmol/L) require cosyntropin stimulation test. Concomitant normal or low ACTH levels indicate secondary AI.

 

Cosyntropin (Synacthen) stimulation test

Cosyntropin injection 250 μg (i.v. or i.m.) followed by serum cortisol at 30 min and 60 min. Peak cortisol < 18 μ/dl (500 nmol/L) is suggestive of AI.

 

Insulin tolerance test

Serum cortisol < 20 μg/dL (550 nmol/L) at the time of insulin induced hypoglycemia < 40 mg/dL (2.2 mmol/L). Extreme caution required, not practiced in many centers.

 

 

 

TSH

T4 (total or free), TSH

Low T4 with low or normal TSH suggests the diagnosis of central hypothyroidism

 

 

 

GH

IGF-1

Low IGF-1 suggestive but not diagnostic.

 

GH stimulation test

Adults: Insulin tolerance test, arginine, GHRH stimulation test, Macimorelin stimulation test, glucagon stimulation test.

Children: Clonidine stimulation test in addition to tests used for adults.

 

 

 

Gonadotrophin (Males)

LH, FSH, testosterone (total), SHBG

Low total testosterone (<300 ng/dl (10.41 nmol/L)) between 8–9 AM, preferably on 2 occasions along with low or normal LH, FSH is suggestive of gonadotrophin deficiency. SHBG and free or bioavailable testosterone measurement should be considered in borderline cases.

Gonadotrophin (Females)

LH, FSH, estradiol

Low estradiol in the setting of low or normal LH and FSH in the appropriate clinical setting (amenorrhea/ oligomeorrhea) suggests gonadotrophin deficiency.

 

 

 

Prolactin

Prolactin

Low levels found in hypopituitarism

 ACTH – adrenocorticotrophic hormone, AI – adrenal insufficiency, TSH – thyroid-stimulating hormone, T4 – thyroxine, GH - growth hormone, IGF-1 – insulin-like growth factor 1, LH – luteinizing hormone, FSH – follicle-stimulating hormone, SHBG – sex-hormone binding globulin

 

Management

 

Acute hypopituitarism typically occurs in critically ill patients with severe envenomation from RV. Intravenous hydrocortisone is required if AI is suspected or diagnosed. Thyroxine supplementation for hypothyroidism should be started only after correcting AI. There is a risk of precipitating adrenal crisis because of the accelerated metabolic clearance of cortisol, if thyroxine is administered before treatment of AI (39). Monitoring of electrolytes, and slow correction of hyponatremia when present, in order to prevent central pontine myelinolysis, are important adjuncts.

 

If oral intake is proper and the patient is hemodynamically stable, intravenous hydrocortisone can be substituted by oral glucocorticoids. Hormonal evaluation of the entire pituitary axes should be performed after 4-6 weeks of recovery. Replacement of deficient hormones as per standard practice should be instituted if API persists (34).

 

Post-mortem Findings

 

Pituitary hemorrhage and ischemic necrosis have been described in autopsy studies of 43% (36/84) cases of RVE in Myanmar (40). Areas of ischemic necrosis with hemorrhage at the center were observed in studies from India (15). Deposition of fibrin microthrombi in the pituitary and other organs, including the kidney, suggests a possible role of DIC in the pathogenesis of API (23). 

 

DIABETES INSIPIDUS

 

Involvement of the posterior pituitary gland is exceedingly rare in SBE. There are only a few case reports of central diabetes insipidus (CDI) after RVE (13,31,41,42). The posterior pituitary receives direct arterial supply from the inferior hypophyseal artery and is resistant to vascular damage. On the other hand, the anterior gland is susceptible to vascular compromise as it is supplied by the low-pressure hypophyseal-portal system (43). Moreover, CDI occurs when more than 80% of arginine vasopressin (AVP)-producing hypothalamic magnocellular neurons are lost. The posterior pituitary acts as a storage and secretory organ, and persistent CDI ensues only in the presence of significant damage to the hypothalamus (44). Polyuria, a cardinal feature of CDI, may be obscured due to concomitant hypocortisolism and manifest only after glucocorticoid replacement (45). CDI should be treated with nasal or oral desmopressin.

 

ADRENAL DISORDERS

 

Etiopathogenesis

 

Secondary AI from hypopituitarism is the classically described adrenal disorder resulting from SBE. Primary AI is exceptionally uncommon, though adrenal hemorrhage (AH) has been described in imaging studies and autopsy findings. There are cases of AH occurring after RVE and saw scale viper (Echis carinatus) bite (40,46,47).

 

The pathophysiology of AH is related to DIC and has been postulated to resemble Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome (48). The adrenal gland is a highly vascular structure that derives its arterial supply from three arteries but is drained by only one adrenal vein and has a dense internal network of capillaries (49). The causal factors behind predisposition to AH after RVE are summarized in table 4 (14,50,51).

 

Table 4. Factors Predisposing to Hemorrhage after Russell’s Viper Envenomation

Intrinsic predisposition of adrenal vascular structure due to arterial supply by 3 vessels but drainage by one vein

Rich subcapsular plexus with limited drainage by venules forming a “dam”

Disseminated intravascular coagulation and hemorrhagic toxins in the venom increase bleeding tendency

Formation of microthrombi in venules impair venous drainage and cause pooling of blood

Pooling of blood due to capillary leak syndrome

Stress-induced trophic effect of adrenocorticotrophic hormone induces adrenal cortical hyperplasia and increase vascularity

Stress-induced catecholamine secretion causes adrenal venous constriction resulting in pooling of blood in the adrenal gland

 

Diagnosis And Treatment

 

AH has been described in 36% of cases in an autopsy series, though primary AI is rare (40). Refractory hypotension, hypoglycemia, hyponatremia and hyperkalemia should raise suspicion of primary AI. The presence of associated secondary AI can confound the diagnosis. Bilateral AH with transient AI has been described following RVE. The hemorrhage and adrenal function resolved in weeks (47). Cases depicting chronic AI have been published after vasculotoxic SBE (12). Diagnosis and treatment are similar to secondary AI; the primary differentiating point is elevated plasma ACTH. Mineralocorticoid supplementation may be additionally required in primary AI.

 

HYPERGLYCEMIA

 

Etiopathogenesis

 

Hyperglycemia, an infrequent endocrine complication after SBE, has been described following both elapid (Bungarus multicinctus multicinctus) and viper envenomation (Vipera ammodytes ammodytes, European viper spp) (52–54). In rat models, common krait (Bungarus caeruleus) venom produces hyperglycemia (55). Intraperitoneal injection of saw-scaled viper (Echis carinatus) venom in rats suppressed plasma insulin and depleted liver glycogen stores (56). The hyperglycemic effect of Egyptian cobra (Naja haje) was also associated with concomitant depletion of liver and kidney glycogen stores. The mechanism of hyperglycemia is presumed to be triggered by a massive surge of catecholamines, a phenomenon observed after scorpion envenomation and in pheochromocytoma (4,57). Scorpion toxins stimulate sodium and inhibit potassium channels leading to intense and persistent excitation of the autonomic nervous system and release of neurotransmitters from the adrenal medulla, activating parasympathetic (early hours) and sympathetic nerve endings (4–48 hours). Catecholamine-mediated activation of the alpha receptors inhibits insulin secretion and contributes to hyperglycemia (54,58).

 

Clinical Features and Management

 

In a series of 83 children, viper envenomation resulted in hyperglycemia starting 4 hours after the bite, was moderate in severity, and usually transient. Moreover, hyperglycemia at presentation was a marker of high-grade envenomation (54). Severe hyperglycemia up to 480 mg/dl (26.7 mmol/L) occurred in a 45-day baby after two hours of bite from a nose-horned viper (V. a. ammodytes). (53). A retrospective study from Taiwan found hyperglycemia in 15% (7/44) patients of Bungarus multicinctus envenomation. Only one of them had persistent diabetes after recovery (52). Acute pancreatitis can result from the bite of the adder (Vipera berus), but associated hyperglycemia was not observed (59,60). Insulin and other antihyperglycemic drugs should be administered for management of hyperglycemia as and when necessary.

 

ELECTROLYTE DISTURBANCES

 

Hyponatremia

 

ETIOPATHOGENESIS

 

Envenomation by Malayan krait (Bungarus candidus), banded krait (Bungarus fasciatus)), and vipers can result in hyponatremia (61–68). Hyponatremia sometimes occur secondary to anterior pituitary insufficiency (API) after vasculotoxic envenoming but it has also been reported in the absence of API (4). Initial descriptions suggested that the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) could be responsible for hyponatremia (64). However, subsequent accounts revealed that urinary salt loss from natriuretic peptides in venom, rather than SIADH, is the pathogenic mechanism. The urinary salt loss is secondary to venom-derived natriuretic peptides, similar to endogenous natriuretic peptides, and acts on the renal tubules to decrease sodium and water reabsorption (69). Cerebral salt wasting has also been postulated to cause hyponatremia (61). An unusually high prevalence of hyponatremia (89%) was observed in a series of 14 patients with berg adder (Bitis atropos) bite in South Africa (67). Many-banded krait (Bungarus multicinctus) envenomation caused hyponatremia in 42% of cases (63).

 

Natriuretic peptides are found in the venom of Elapidae species such as Bungarus candidus,  Bungarus multicinctus, Dendroaspi sangusticeps, Oxyuranus microlepidotus, Pseudonaja textillis, and Pseudechis australis and a few Viperidae species e.g. Hypnale hypnale,  Psudocerastus persicus, and Macrovipera lebetina (66).

 

CLINICAL FEATURES

 

The presentation of hyponatremia depends on the severity and acuteness of onset. The clinical profile ranges from asymptomatic hyponatremia to varying alteration in sensorium to frank coma (61,62). Seizures occur in severe cases (62). Usually there are associated systemic features but isolated hyponatremia, hypovolemia, urinary salt loss, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures, following hump-nosed pit viper bite (Hypnale hypnale) has been described (66). In a case series of 42 patients admitted in Vietnam, 31 people (73.8%) had hyponatremia, the lowest values occurring an average of two days after the bite. Approximately 42–50% of patients who did not receive antivenom developed significant hyponatremia (< 130 mmol/L) 2–3 days post-bite. (70).  Another series of 78 cases of krait bite from Thailand reported hyponatremia in 17.6%, with severe hyponatremia (< 120 mmol/L) developing in four pediatric patients, two of whom developed seizures (71).

 

MANAGEMENT

 

Hyponatremia resulting from natriuretic peptides should be corrected by intravenous saline administration. SIADH is not the cause of hyponatremia, and fluid restriction is not recommended. If chronic hyponatremia is suspected, the correction rate should not exceed 10-12 meq/L in any 24 hours to avoid osmotic demyelination (72). If primary or secondary AI is the cause of hyponatremia, glucocorticoid supplementation is necessary.

 

Hypokalemia

 

ETIOPATHOGENESIS

 

Hypokalemia results from both elapid (73,74) and viper envenomation (75–77). Patients with hypokalemia after RV, common krait (Bungarus caeruleus), and Balkan adder (Vipera berus) bite demonstrated low trans-tubular potassium gradient (TTKG) ruling out renal potassium loss. The intracellular redistribution of potassium has been suggested as the likely pathophysiological mechanism, as gastrointestinal loss was also unlikely. Beta-adrenergic stimulation from toxin-mediated autonomic dysfunction leads to the intracellular shift of potassium and is the likely cause of hypokalemia (74,75). Concomitant hypomagnesemia and high urinary magnesium excretion were also observed in patients with hypokalemia, following Viperidae bite, presumably resulting from the direct toxic action of venom on the renal tubules (77). A high incidence (71%) of hypokalemia (<3.5 mmol/l) was found in a series of 210 patients from Sri Lanka during the first 48 hours. It was accompanied by metabolic acidosis but not respiratory alkalosis (78).

 

CLINICAL FEATURES AND MANAGEMENT

 

Hypokalemia manifests as muscular cramps or weakness, constipation, abdominal bloating, polyuria, and sometimes cause life-threatening complications like arrhythmias, rhabdomyolysis, hypokalemic paralysis, diaphragmatic palsy, and respiratory failure (75). The treatment strategy is similar to that of hypokalemic periodic paralysis. Rebound hyperkalemia is a potential complication during recovery. Potassium should be replaced orally or intravenously, along with appropriate monitoring. Magnesium deficit should be corrected if present (79).

 

Hyperkalemia

 

ETIOPATHOGENESIS

 

Hyperkalemia can complicate envenomation by nose-horned viper (Vipera ammodytes ammodytes), European viper (Vipera berus), and hump-nosed viper (Hypnale hypnale) (53,80–83). Severe envenomation from these snakes causes hyperkalemia secondary to rhabdomyolysis and AKI, and can be fatal (53,80). Hyperkalemia was present in 7% of cases of SBE in 258 patients from Thailand (77).

 

Type 4 renal tubular acidosis (T4RTA) is another possible cause of hyperkalemia. It was described during the recovery phase of bite by hump-nosed viper (81,82). Renal biopsy from these patients showed tubular atrophy and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis pattern (81). The underlying cause could be thrombotic microangiopathy caused by toxins in venom leading to patchy cortical necrosis with delayed or partial recovery of renal functions (83).

 

CLINICAL FEATURES AND MANAGEMENT

 

Hyperkalemia associated with rhabdomyolysis and AKI can cause life-threatening arrhythmias. The presence of hyperkalemia along with hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis and low trans-tubular potassium gradient (TTKG) is suggestive of T4RTA and has been described in victims of hump-nosed viper bites during recovery from AKI. Fludrocortisone has been used successfully in such cases. T4RTA, in most cases, was transient (82). Hyperkalemia associated with rhabdomyolysis and AKI will require potassium lowering therapy and, in severe cases, dialysis.

Table 5. Summary of Snakebite Envenoming Induced Endocrine Dysfunctions

Endocrine manifestation

Pathophysiology

Onset of symptoms

Clinical features

Management

Acute hypopituitarism

Hemorrhagic infarction of the anterior pituitary (pathogenesis similar to Sheehan’s syndrome)

Hours to days

Hypotension not responding to standard therapy, hypoglycemia, hyponatremia

Glucocorticoid +/- thyroxine replacement

Delayed hypopituitarism

Sequalae of vascular insult to pituitary during acute phase

Months to years

Amenorrhea, hypogonadism, hypothyroidism, secondary adrenal insufficiency, growth hormone deficiency

Replacement of deficient hormones

Diabetes Insipidus

Very rare, possible vascular insult during acute phase

Immediate or delayed

Polyuria, polydipsia

Desmopressin

Adrenal insufficiency

Hemorrhage with or without infarction in the adrenals secondary to coagulopathy

Hours to days

Hypotension and circulatory collapse

Glucocorticoid +/- mineralocorticoid replacement

Hyperglycemia

Massive catecholamine surge

First 4-6 hours

Children more than adults

Standard treatment of hyperglycemia

Hyponatremia

Venom derived natriuretic peptides – renal salt wasting

First 2-3 days

Asymptomatic to varying alteration in sensorium to coma, seizures

Intravenous saline

 

 

Pituitary or adrenal insufficiency

Glucocorticoid replacement

Hypokalemia

Intracellular redistribution of potassium secondary to autonomic dysfunction.

Within first 24 hours

Muscle cramps, constipation, abdominal bloating, paralysis, respiratory failure, arrhythmia

Replacement of potassium with precaution to avoid rebound hyperkalemia

Venom-mediated renal tubular damage

Hyperkalemia

Venom mediated thrombotic microangiopathy in the kidneys leading to type 4 renal tubular acidosis

Weeks

 

 

 

 

Arrhythmia

 

 

Fludrocortisone

 

 

 

 

Rhabdomyolysis or kidney injury related

Days

Supportive, dialysis in severe cases

 

CONCLUSION

 

Endocrine dysfunctions associated with SBE are rare. However, missing the diagnosis can have life-threatening consequences. Acute or delayed anterior pituitary insufficiency is the most common manifestation. Establishing the diagnosis of hypocortisolism and timely glucocorticoid initiation in acute hypopituitarism are critical. Reports of adrenal dysfunction are scarce, though adrenal hemorrhage following RVE has been described more often in autopsy series. Electrolyte abnormalities should be anticipated and managed appropriately. Awareness and appropriate treatment of endocrine dysfunctions in resource-limited settings are necessary for optimal outcome.

 

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Vitamin D: Production, Metabolism, and Mechanisms of Action

ABSTRACT

Vitamin D production in the skin under the influence of sunlight (UVB) is maximized at levels of sunlight exposure that do not burn the skin. Further metabolism of vitamin D to its major circulating form (25(OH)D) and hormonal form (1,25(OH)2D) takes place in the liver and kidney, respectively, but also in other tissues where the 1,25(OH)2D produced serves a paracrine/autocrine function: examples include the skin, cells of the immune system, parathyroid gland, intestinal epithelium, prostate, and breast. Parathyroid hormone, FGF23, calcium and phosphate are the major regulators of the renal 1-hydroxylase (CYP27B1, the enzyme producing 1,25(OH)2D); regulation of the extra renal 1-hydroxylase differs from that in the kidney and involves cytokines. The major enzyme that catabolizes 25(OH)D and 1,25(OH)2D is the 24-hydroxylase; like the 1-hydroxylase it is tightly controlled in the kidney in a manner opposite to that of the 1-hydroxylase, but like the 1-hydroxylase it is widespread in other tissues where its regulation is different from that of the kidney. Vitamin D and its metabolites are carried in the blood bound to vitamin D binding protein (DBP) and albumin--for most tissues it is the free (i.e., unbound) metabolite that enters the cell; however, DBP bound metabolites can enter some cells such as the kidney and parathyroid gland through a megalin/cubilin mechanism. Most but not all actions of 1,25(OH)2D are mediated by the vitamin D receptor (VDR). VDR is a transcription factor that partners with other transcription factors such as retinoid X receptor that when bound to 1,25(OH)2D regulates gene transcription either positively or negatively depending on other cofactors to which it binds or interacts.  The VDR is found in most cells, not just those involved with bone and mineral homeostasis (i.e., bone, gut, kidney) resulting in wide spread actions of 1,25(OH)2D on most physiologic and pathologic processes. Animal studies indicate that vitamin D has beneficial effects on various cancers, blood pressure, heart disease, immunologic disorders, but these non-skeletal effects have been difficult to prove in humans in randomized controlled trials. Analogs of 1,25(OH)2D are being developed to achieve specificity for non-skeletal target tissues such as the parathyroid gland and cancers to avoid the hypercalcemia resulting from 1,25(OH)2D itself. The level of vitamin D intake and achieved serum levels of 25(OH)D that are optimal and safe for skeletal health and the non-skeletal actions remain controversial, but are likely between an intake of 800-2000IU vitamin D in the diet and 20-50ng/ml 25(OH)D in the blood.

OVERVIEW

Rickets became a public health problem with the movement of the population from the farms to the cities during the Industrial Revolution. Various foods such as cod liver oil and irradiation of other foods including plants were found to prevent or cure this disease, leading eventually to the discovery of the active principle—vitamin D. Vitamin D comes in two forms (D2 and D3) which differ chemically in their side chains. These structural differences alter their binding to the carrier protein vitamin D binding protein (DBP) and their metabolism, but in general the biologic activity of their active metabolites is comparable. Vitamin D3 is produced in the skin from 7-dehydrocholesterol by UV irradiation, which breaks the B ring to form pre-D3. Pre-D3 isomerizes to D3 but with continued UV irradiation to tachysterol and lumisterol. D3 is preferentially removed from the skin, bound to DBP. The liver and other tissues metabolize vitamin D, whether from the skin or oral ingestion, to 25OHD, the principal circulating form of vitamin D. Several enzymes have 25-hydroxylase activity, but CYP2R1 is the most important. 25OHD is then further metabolized to 1,25(OH)2D principally in the kidney, by the enzyme CYP27B1, although other tissues including various epithelial cells, cells of the immune system, and the parathyroid gland contain this enzyme. 1,25(OH)2D is the principal hormonal form of vitamin D, responsible for most of its biologic actions. The production of 1,25(OH)2D in the kidney is tightly controlled, being stimulated by parathyroid hormone (PTH), and inhibited by calcium, phosphate and FGF23. Extrarenal production of 1,25(OH)2D as in keratinocytes and macrophages is under different control, being stimulated primarily by cytokines such as tumor necrosis factor alfa (TNFα) and interferon gamma (IFNg). 1,25(OH)2D reduces 1,25(OH)2D levels in cells primarily by stimulating its catabolism through the induction of CYP24A1, the 24-hydroxylase.  25OHD and 1,25(OH)2D are hydroxylated in the 24 position by this enzyme to form 24,25(OH)2D and 1,24,25(OH)3D, respectively.  This 24-hydroxylation is generally the first step in the catabolism of these active metabolites to the final end product of calcitroic acid, although 24,25(OH)2D and 1,24,25(OH)3D have their own biologic activities. CYP24A1 also has 23-hydroxylase activity that leads to a different end product. Different species differ in their ratio of 23-hydroxylase/24-hydroxyase activity in their CYP24A1 enzyme, but in humans the 24-hydroxyase activity predominates. Like CYP27B1, CYP24A1 is widely expressed. CYP24A1 is induced by 1,25(OH)2D in most tissues, which serves as an important feedback mechanism to avoid vitamin D toxicity. In the kidney, PTH inhibits CYP24A1, whereas FGF23, calcium and phosphate stimulates it, just the opposite of the actions of these hormones and minerals on CYP27B1. However, such regulation is not seen in other tissues.  In macrophages, CYP24A1 is either missing or defective, so in situations such as granulomatous diseases like sarcoidosis in which macrophage production of 1,25(OH)2D is increased, hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria due to elevated 1,25(OH)2D can occur without the counter regulation by CYP24A1.

The vitamin D metabolites are transported in blood bound to DBP and albumin. Very little circulates as the free form. The liver produces DBP and albumin, production that is decreased in liver disease, and these proteins may be lost in protein losing enteropathies or the nephrotic syndrome. Thus, individuals with liver, intestinal or renal diseases which result in low levels of these transport proteins may have low total levels of the vitamin D metabolites without necessarily being vitamin D deficient as their free concentrations may be normal.

The receptor for 1,25(OH)2D (VDR) is a transcription factor regulating the expression of genes which mediate its biologic activity. VDR is a member of a rather large family of nuclear hormone receptors which includes the receptors for glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, sex hormones, thyroid hormone, and vitamin A metabolites or retinoids. The VDR is widely distributed, and is not restricted to those tissues considered the classic target tissues of vitamin D. The VDR upon binding to 1,25(OH)2D heterodimerizes with other nuclear hormone receptors, in particular the family of retinoid X receptors. This complex then binds to special DNA sequences called vitamin D response elements (VDRE) generally within the genes it regulates, although these VDREs can be thousands of base pairs from the transcription start site. There are thousands of the VDREs in hundreds of genes, and the profile of active VDREs (and regulated genes) varies from cell to cell.  A variety of additional proteins called coregulators complex with the VDR to activate (coactivators) or inhibit (corepressors) VDR transcriptional activity. Coactivator factors involved in VDR mediated transcription include factors with histone acetylase activity, including steroid receptor coactivator (SRC) 1, SRC 2 and SRC 3, and CREB-binding protein p300, in addition to the SWI–SNF ATP dependent chromatin remodeling complex, methyltransferases and the Mediator complex (aka DRIP), which functions to recruit RNA polymerases. VDR binding sites are associated with sites for other transcription factors such as p63, C–EBPα, C–EBPβ, Runx2 and PU.1, which can cooperate with VDR and VDR coregulators to influence 1,25(OH)2D responses in target cells. Among other functions these coregulators reconfigure the chromatin structure to bring the VDR/VDRE to the transcription start site, explaining how such distant VDR/VDREs can regulate gene transcription.  In addition to coactivators there are a number of corepressors. One such corepressor of VDR action in the skin is called hairless, in that its loss or mutation, like that of the VDR, leads to altered hair follicle cycling resulting in baldness. Corepressors typically work by recruiting histone deacetylases (HDAC) or methyl transferases (MT) to the gene which reverses the actions of HAT, leading to a reduction in access to the gene by the transcription machinery. These coregulators can be specific for different genes, and different cells differentially express these coregulators, providing some specificity for the actions of 1,25(OH)2D and VDR.

In addition to regulating gene expression, 1,25(OH)2D has a number of non-genomic actions including the ability to stimulate calcium transport across the plasma membrane. The mechanisms mediating these non-genomic actions and their physiologic significance remain unclear. Similarly, it is not clear that all actions of the VDR require the ligand 1,25(OH)2D. The best example of this is the hair loss in animals and subjects with VDR mutations but not in animals and subjects with mutations in CYP27B1, the enzyme producing 1,25(OH)2D. As mentioned, the VDR is widely distributed, and the actions of 1,25(OH)2D are quite varied. The classic target tissues—bone, gut, and kidney—are involved with calcium homeostasis. The mechanisms by which 1,25(OH)2D regulates transcellular calcium transport are best understood in the intestine. Here 1,25(OH)2D stimulates calcium entry across the brush border membrane into the cell, transport of calcium through the cell, and removal of calcium from the cell at the basolateral membrane. Calcium entry at the brush border membrane occurs down a steep electrochemical gradient. It is controlled in large measure by a specific calcium channel called TRPV6 and in humans also by a homologous calcium channel TRPV5. Transport of calcium through the cell is regulated by a class of calcium binding proteins called calbindins. Much of the transport occurs within vesicles that form in the terminal web. Removal of calcium from the cell at the basolateral membrane requires energy and is mediated by the ATP requiring calcium pump or CaATPase (PMCA1b) as well as the sodium/calcium exchange protein (NCX1). 1,25(OH)2D induces TRPV6 and TRPV5, the calbindins, and the CaATPase, but not all aspects of transcellular calcium transport are a function of new protein synthesis. Animals null for calbindin 9k (the major calbindin in mammalian intestine) have little impairment of intestinal calcium transport. Animals null for TRPV6, on the other hand, have a reduction in intestinal calcium transport, but the deficit is not profound. Thus, it is likely that compensatory mechanisms for intestinal calcium transport exist that have yet to be discovered.  Similar mechanisms mediate 1,25(OH)2D regulated calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule of the kidney. The proteins involved are homologous but not identical (TRPV5 and Calbindin 28k, for example). The situation in bone, however, is less clear. VDR are found in osteoblasts, the bone forming cells. 1,25(OH)2D promotes the differentiation of osteoblasts and regulates the production of proteins such as collagen, alkaline phosphatase, and osteocalcin thought to be important in bone formation. 1,25(OH)2D also induces RANKL, a membrane bound protein in osteoblasts that enables osteoblasts to stimulate the formation and activity of osteoclasts. Thus 1,25(OH)2D regulates both bone formation and bone resorption. Some evidence suggests that the major effect of 1,25(OH)2D on bone is to provide adequate levels of calcium and phosphate from the intestine. The rickets of patients with a mutated VDR or of mice in which the VDR has been deleted can be prevented/corrected by normalizing serum calcium and phosphate levels by dietary means. On the other hand, normal bone formation is not restored, and with time the VDR null mice become osteoporotic despite the high calcium/phosphate diet. Moreover, the VDR in osteoblasts/osteocytes appears to control bone resorption especially when dietary calcium is limited. Whether subjects with VDR mutations also develop osteoporosis prematurely or fail to maintain serum calcium in times of calcium deficiency has not been reported.

The non-classic actions of 1,25(OH)2D include regulation of cellular proliferation and differentiation, regulation of hormone secretion, and regulation of immune function. The ability of 1,25(OH)2D to inhibit proliferation and stimulate differentiation has led to the development of a number of analogs in the hopes of treating hyperproliferative disorders such as psoriasis and cancer without raising serum calcium. Psoriasis is now successfully treated with several vitamin D analogs. Observational studies are promising with respect to adequate vitamin D nutrition and cancer prevention. However, supplementation with vitamin D of subjects with adequate vitamin D levels to start with has not been shown to decrease cancer incidence but may be beneficial for cancer mortality. 1,25(OH)2D inhibits parathyroid hormone secretion and stimulates insulin secretion. A number of analogs and 1,25(OH)2D itself are currently available for use in the treatment of secondary hyperparathyroidism accompanying renal failure. Epidemiologic evidence indicates that vitamin D deficiency is associated with increased risk of both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus, but prospective clinical trials to demonstrate a role for vitamin D supplementation in preventing the conversion of prediabetes to diabetes has not shown benefit in vitamin D replete individuals. However, there may be benefit in vitamin D deficient patients.  The ability of 1,25(OH)2D to regulate immune function is likely part of its efficacy in the treatment of psoriasis. A number of other autoimmune diseases have been found in animal studies to respond favorably to vitamin D and 1,25(OH)2D or its analogs, and epidemiologic evidence linking vitamin D deficiency to increased incidence of these diseases has been reported. Similarly, epidemiologic evidence linking vitamin D deficiency to a number of respiratory illnesses is substantial, including increased risk of COVID-19 infections.

DISCOVERY

The first clear description of rickets was by Whistler (1) in 1645. However, it was not until the Industrial Revolution with the mass movement of the population from the farms to the smoke- filled cities that rickets became a public health problem, most notably in England where sunlight intensity was already marginal for much of the year. Mellanby (2) in Great Britain and McCollum (3) in the United States developed animal models for rickets and showed that rickets could be cured with cod liver oil. McCollum heated the cod liver oil to destroy its vitamin A content and found that it still had antirachitic properties; he named the antirachitic factor vitamin D. Steenbock and Black (4) then demonstrated that UV irradiation of food, in particular non saponifiable lipids, could treat rickets. Meanwhile, clinical investigations revealed that rickets could be prevented or cured in children with sunlight or artificial UV exposure (5,6) suggesting that what subsequently became known as vitamin D could be produced by irradiation of precursors in vivo. Ultimately, Askew et al. (7) isolated and determined the structure of vitamin D2 (ergocalciferol) from irradiated plant sterols (ergosterol), and Windaus et al. (8) determined the structures and pathway by which 7-dehydrocholesterol (7-DHC) in the skin is converted to vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol). The name vitamin D1 refers to what proved to be an error of an earlier identification, and is not used. The structures and pathways of production of vitamin D3 are shown in figure 1. The structures of vitamins D2 and D3 differ in the side chain where D2 contains a double bond (C22-23) and an additional methyl group attached to C24. In this chapter the designation of D will refer to both D3 and D2.

Figure 1. The production of vitamin D3 from 7-dehydrocholesterol in the epidermis. Sunlight (the ultraviolet B component) breaks the B ring of the cholesterol structure to form pre- D3. Pre-D3 then undergoes a thermal induced rearrangement to form D3. Continued irradiation of pre- D3 leads to the reversible formation of lumisterol3 and tachysterol3 which can revert back to pre-D3 in the dark.

Figure 2. The metabolism of vitamin D. The liver converts vitamin D to 25OHD. The kidney converts 25OHD to 1,25(OH)2D and 24,25(OH)2D. Other tissues contain these enzymes, but the liver is the main source for 25-hydroxylation, and the kidney is the main source for 1α-hydroxylation. Control of metabolism of vitamin D to its active metabolite, 1,25(OH)2D, is exerted primarily at the renal level where calcium, phosphorus, parathyroid hormone, FGF23, and 1,25(OH)2D regulate the levels of 1,25(OH)2D produced.

 METABOLISM

Vitamin D3 produced in the epidermis must be further metabolized to be active. The first step, 25-hydroxylation, takes place primarily in the liver, although other tissues have this enzymatic activity as well. As will be discussed below, there are several 25-hydroxylases. 25OHD is the major circulating form of vitamin D. However, in order for vitamin D metabolites to achieve maximum biologic activity they must be further hydroxylated in the 1α position by the enzyme CYP27B1; 1,25(OH)2D is the most potent metabolite of vitamin D and accounts for most of its biologic actions. The 1α hydroxylation occurs primarily in the kidney, although as for the 25-hydroxylase, other tissues have this enzyme. Vitamin D and its metabolites, 25OHD and 1,25(OH)2D, can also be hydroxylated in the 24 position. This may serve to activate the metabolite or analog as 1,25(OH)2D and 1,24(OH)2D have similar biologic potency, and 1,24,25(OH)3D has activity approximately 1/10 that of 1,25(OH)2D. However, 24-hydroxylation of metabolites with an existing 25OH group leads to further catabolism. The details of these reactions are described below.

Cutaneous Production of Vitamin D3

The precursor of vitamin D, 7-dehydrocholesterol (7-DHC) is on the Kandutsch-Russell cholesterol pathway. The final enzymatic reaction mediated by 7-dehyrocholesterol reductase converting 7-DHC to cholesterol is regulated by a number of factors including vitamin D and cholesterol which enhance its degradation thus enabling increased levels of 7-DHC for conversion to vitamin D (9). Although irradiation of 7-DHC was known to produce pre-D3 (which subsequently undergoes a temperature rearrangement of the triene structure to form D3), lumisterol, and tachysterol (figure 1), the physiologic regulation of this pathway was not well understood until the studies of Holick and his colleagues (10-12). They demonstrated that the formation of pre-D3 under the influence of solar or UV irradiation (maximal effective wavelength between 290-310) is relatively rapid and reaches a maximum within hours. UV irradiation further converts pre-D3 to lumisterol and tachysterol. Both the degree of epidermal pigmentation and the intensity of exposure correlate with the time required to achieve this maximal concentration of pre-D3, but do not alter the maximal level achieved. Although pre-D3 levels reach a maximum level, the biologically inactive lumisterol continues to accumulate with continued UV exposure. Tachysterol is also formed, but like pre-D3, does not accumulate with extended UV exposure. The formation of lumisterol is reversible and can be converted back to pre-D3 as pre-D3 levels fall. At 0oC, no D3 is formed; however, at 37oC pre-D3 is slowly converted to D3. Thus, short exposure to sunlight would be expected to lead to a prolonged production of D3 in the exposed skin because of the slow thermal conversion of pre-D3 to D3 and the conversion of lumisterol to pre-D3. Prolonged exposure to sunlight would not produce toxic amounts of D3 because of the photoconversion of pre-D3 to lumisterol and tachysterol as well as the photoconversion of D3 itself to suprasterols I and II and 5,6 transvitamin D3 (13).

Melanin in the epidermis, by absorbing UV irradiation, can reduce the effectiveness of sunlight in producing D3 in the skin. This may be one important reason for the lower 25OHD levels (a well-documented surrogate measure for vitamin D levels in the body) in Blacks and Hispanics living in temperate latitudes (14). Sunlight exposure increases melanin production, and so provides another mechanism by which excess D3 production can be prevented. The intensity of UV irradiation is also important for effective D3 production. The seasonal variation of 25OHD levels can be quite pronounced with higher levels during the summer months and lower levels during the winter. The extent of this seasonal variation depends on the latitude, and thus the intensity of the sunlight striking the exposed skin. In Edmonton, Canada (52oN) very little D3 is produced in exposed skin from mid-October to mid-April; Boston (42oN) has a somewhat longer period for effective D3 production; whereas in Los Angeles (34oN) and San Juan (18oN) the skin is able to produce D3 all year long (15). These findings apply to sea level. At higher elevations there is less atmospheric absorption of UVB, so that skiers can make vitamin D even in winter on sunny days. Peak D3 production occurs around noon, with a larger portion of the day being capable of producing D3 in the skin during the summer than other times of the year. Clothing (16) and sunscreens (17) effectively prevent D3 production in the covered areas. This is one likely explanation for the observation that the Bedouins in the Middle East, who totally cover their bodies with clothing, are more prone to develop rickets and osteomalacia than the Israeli Jews with comparable sunlight exposure.

Hepatic Production of 25OHD

The next step in the bioactivation of D2 and D3, hydroxylation to 25OHD, takes place primarily in the liver although a number of other tissues express this enzymatic activity. 25OHD is the major circulating form of vitamin D and provides a clinically useful marker for vitamin D status. DeLuca and colleagues were the first to identify 25OHD and demonstrate its production in the liver over 30 years ago, but ambiguity remains as to the actual enzyme(s) responsible for this activity. 25-hydroxylase activity has been found in both the liver mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum, and the enzymatic activities appear to differ indicating different proteins. At this point most attention has been paid to the mitochondrial CYP27A1 and the microsomal CYP2R1. However, in mouse knockout studies and in humans with mutations in these enzymes, only CYP2R1 loss is associated with decreased 25OHD levels (18,19). However, deletion or mutation of CYP2R1 does not totally eliminate 25OHD production These are mixed function oxidases, but differ in apparent Kms and substrate specificities. 

The mitochondrial 25-hydroxylase is now well accepted as CYP27A1, an enzyme first identified as catalyzing a critical step in the bile acid synthesis pathway. This is a high capacity, low affinity enzyme consistent with the observation that 25-hydroxylation is not generally rate limiting in vitamin D metabolism. Although initial studies suggested that the vitamin D3-25-hydroxylase and cholestane triol 27-hydroxyase activities in liver mitochondria were due to distinct enzymes with differential regulation, the cloning of CYP27A1 and the demonstration that it contained both activities has put this issue to rest (20-22). CYP27A1 is widely distributed throughout different tissues with highest levels in liver and muscle, but also in kidney, intestine, lung, skin, and bone (20-23).  Mutations in CYP27A1 lead to cerebrotendinous xanthomatosis (24,25), and are associated with abnormal vitamin D and/or calcium metabolism in some but not all of these patients (25-27).  However, mice in which CYP27A1 is deleted actually have elevated 25OHD levels along with the disruption in bile acid synthesis (28). CYP27A1 can hydroxylate vitamin D and related compounds at the 24, 25, and 27 positions. However, D2 appears to be preferentially 24-hydroxylated, whereas D3 is preferentially 25-hydroxylated (29). The 1αOH derivatives of D are more rapidly hydroxylated than the parent compounds (30). These differences between D2 and D3 and their 1αOH derivatives may explain the differences in biologic activity between D2 and D3 or between 1αOHD2 and 1αOHD3.

The major microsomal 25-hydroxylase is CYP2R1, although other enzymes have been shown in in vitro studies to have 25-hydroxylase activity. This enzyme like that of CYP27A1 is widely distributed, although it is most abundantly expressed in liver, skin and testes (30). Unlike CYP27A1, CYP2R1 25-hydroxylates D2 and D3 equally (30). Several Nigerian families have been shown to have CYP2R1 mutations in family members with rickets (19,31).  These subjects respond to D therapy but suboptimally (19,31). Mice lacking CYP2R1 have reduced 25OHD levels, unlike mice lacking CYP27A1, but even the combined deletion of CYP2R1 and CYP27A1 does not reduce these levels more than about 70% (18). Thus, neither CYP27A1 nor CYP2R1 by themselves account for all 25-hydroxyase activity in the body, suggesting a role of other yet to be described 25-hydroxylases.

Studies of the regulation of 25-hydroxylation have not been completely consistent, most likely because of the initial failure to appreciate that at least two enzymatic activities were involved and because of species differences. In general, 25-hydroxylation in the liver is little affected by vitamin D status. However, CYP27A1 expression in the intestine (32) and kidney (33) is reduced by 1,25(OH)2D. Not surprisingly bile acids decrease CYP27A1 expression (34) as does insulin (35) through an unknown mechanism. Dexamethasone, on the other hand, increases CYP27A1 expression (36). CYP2R1 appears to be mediated by aspects of metabolism. Roizen et al. (37) found that the serum concentration of 25OHD, but not vitamin D, was decreased in mice fed a high fat diet to induce obesity compared with normal weight mice. Moreover, mRNA and protein levels of CYP2R1 were decreased in these obese mice.  The expression of other 25-hydroxylases (CYP27A1, CYP3A) or the catabolizing enzyme CYP24A1 was not altered. Aatsinki et al (38) examined the effect of high fat diet induced obesity, fasting, and type 2 diabetes as well as streptozotocin induced (type 1) diabetes on 25OHD levels in mice.  All these metabolic manipulations decreased the hepatic mRNA and protein concentration of CYP2R1. These authors then demonstrated that the decrease in CYP2R1 was mediated by PPARγ-coactivator-1α (PGC1α), a key metabolic regulator increased by fasting or diabetes. They then showed that the control of CYP2R1 gene expression by PGC1α involved another transcriptional regulator, estrogen-related receptor α (ERRα), which also binds to other nuclear receptors such as VDR and the glucocorticoid receptor (GR). Consistent with this is that dexamethasone, a ligand for GR, decreased hepatic CYP2R1 mRNA and protein concentrations by a mechanism mediated by increased PGC1α.

Renal Production of 1,25(OH)2D

1,25(OH)2D is the most potent metabolite of vitamin D, and mediates most of its hormonal actions. 1,25(OH)2D is produced from 25OHD by the enzyme 25OHD-1α hydroxylase (CYP27B1). The cloning of CYP27B1 by four independent groups (40-43) ended a long effort to determine the structure of this critical enzyme in vitamin D metabolism. Mutations in this gene are responsible for the rare autosomal disease of pseudovitamin D deficiency rickets (40,42,44,45). An animal model in which the gene is knocked out by homologous recombination reproduces the clinical features of this disease including retarded growth, rickets, hypocalcemia, hyperparathyroidism, and undetectable 1,25(OH)2D (46). Unlike Vdr null mice and VDR mutations in humans, alopecia is not part of this phenotype.

CYP27B1 is a mitochondrial mixed function oxidase with significant homology to other mitochondrial steroid hydroxylases including CYP27A1 (39%), CYP24A1 (30%), CYP11A1 (32%), and CYP11β (33%) (40). However, within the heme-binding domain the homology is much greater with 73% and 65% sequence identity with CYP27A1 and CYP24A1 (40). These mitochondrial P450 enzymes are located in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion, and serve as the terminal acceptor for electrons transferred from NADPH through ferrodoxin reductase and ferrodoxin. Expression of CYP27B1 is highest in epidermal keratinocytes (40), cells that previously had been shown to contain high levels of this enzymatic activity (47). However, the kidney also expresses this enzyme in the renal tubules as do the brain, placenta, testes, intestine, lung, breast, macrophages, lymphocytes, parathyroid gland, osteoblasts and chondrocytes (40,48-51). That said, the kidney is generally considered the major source of circulating levels of 1,25(OH)2D, with the extrarenal CYP27B1 activities providing for local needs under normal circumstances. However, extrarenal sources can lead to increased 1,25(OH)2D and calcium levels in some pathologic conditions to be discussed subsequently.

The principal regulators of CYP27B1 activity in the kidney are parathyroid hormone (PTH), FGF23, calcium, phosphate, and 1,25(OH)2D. Extrarenal production tends to be stimulated by cytokines such as IFN-gamma and TNF-α more effectively than PTH (52) and may be less inhibited by calcium, phosphate, and 1,25(OH)2D depending on the tissue. Administration of PTH in vivo (53) or in vitro (54,55) stimulates renal production of 1,25(OH)2D. This action of PTH can be mimicked by cAMP (53,55) and forskolin (56,57) indicating that at least part of the effect of PTH is mediated via its activation of adenylate cyclase. However, PTH activation of protein kinase C (PKC) also appears to be involved in that concentrations of PTH sufficient to stimulate PKC activation and 1,25(OH)2D production are below that required to increase cAMP levels (58). Furthermore, synthetic fragments of PTH lacking the ability to activate adenylate cyclase but which stimulate PKC activity were found to increase 1,25(OH)2D production (59). Direct activation of PKC with phorbol esters results in increased 1,25(OH)2D production. Although the promoter of CYP27B1 contains several AP-1 (PKC activated) and cAMP response elements, it is not yet clear how PTH regulates CYP27B1 gene expression (60). However, several mechanisms have been proposed. In one study the nuclear receptor 4A2 acting through a C/EBP consensus element appears to be involved (61). Another mechanism involves VDIR that is proposed to bind to a negative VDRE in the CYP27B1 promoter. When PKA is activated by PTH VDIR is phosphorylated and recruits the p300 complex with HAT activity, inducing gene transcription (62). Calcium modulates the ability of PTH to increase 1,25(OH)2D production. Calcium by itself can decrease CYP27B1activity (63,64) and block the stimulation by PTH (65). Given in vivo, calcium can exert its effect in part by reducing PTH secretion, but this does not explain its direct actions in vitro or its effects in parathyroidectomized or PTH infused animals. Phosphate deprivation can stimulate CYP27B1 activity in vivo (66,67) and in vitro (68). The in vivo actions of phosphate deprivation can be blocked by hypophysectomy (69,70) and partially restored by growth hormone (GH) (70,71) and insulin-like growth factor (IGF-I) (72). However, like PTH, the exact mechanism by which GH and/or IGF-I mediates the effects of phosphate on CYP27B1 expression remains unclear. More recently FGF23 has been shown to inhibit CYP27B1 activity in vivo and in vitro (73). FGF23 has been implicated as at least one of the factors responsible for impaired phosphate reabsorption and 1,25(OH)2D production in conditions such as X-linked and autosomal dominant hypophosphatemic rickets and oncogenic osteomalacia (74,75). FGF23 acts through FGF receptors 1 and 3 in conjunction with the coreceptor Klotho, but the mechanism by which FGF23 regulates CYP27B1 remains obscure. High phosphate stimulates FGF23 production from bone, and this is likely the major mechanism by which phosphate leads to decreased CYP27B1 activity (76).  1,25(OH)2D administration leads to reduction in CYP27B1 activity. In the kidney Meyer et al. (77) identified a region in the Cyp27b1 gene that when deleted blocked 1,25(OH)2D production. However, in other tissues no vitamin D response element has been identified in the promoter of the 1α-hydroxylase gene (60). In keratinocytes, 1,25(OH)2D has little or no effect on CYP27B1 mRNA and protein levels when given in vitro. When 24-hydroxylase activity is blocked, 1,25(OH)2D administration fails to reduce the levels of 1,25(OH)2D produced (78,79). Thus, the apparent feedback regulation of CYP27B1 activity by 1,25(OH)2D in most tissues, with the possible exception of the kidney, appears to be due to its stimulation of CYP24A1 and subsequent catabolism, not to a direct effect on CYP27B1 expression or activity. Moreover, 1,25(OH)2D stimulates FGF23 production and inhibits PTH production. Both actions will decrease, indirectly, the ability of 1,25(OH)2D to inhibit its own production (76).  Thus, renal and extrarenal regulation of CYP27B1 by 1,25(OH)2D may differ.

Renal Production of 24,25(OH)2D

The kidney is also the major producer of a second important metabolite of 25OHD, namely 24,25(OH)2D, and the enzyme responsible is 25OHD-24 hydroxylase (CYP24A1) [75]. CYP24A1 and CYP27B1 are homologous enzymes that coexist in the mitochondria of tissues where both are found, such as the kidney tubule. However, there genes are located on different chromosomes (chromosome 20q13 and chromosome 12q14 for CYP24A1 and CYP27B1, respectively, in humans). They share the same ferrodoxin and ferrodoxin reductase components. While CYP27B1 activates the parent molecule, 25OHD, CYP24A1 initiates a series of catabolic steps that lead to its inactivation. However, in some tissues 24,25(OH)2D has been shown to have biologic effects different from 1,25(OH)2D as will be described subsequently. CYP24A1 24-hydroxylates both 25OHD and 1,25(OH)2D. The 24-hydroxylation is then followed by oxidation of 24OH to a 24-keto group, 23-hydroxylation, cleavage between C23-24, and the eventual production of calcitroic acid, a metabolite with no biologic activity. CYP24A1 also has 23-hydroxylase activity, initiating steps that lead to 23/26 lactone formation. Different species have CYP24A1s that differ in their preference for the 24-hydroxylation vs 23-hydroxylation pathway. The human enzyme follows the 24-hydroxylation pathway. Analogs with differences in their side chain are also likely to differ in the pathway utilized. CYP24A1 catalyzes all the steps in this catabolic pathway (81) (82). Although CYP24A1 is highly expressed in the kidney tubule, its tissue distribution is quite broad. In general, CYP24A1 can be found wherever the VDR is found. The affinity for 1,25(OH)2D is higher than that for 25OHD, making this enzyme an efficient means for eliminating 1,25(OH)2D. Thus, CYP24A1 is likely to play the important role of protecting the body against excess 1,25(OH)2D. Indeed, inactivating mutations in CYP24A1 have been found to underlie the disease idiopathic infantile hypercalcemia (83), manifesting as the name suggests with elevated serum calcium and 1,25(OH)2D levels. These individuals may present for the first time as adults, often in the context of increased 1,25(OH)2D production as in pregnancy (84).  An animal model in which CYP24A1 has been knocked out likewise showed very high levels of 1,25(OH)2D when treated with vitamin D and impaired mineralization of intramembranous bone (85). The skeletal abnormalities could be corrected by crossing this mouse to one lacking the VDR suggesting that excess 1,25(OH)2D (which acts through the VDR) rather than deficient 24,25(OH)2D (which does not) is to blame (85).

The regulation of CYP24A1 in the kidney is almost the mirror image of that of CYP27B1. PTH and 1,25(OH)2D are the dominant regulators, but calcium, phosphate, insulin, FGF23, IGF-I, GH, and sex steroids may also play a role. 1,25(OH)2D induces CYP24A1. The promoter of CYP24A1 has two vitamin D response elements (VDREs) critical for this induction (86-88). Protein kinase C activation as by phorbol esters enhances this induction by 1,25(OH)2D (89). An AP-1 site is found adjacent to the proximal VDRE, but mutation of this site does not appear to block phorbol ester enhancement of CYP24A1 induction by 1,25(OH)2D (90). PTH, on the other hand, inhibits the expression of CYP24A1 in the kidney (91). This action can be reproduced with cAMP (92) and forskolin (56) indicating the role of PTH activated adenylate cyclase (93). PTH has no effect on intestinal CYP24A1, most likely because the intestine does not have PTH receptors. Surprisingly, however, PTH is synergistic with 1,25(OH)2D in stimulating CYP24A1 expression and activity in bone cells which do have PTH receptors, again through a cAMP mediated mechanism (94). This synergism is further potentiated by the addition of insulin (95) (96). FGF23 also induces CYP24A1 expression (97). Surprisingly this requires the VDR (97), since FGF23 also inhibits 1,25(OH)2D production and so would be expected to reduce CYP24A1 via a 1,25(OH)2D/VDR mechanism. Restriction in dietary phosphate reduces CYP24A1 expression consistent with a decrease in FGF23, but also in a manner blocked by hypophysectomy (98). GH and IGF-I can reduce CYP24A1 expression in hypophysectomized animals, suggesting that the phosphate effect on CYP24A1 like its opposing effect on CYP27B1, is mediated by GH and IGF-I (98) as well as FGF23. The region(s) of the CYP24A1 promoter mediating these actions of PTH and FGF23 as well as 1,25(OH)2D have recently been mapped (96). Similar to that for CYP27B1 this regulation differs in different cell types. Thus, although different regulators tend to have opposite effects on CYP24A1 and CYP27B1 expression the molecular mechanisms by which the regulation occurs also differ for each enzyme.

TRANSPORT IN BLOOD

The vitamin D metabolites are transported in blood bound primarily to vitamin D binding protein (DBP) (85-88%) and albumin (12-15%) (99-101). DBP concentrations are normally 4-8µM, well above the concentrations of the vitamin D metabolites, such that DBP is only about 2% saturated. DBP has high affinity for the vitamin D metabolites (Ka=5x108M-1 for 25OHD and 24,25(OH)2D, 4x107M-1 for 1,25(OH)2D and vitamin D), such that under normal circumstances only approximately 0.03% 25OHD and 24,25(OH)2D and 0.4% 1,25(OH)2D are free (100-102). Conditions such as liver disease and nephrotic syndrome resulting in reduced DBP and albumin levels will lead to a reduction in total 25OHD and 1,25(OH)2D levels without necessarily affecting the free concentrations (103) (figure 3). Similarly, DBP levels are reduced during acute illness, potentially obscuring the interpretation of total 25OHD levels (104). Earlier studies with a monoclonal antibody to measure DBP levels suggested a decreased level in African Americans consistent with their lower total 25OHD levels, but these results were not confirmed using polyvalent antibody-based assays (105). Vitamin D intoxication can increase the degree of saturation sufficiently to increase the free concentrations of 1,25(OH)2D and so cause hypercalcemia without necessarily raising the total concentrations (106).

The vitamin D metabolites bound to DBP are in general not available to most cells. Thus, the free or unbound concentration is that which is critical for cellular uptake as postulated by the free hormone hypothesis. Support for the concept that the role of DBP is to provide a reservoir for the vitamin D metabolites but that it is the free concentration that enters cells and exerts biologic function comes from studies in mice in which DBP has been deleted and in humans in which the gene is mutated. In DBP knockout mice the vitamin D metabolites are presumably all free and/or bioavailable. These mice do not show evidence of vitamin D deficiency unless placed on a vitamin D deficient diet despite having very low levels of serum 25OHD and 1,25(OH)2D (107). Tissue levels of 1,25(OH)2D were found to be normal in the DBP knockout mice as were markers of vitamin D action such as expression of intestinal TRPV6, calbindin 9k, PMCA1b, and renal TRPV5 (108). Recently a family in which a large deletion of the coding portion of the DBP gene (and adjacent NPFFR2 gene) has been reported (109). The proband had normal calcium, phosphate and PTH levels with vitamin D supplementation despite very low levels of 25OHD, 24,25(OH)2D, and 1,25(OH)2D that were not responsive to massive doses of vitamin D (oral or parenteral). The free 25OHD was nearly normal. The carrier sibling had vitamin D metabolite levels between those of the proband and the normal sibling. Thus, both the studies in DBP null mice and humans support the free hormone hypothesis while also supporting the role of DBP as a circulating reservoir for the vitamin D metabolites. Therefore, there is currently a debate as to whether the free concentration of 25OHD, for example, is a better indicator of vitamin D nutritional status than total 25OHD, given that DBP levels, and hence total 25OHD levels, can be influenced by liver disease, nephrotic syndrome, pregnancy, and inflammatory states (110,111). However, certain tissues such as the kidney, placenta, and parathyroid gland express the megalin/cubilin complex which is able to transport vitamin D metabolites bound to DBP into the cell. This is critical for preventing renal losses of the vitamin metabolites (112) and may be important for vitamin D metabolite transport into the fetus and regulation of PTH secretion. Indeed, mice lacking the megalin/cubilin complex have poor survival with evidence of osteomalacia indicating its role in vitamin D transport into critical cells involved with vitamin D signaling

Figure 3. Correlation of total 25OHD (A) and 1,25(OH)2D (C) levels to DBP; lack of correlation of free 25OHD (B) and 1,25(OH)2D (D) levels to DBP. Data from normal subjects (open triangles), subjects with liver disease (closed triangles, open circles), subjects on oral contraceptives (open triangles*), and pregnant women (open squares) are included. These data demonstrate the dependence of total 25OHD and 1,25(OH)2D concentrations on DBP levels which are reduced by liver disease. However, the free concentrations of 25OHD and 1,25(OH)2D are normal in most patients with liver disease. Reprinted with permission from the American Society for Clinical Investigation.

DBP was originally known as group specific component (Gc-globulin) before its properties as a vitamin D transport protein became known. It has three common polymorphisms which are useful in population genetics. These alleles have somewhat different affinities for the vitamin D metabolites (113), but which do not appear to alter its function. DBP is a 58kDa protein with 458 amino acids that is homologous to albumin and α-fetoprotein (αFP) (40% homology at the nucleotide level, 23% at the amino acid level) (114). These three genes cluster on chromosome 4q11-13 (115). DBP, like albumin and αFP, is made primarily but not exclusively in the liver-other sites include the kidney, testes, and fat.  DBP like other steroid hormone binding proteins is increased by oral (not transdermal) estrogens and pregnancy (100). In vitro, glucocorticoids and cytokines such as EGF, IL-6 and TGF-β have been shown to increase (glucocorticoids, EGF, IL-6) or decrease (TGF-β) DBP production (116).

Although transport of the vitamin D metabolites may be the major function for DBP, it has other properties. DBP has high affinity for actin, and may serve as a scavenger for actin released into the blood during cell death (117). DBP has also been shown to activate macrophages (118) and osteoclasts (119). However, in a mouse rendered deficient in DBP by homologous recombination (knock out) no obvious abnormality was observed except for increased turnover in vitamin D and increased susceptibility to osteomalacia on a vitamin D deficient diet (120). Evidence for osteopetrosis (indicating failure of osteoclast function) was not found.

MECHANISM OF ACTION

The hormonal form of vitamin D, 1,25(OH)2D, is the ligand for a transcription factor, the vitamin D receptor (VDR). Most if not all effects of 1,25(OH)2D are mediated by VDR acting primarily by regulating the expression of genes whose promoters contain specific DNA sequences known as vitamin D response elements (VDREs). There are thousands of VDREs throughout the gene, often thousands of base pairs away from the coding portion of the gene regulated.  However, some actions of 1,25(OH)2D are more immediate, and may be mediated by a membrane bound vitamin D receptor that has been less well characterized than the nuclear VDR or by the VDR acting outside of the nucleus. On the other hand, some actions of VDR do not require its ligand 1,25(OH)2D. Our understanding of the mechanism by which VDR regulates gene expression has increased enormously over the past few years.

VDR and Transcriptional Regulation

 The VDR was discovered in 1969 (121) (although only as a binding protein for an as yet unknown vitamin D metabolite subsequently identified as 1,25(OH)2D), and was eventually cloned and sequenced in 1987 (122,123). Inactivating mutations in the VDR result in hereditary vitamin D resistant rickets (HVDRR) (124). Animal models in which the VDR has been knocked out (125) (126) have the full phenotype of severe vitamin D deficiency indicating that the VDR is the major mediator of vitamin D action. The one major difference is the alopecia seen in HVDRR and VDR knockout animals, a feature not associated with vitamin D deficiency, suggesting that the VDR may have functions independent of 1,25(OH)2D at least in hair follicle cycling. The VDR is a member of a large family of proteins (over 150 members) that includes the receptors for the steroid hormones, thyroid hormone, vitamin A family of metabolites (retinoids), and a variety of cholesterol metabolites, bile acids, isoprenoids, fatty acids and eicosanoids. A large number of family members have no known ligands, and are called orphan receptors. VDR is widely, although not universally, distributed throughout the different tissues of the body (127). Many of these tissues were not originally considered target tissues for 1,25(OH)2D. The discovery of VDR in these tissues along with the demonstration that 1,25(OH)2D altered function of these tissues has markedly increased our appreciation of the protean effects of 1,25(OH)2D.

The VDR is a molecule of approximately 50-60kDa depending on species. The basic structure is shown in figure 4. The VDR is unusual in that it has a very short N-terminal domain before the DNA binding domain when compared to other nuclear hormone receptors. The human VDR has two potential start sites. A common polymorphism (Fok 1) alters the first ATG start site to ACG. Individuals with this polymorphism begin translation three codons downstream such that in these individuals the VDR is three amino acids shorter (424 aas vs 427 aas). This polymorphism has been correlated with reduced bone density suggesting it is of functional importance (128). The most conserved domain in VDR from different species and among the nuclear hormone receptors in general is the DNA binding domain. This domain is comprised of two zinc fingers. The name derives from the cysteines within this stretch of amino acids that form tetrahedral complexes with zinc in a manner which creates a loop or finger of amino acids with the zinc complex at its base. The proximal (N-terminal) zinc finger confers specificity for DNA binding to the VDREs while the second zinc finger and the region following provide at least one of the sites for heterodimerization of the VDR to the retinoid X receptor (RXR). The second half of the molecule is the ligand binding domain, the region responsible for binding 1,25(OH)2D, but which also contains regions necessary for heterodimerization to RXR. At the C-terminal end is the major activation domain, AF-2, which is critical for the binding to coactivators such as those in the steroid receptor coactivator (SRC) and vitamin D receptor interacting protein (DRIP) or Mediator families (129). In mutation studies of the homologous thyroid receptor, corepressors were found to bind in overlapping regions with coactivators in helices 3 and 5, a region blocked by helix 12 (the terminal portion of the AF2 domain) in the presence of ligand (130). Deletion of helix 12 promoted corepressor binding while preventing that of coactivators (130).

Figure 4. Model of the vitamin D receptor (VDR). The N terminal region is short relative to other steroid hormone receptors. This region is followed by two zinc fingers which constitute the principal DNA binding domain. Nuclear localization signals (NLS) are found within and just C-terminal to the DNA binding domain. The ligand binding domain makes up the bulk of the C-terminal half of the molecule, with the AF2 domain comprising the most C-terminal region. The AF2 domain is largely responsible for binding to co-activators such as the SRC family and DRIP (Mediator) in the presence of ligand. Regions on the second zinc finger and within the ligand binding domain facilitate heterodimerization with RXR. Corepressor binding is less well characterized but appears to overlap that of coactivators in helices 3 and 5, a region blocked by helix 12 in the presence of ligand. 

The ligand binding domain (LBD) for VDR has been crystallized and its structure solved (131). More recently the structure of the VDR/RXR heterodimer has been analyzed by high resolution cryoelectron microscopy (132).  These studies show that the VDR has a high degree of structural homology to other nuclear hormone receptors. It is comprised of 12 helices joined primarily by beta sheets. The 1,25(OH)2D is buried deep in the ligand binding pocket and covered by helix 12 (the terminal portion of the AF-2 domain). Assuming analogy with the unliganded LBD of RXRα and the ligand bound LBD of RARγ (133), the binding of 1,25(OH)2D to the VDR triggers a substantial movement of helix 12 from an open position to a closed position, covering the ligand binding pocket and putting helix 12 in position with critical residues from helices 3, 4, and 5 to bind coactivators. Coactivator complexes bridge the gap from the VDRE to the transcription machinery at the transcription start site (figure 5) (134).

Figure 5. 1,25(OH)2D-initiated gene transcription. 1,25(OH)2D enters the target cell and binds to its receptor, VDR. The VDR then heterodimerizes with the retinoid X receptor (RXR). This increases the affinity of the VDR/RXR complex for the vitamin D response element (VDRE), a specific sequence of nucleotides in the promoter region of the vitamin D responsive gene. Binding of the VDR/RXR complex to the VDRE attracts a complex of proteins termed coactivators to the VDR/RXR complex. The DRIP (Mediator) coactivator complex spans the gap between the VDRE and RNA polymerase II and other proteins in the initiation complex centered at or around the TATA box (or other transcription regulatory elements). SRC coactivators recruit histone acetyl transferases (HAT) to the gene promoting the opening up of its structure to enable the transcription machinery to work. Transcription of the gene is initiated to produce the corresponding mRNA, which leaves the nucleus to be translated to the corresponding protein.

Nuclear hormone receptors including the VDR are further regulated by protein complexes that can be activators or repressors (135). The role of corepressors in VDR function has been demonstrated (136) but is less well studied than the role of coactivators. One such corepressor, hairless, is found in the skin and may regulate 1,25(OH)2D mediated epidermal proliferation and differentiation as well as ligand independent VDR regulation of hair follicle cycling (137-139). The coactivators, which are essential for VDR function, form two distinct complexes, the interaction of which remains unclear (129). The SRC family has three members, SRC 1-3, all of which can bind to the VDR in the presence of ligand (1,25(OH)2D) (140). These coactivators recruit additional coactivators such as CBP/p300 and p/CAF that have histone acetyl transferase activity (HAT), an enzyme that by acetylation of lysines within specific histones appears to help unravel the chromatin allowing the transcriptional machinery to do its job. The domain in these molecules critical for binding to the VDR and other nuclear hormone receptors is called the NR box, and has as its central motif LxxLL where L stands for leucine and x for any amino acid. Each SRC family member contains three well conserved NR boxes in the region critical for nuclear hormone receptor binding. The DRIP (Mediator) complex is comprised of 15 or so proteins several of which contain LxxLL motifs (141). However, DRIP205 (Mediator 1) is the protein critical for binding the complex to VDR. It contains 2 NR boxes. Different NR boxes in these coactivators show specificity for different nuclear hormone receptors (142). Unlike the SRC complex, the DRIP complex does not have HAT activity (129). Rather the DRIP complex spans the gene from the VDRE to the transcription start site linking directly with RNA polymerase II and its associated transcription factors.  DRIP and SRC appear to compete for binding to the VDR. In keratinocytes DRIP binds preferentially to the VDR in undifferentiated cells, whereas SRC 2 and 3 bind in the more differentiated cells in which DRIP levels have declined (143). Thus in these cells DRIP appears to regulate the early stages of 1,25(OH)2D induced differentiation, whereas SRC may be more important in the later stages, although overlap in gene specificity is also observed (144,145) (146). These coregulators are not specific for VDR, but interact with a large number of other transcription factors. The DRIP (Mediator) complex can mark regions in the genome containing large numbers of sites for transcription factors including VDREs. These sites are known as super enhancers often regulating genes involved with cell fate determination (147).  Recently, SMAD 3, a transcription factor in the TGF-β pathway, has been found to complex with the SRC family members and the VDR, enhancing the coactivation process (148). Phosphorylation of the VDR may also control VDR function (149). Furthermore, VDR has been shown to suppress β-catenin transcriptional activity (150), whereas β-catenin enhances that of VDR (151).  Thus, control of VDR activity may involve crosstalk between signaling pathways originating in receptors at the plasma membrane as well as within the nucleus.

VDR acts in concert with other nuclear hormone receptors, in particular RXR (152). Unlike VDR, there are three forms of RXR--α, β, γ--and all three are capable of binding to VDR with no obvious differences in terms of functional effect. RXR and VDR form heterodimers that optimize their affinity for the vitamin D response elements (VDREs) in the genes being regulated. RXR appears to be responsible for keeping VDR in the nucleus in the absence of ligand (153). VDR may also partner with other receptors including the thyroid receptor (TR) and the retinoic acid receptor (RAR) (154,155), but these are the exceptions, whereas RXR is the rule. The VDR/RXR heterodimers bind to VDREs, which typically are comprised of two half sites each with six nucleotides separated by three nucleotides of nonspecific type; this type of VDRE is known as a DR3 (direct repeats with three nucleotide spacing). RXR binds to the upstream half site, while VDR binds to the downstream site (156). However, a wide range of VDRE configurations have been found at nearly any location within a gene (5’, 3’, introns) (157). Moreover, different tissues differ as to which VDREs actively bind VDR (158). 1,25(OH)2D is required for high affinity binding and activation, but the RXR ligand, 9-cis retinoic acid, may either inhibit (159) or activate (160) 1,25(OH)2D stimulation of gene transcription. A DR6 has been identified in the phospholipase C-γ1 gene that recognizes VDR/RAR heterodimers (154), and a DR4 has been found in the mouse calbindin 28k gene (161). Inverted palinodromes with 7 to 12 bases between half sites have also been found (151).  Furthermore, the half sites of the various known VDREs show remarkable degeneracy (table 1). The G in the second position of each site appears to be the only nearly invariant nucleotide. 1,25(OH)2D can also inhibit gene transcription through its VDR. This may occur by direct binding of the VDR to negative VDREs that in the PTH and PTHrP genes are remarkably similar in sequence to positive VDREs of other genes (162,163). However, inhibition may also be indirect. For example, 1,25(OH)2D inhibits IL-2 production by blocking the NFATp/AP-1 complex of transcription factors from activating this gene (164) through a mechanism not yet clear. Similarly, 1,25(OH)2D inhibits CYP27B1 in at least one renal cell line by an indirect mechanism involving VDR binding to VDIR (62,80). Thus, a variety of factors including the flanking sequences of the genes around the VDREs and tissue specific factors play a large role in dictating the ability of 1,25(OH)2D to regulate gene expression.

Non-Genomic Actions

A variety of hormones that serve as ligands for nuclear hormone receptors also exert biologic effects that do not appear to require gene regulation and may work through membrane receptors rather their cognate nuclear hormone receptors. Examples include estrogen (165), progesterone (166), testosterone (167), corticosteroids (168), and thyroid hormone (169). 1,25(OH)2D has also been shown to have rapid effects on selected cells that are not likely to involve gene regulation and that appear to be mediated by a different, probably membrane receptor. A model for such effects is shown in figure 6. Similar to other steroid hormones, 1,25(OH)2D has been shown to regulate calcium and chloride channel activity, protein kinase C activation and distribution, and phospholipase C activity in a number of cells including osteoblasts (170), liver (171), muscle (172), and intestine (173,174). These rapid effects of 1,25(OH)2D have been most extensively studied in the intestine. Norman's laboratory coined the term transcaltachia to describe the rapid onset of calcium flux across the intestine of a vitamin D replete chick perfused with 1,25(OH)2D (175). This increased flux could not be blocked with actinomycin D pretreatment (176), but was blocked by voltage gated L type channel inhibitors (177) and protein kinase C inhibitors (178). These animals had to be vitamin D replete and contain the VDR, indicating that the basic machinery for calcium transport was intact. On the other hand L type channel activators such as BAY K-8644 (179) and protein kinase C activators such as phorbol esters (177) could activate transcaltachia similar to 1,25(OH)2D.

Figure 6. Model for the non-genomic actions of 1,25(OH)2D. 1,25(OH)2D binds to a putative membrane receptor. This leads to activation of a G protein (GTP displacement of GDP and dissociation of the β and γ subunits from the now active α subunit). Gα -GTP activates phospholipase C (PLC) (β or γ) to hydrolyze phosphatidyl inositol bis phosphate (PIP2) to inositol tris phosphate (IP3) and diacyl glycerol (DG). IP3 releases calcium from intracellular stores via the IP3 receptor in the endoplasmic reticulum; DG activates protein kinase C (PKC). Both calcium and PKC may regulate the influx of calcium across the plasma membrane through various calcium channels including L-type calcium channels.  

A putative membrane receptor for 1,25(OH)2D (1,25(OH)2D membrane associated rapid response steroid binding protein (1,25D-MARRSBP) also known as ERp57) has been purified from the intestine (180) and subsequently cloned and sequenced (181). Its size is approximately 66kDa. Antibodies have been made against this putative receptor (182). These antibodies block the ability of 1,25(OH)2D to stimulate calcium uptake by isolated chick intestinal cells (183) and to stimulate protein kinase C activity in resting zone chondrocytes while inhibiting proliferation of both resting zone and proliferating zone chondrocytes (182). Analog studies also support the existence of a separate membrane receptor for 1,25(OH)2D. Because of the breaking of the B ring during vitamin D3 production from 7-dehydrocholesterol, the A ring can assume a conformation similar to the parent cholesterol molecule (6-s-cis) (shown as previtamin D3 in figure 1) or the more commonly depicted 6-s-trans form in which the A ring rotates away from the rest of the molecule (shown as vitamin D3 in figure 1). Analogs of 1,25(OH)2D can be produced which favor the 6-s-cis conformation or the 6-s-trans conformation. 1,25(OH)2-d5-previtamin D3 is one such analog locked into the 6-s-cis conformation. This analog has only weak activity with respect to VDR binding or transcriptional activation but is fully effective in terms of stimulating transcaltachia and calcium uptake by osteosarcoma cells when compared to 1,25(OH)2D (184). 6-s-trans analogs are not effective. However, some of these rapid actions of 1,25(OH)2D are not found in cells from VDR null mice suggesting that the VDR may be required for the expression and/or function of the membrane receptor or be the membrane receptor. In other cells both 1,25D-MARRSBP and VDR appear to be required for these rapid effects of 1,25(OH)2D (185,186).

The model (figure 6) emerging from these studies is that 1,25(OH)2D interacts with a membrane receptor to activate phospholipase C possibly through a G protein coupled process. Phospholipase C then hydrolyzes phosphatidyl inositol bis phosphate (PIP2) in the membrane releasing inositol tris phosphate (IP3) and diacyl glycerol (DG). These second messengers may then activate both the intracellular release of calcium from intracellular stores via the IP3 receptor and protein kinase C, either one or both of which could stimulate calcium channel activity leading to a further rise in intracellular calcium levels. In the intestine and kidney, the increased flux of calcium across the brush border membrane is then transported out of the cell at the basolateral membrane, completing transcellular transport. In other cells the increased calcium would need to be removed by other mechanisms after the signal conveyed by the rise in calcium is no longer required. Much work remains to prove this model including the physiologic requirement for a unique membrane receptor.

TARGET TISSUE RESPONSES: CALCIUM REGULATING ORGANS 

Intestine

Intestinal calcium absorption, in particular the active component of transcellular calcium absorption, is one of the oldest and best known actions of vitamin D having been first described in vitro by Schachter and Rosen (187) in 1959 and in vivo by Wasserman et al. (188) in 1961. Absorption of calcium from the luminal contents of the intestine involves both transcellular and paracellular pathways. The transcellular pathway dominates in the duodenum and cecum, and this is the pathway primarily regulated by 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D (1,25(OH)2D) (189), although elements of the paracellular pathway such as the claudins 2 and 12 are likewise regulated by 1,25(OH)2D (reviews in (190,191). Figure 7 shows a model of our current understanding of how this process is regulated by 1,25(OH)2D. Calcium entry across the brush border membrane (BBM) occurs down a steep electrical-chemical gradient and requires no input of energy. Removal of calcium at the basolateral membrane must work against this gradient, and energy is required. This is achieved by the CaATPase (PMCA1b), an enzyme induced by 1,25(OH)2D in the intestine. Calcium movement through the cell occurs with minimal elevation of the intracellular free calcium concentration (192) by packaging the calcium in calbindin containing vesicles (193-195) that form in the terminal web following 1,25(OH)2D administration.

Figure 7. Model of intestinal calcium transport. Calcium enters the microvillus of the intestinal epithelial cell through TRPV6 (previously known as CaT1) calcium channel. Within the microvillus calcium is bound to calmodulin (CaM) which is itself bound to brush border myosin I (BBMI). BBMI may facilitate the movement of the calcium/CaM complex into the terminal web where the calcium is picked up by calbindin (CaBP) and transported through the cytoplasm in endocytic vesicles. At the basolateral membrane the calcium is pumped out of the cell by the Ca-ATPase (PMCA1b). 1,25(OH)2D enhances intestinal calcium transport by inducing TRPV6, CaBP, and PMCAb as well as increasing the amount of CaM bound to BBMI in the brush border.  

1,25(OH)2D regulates transcellular calcium transport using a combination of genomic and nongenomic actions. The first step, calcium entry across the BBM, is accompanied by changes in the lipid composition of the membrane including an increase in linoleic and arachidonic acid (196,197) and an increase in the phosphatidylcholine:phosphatidylethanolamine ratio (198). These changes are associated with increased membrane fluidity (197), which we have shown results in increased calcium flux (199). The changes in lipid composition occur within hours after 1,25(OH)2D administration and are not blocked by pretreatment with cycloheximide (198). In addition, an epithelial specific calcium channel, TRPV6, is expressed in the intestinal epithelium (200). This channel has a high degree of homology to TRPV5, a channel originally identified in the kidney (201,202). The tissue distributions of these channels are overlapping and can be found in other tissues, but TRPV6 appears to be the main form in the intestine (203,204). TRPV6 mRNA levels in the intestine of vitamin D deficient mice are markedly increased by 1,25(OH)2D, although similar changes are not found in the kidney (205).  Mice null for TRPV6 have decreased intestinal calcium transport (206).

Calcium entering the brush border must then be moved into and through the cytoplasm without disrupting the function of the cell. Electron microscopic observations indicate that in the vitamin D deficient animal, calcium accumulates along the inner surface of the plasma membrane of the microvilli (207,208). Following vitamin D or 1,25(OH)2D administration calcium leaves the microvilli and subsequently can be found in mitochondria and vesicles within the terminal web (193,194,207,208). The vesicles appear to shuttle the calcium to the lateral membrane where it is pumped out of the cell by the basolateral CaATPase, PMCA1b. These morphologic observations have been confirmed by direct measurements of calcium using x-ray microanalysis that demonstrate equivalent amounts of calcium within the microvilli of D deficient and 1,25(OH)2D treated animals but much higher amounts of calcium in the mitochondria and vesicles of the 1,25(OH)2D treated animals (194,209). Such data suggest that 1,25(OH)2D controls calcium entry into the cell primarily by regulating its removal from the microvillus and accumulation by subcellular organelles in the terminal web, although flux through calcium channels in the membrane such as TRPV6 also plays a major role.

The ability of 1,25(OH)2D to stimulate calcium entry into and transport from the microvillus does not require new protein synthesis (193,198,210). Cycloheximide does not block the ability of 1,25(OH)2D to increase the capacity of brush border membrane vesicles (BBMV) to accumulate calcium, although it does block the increase in alkaline phosphatase in the same BBMV [193]. Likewise, cycloheximide does not block the increase in mitochondrial calcium following 1,25(OH)2D administration, although it blocks the rise in calbindin and prevents the normal vesicular transport of calcium through the cytosol (193,211). Thus, nongenomic actions underlie at least some of these first steps in 1,25(OH)2D stimulated intestinal calcium transport within the microvillus, although the changes take hours, not minutes, to observe. The exact role for these nongenomic effects on calcium influx relative to the role of TRPV6 remains to be elucidated.

Calmodulin is the major calcium binding protein in the microvillus (212). Its concentration in the microvillus is increased by 1,25(OH)2D; no new calmodulin synthesis is required or observed after 1,25(OH)2D administration (213). Calmodulin is likely to play a major role in calcium transport within the microvillus, and inhibitors of calmodulin block 1,25(OH)2D stimulated calcium uptake by BBMV (214). Within the microvillus calmodulin is bound to a 110kD protein, myosin 1A (myo1A)) (previously referred to as brush border myosin 1). 1,25(OH)2D increases the binding of calmodulin to myo1A in brush border membrane preparations (213), although binding of calmodulin to the myo1A attached to the actin core following detergent extraction of the membrane appears to be reduced (215). The calmodulin/myo1A complex appears late in the development of the brush border, and is found in highest concentration in the same cells of the villus which have the highest capacity for calcium transport (216). Myo1A is located primarily in the microvillus of the mature intestinal epithelial cell, although small amounts have been detected associated with vesicles in the terminal web (217). Thus, the calmodulin/myo1A complex may be responsible for moving calcium out of the microvillus. Its exact role in calcium transport is unclear in that mice null for myo1A do not show reduced intestinal calcium transport(218)).  Calbindin is the dominant calcium binding protein in the cytoplasm (212,219), where it appears to play the major role in calcium transport from the terminal web to the basolateral membrane (190). The increase in calbindin levels in the cytosol following 1,25(OH)2D administration is blocked by protein synthesis inhibitors (210). Indeed, calbindin was the first protein discovered to be induced by vitamin D (219). Glenney and Glenney (212) observed that calbindin has a higher affinity for calcium than does calmodulin. The differential distribution of calmodulin and calbindin between microvillus and cytosol combined with the differences in affinity for calcium led Glenney and Glenney (212) to propose that in the course of calcium transport calcium flowed from calmodulin in the microvillus to calbindin in the cytosol with minimal change in the free calcium concentration in either location. However, the role of calbindin in intestinal calcium transport does not appear to be critical in that mice null for calbindin9k grow normally, have normal intestinal calcium transport, and their serum calcium levels and bone mineral content are equivalent to wildtype mice regardless of the calcium content of the diet (220). The CaATPase (PMCA1b) at the basolateral membrane and the sodium/calcium exchanger (NCX1) are responsible for removing calcium from the cell against the same steep electrochemical gradient as favored calcium entry at the brush border membrane (221). Related proteins are found in the renal distal tubule. As its name implies, the extrusion of calcium from the cell by the calcium pump requires ATP. This pump is a member of the PMCA family, and in the intestine the isoform PMCA1b is the major isoform found. This pump is induced by 1,25(OH)2D (222). Calmodulin activates the pump, but calbindin may do likewise (223). Deletion of Pmca1b reduces calcium absorption and blocks 1,25(OH)2D stimulation of such resulting in reduction in growth and bone mineralization (224)., Moreover, the deletion of protein 4.1R, which regulates PMCA1b expression in the intestine, results in decreased intestinal calcium transport (225). The role of NCX is not considered to be as important as PMCA1b for intestinal calcium transport (226).

The paracellular pathway has received less study, but accounts for the bulk of intestinal calcium transport in that the ileum accounts for around 80% of total calcium absorption essentially all by the paracellular pathway. Paracellular calcium absorption depends to a considerable extent on the gradient between the luminal calcium concentrations and the interstitial calcium concentrations. Thus, it is faster in the duodenum and upper jejunum than the ileum, but because the transit time in the ileum is so much longer than that of the upper GI tract, the ileum is where most of the calcium absorption takes place. Solvent drag plays a large part in moving calcium across the tight junctions between the epithelial cells (227) . Solvent flow follows the osmotic gradient which is maintained distal to the tight junction by the Na/K ATPase and sodium glucose cotransporter of the basolateral membrane which may be stimulated by 1,25(OH)2D (226,227). The tight junction itself provides both charge and size selectivity. The actomyosin ring around the tight junction contributes to the size selectivity (228). The claudins and occludins contribute to charge selectivity. Claudin 2, 12, 15 are negatively charged proteins enabling cations such as sodium and calcium to pass (229,230). 1,25(OH)2D stimulates the expression of claudins 2 and 12 (231). Prolactin stimulates claudin 15 expression, thought to contribute to the increased calcium absorption during pregnancy (232).

Although less studied, intestinal phosphate transport is also under the control of vitamin D. This was first demonstrated by Harrison and Harrison (233) in 1961. Active phosphate transport is greatest in the jejunum, in contrast to active calcium transport that is greatest in the duodenum. Cycloheximide blocks 1,25(OH)2D stimulated phosphate transport (234), indicating that protein synthesis is involved. Phosphate transport at both the brush border and basolateral membranes requires sodium. A sodium-phosphate transporter in the small intestine (NaPi-IIb), homologous to the type IIa sodium phosphate transporter in kidney, has been cloned and sequenced (235). Expression of NaPi-IIb is increased by 1,25(OH)2D (236). Transport of phosphate through the cytosol from one membrane to the other is poorly understood. However, cytochalasin B, a disrupter of microfilaments, has been shown to disrupt this process (237) suggesting that as for calcium, intracellular phosphate transport occurs in vesicles.

 Bone

Nutritional vitamin D deficiency, altered vitamin D responsiveness such as vitamin D receptor mutations (hereditary vitamin D resistant rickets), and deficient production of 1,25(OH)2D such as mutations in the CYP27B1 gene (pseudo vitamin D deficiency) all have rickets as their main phenotype. This would suggest that vitamin D, and in particular 1,25(OH)2D, is of critical importance to bone. Furthermore, VDR are found in bone cells (238,239), and vitamin D metabolites have been shown to regulate many processes in bone. However, the rickets resulting from vitamin D deficiency or VDR mutations (or knockouts) can be corrected by supplying adequate amounts of calcium and phosphate either by infusions or orally [214-217]. Moreover, deletion of VDR from bone cells does not result in rickets (240). This would suggest either that vitamin D metabolites do not directly impact bone, or that substantial redundancy has been built into the system.  However, arguing for a physiologically non-redundant direct action of vitamin D on bone is the development of osteoporosis and decreased bone formation in these VDR or CYP27B1 null mice not corrected by the high calcium/phosphate diet (241).  A further complicating factor in determining the role of vitamin D metabolites in bone is the multitude of effects these metabolites have on systemic calcium homeostatic mechanisms which themselves impact on bone. The lack of vitamin D results in hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia that as implied above is sufficient to cause rickets. Moreover, part of the skeletal phenotype in vitamin D deficiency is also due to the hyperparathyroidism that develops in the vitamin D deficient state as PTH has its own actions on bone and cartilage. Furthermore, within bone the vitamin D metabolites can alter the expression and/or secretion of a large number of skeletally derived factors including insulin like growth factor-1 (IGF-I) (242), its receptor (243), and binding proteins (244,245), transforming growth factor β (TGFβ) (246), vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) (247), interleukin-6 (IL-6) (248), IL-4 (249), and endothelin receptors (250) all of which can exert effects on bone of their own as well as modulate the actions of the vitamin D metabolites on bone. Understanding the impact of vitamin D metabolites on bone is additionally complicated by species differences, differences in responsiveness of bone and cartilage cells according to their states of differentiation, and differences in responsiveness in terms of the vitamin D metabolite being examined. Thus, the study of vitamin D on bone has had a complex history, and uncertainty remains as to how critical the direct actions of the vitamin D metabolites on bone are for bone formation and resorption.

Bone develops intramembranously (e.g., skull) or from cartilage (endochondral bone formation, e.g., long bones with growth plates). Intramembranous bone formation occurs when osteoprogenitor cells proliferate and produce osteoid, a type I collagen rich matrix. The osteoprogenitor cells differentiate into osteoblasts which then deposit calcium phosphate crystals into the matrix to produce woven bone. This bone is remodeled into mature lamellar bone. Endochondral bone formation is initiated by the differentiation of mesenchymal stem cells into chondroblasts that produce the proteoglycan rich type II collagen matrix. These cells continue to differentiate into hypertrophic chondrocytes that shift from making type II collagen to producing type X collagen. These cells also initiate the degradation and calcification of the matrix by secreting matrix vesicles filled with degradative enzymes such as metalloproteinases and phospholipases, alkaline phosphatase (thought to be critical for the mineralization process), and calcium phosphate crystals. Vascular invasion and osteoclastic resorption are stimulated by the production of VEGF and other chemotactic factors from the degraded matrix. The hypertrophic chondrocytes also begin to produce markers of osteoblasts such as osteocalcin, osteopontin, and type I collagen resulting in the initial deposition of osteoid. Moreover, at least some of these chondrocytes further differentiate (or trans differentiate) into osteoblasts (251). Terminal differentiation of the hypertrophic chondrocytes and the subsequent calcification of the matrix are markedly impaired in vitamin D deficiency leading to the flaring of the ends of the long bones and the rachitic rosary along the costochondral junctions of the ribs, classic features of rickets. Although supply of adequate amounts of calcium and phosphate may correct most of these defects in terminal differentiation and calcification, the vitamin D metabolites, 1,25(OH)2D and 24,25(OH)2D, have been shown to exert distinct roles in the process of endochondral bone formation.

The VDR makes its first appearance in the fetal rat at day 13 of gestation in the condensing mesenchyme of the vertebral column then subsequently in osteoblasts and the proliferating and hypertrophic chondrocytes by day 17 (252). However, fetal development is quite normal in vitamin D deficient rats (253) and VDR knockout mice (126) suggesting that vitamin D and the VDR are not critical for skeletal formation. Rickets develops postnatally, becoming most manifest after weaning. The impairment of endochondral bone formation observed in vitamin D deficiency is associated with decreased alkaline phosphatase activity of the hypertrophic chondrocytes (254), alterations in the lipid composition of the matrix (255) perhaps secondary to reduced phospholipase activity (256), and altered proteoglycan degradation (257) due to changes in metalloproteinase activity (257,258). Both 1,25(OH)2D and 24,25(OH)2D appear to be required for optimal endochondral bone formation (259). However, in the CYP24A1 knockout mouse, that fails to produce any 24-hydroxylated metabolites of vitamin D, the skeletal lesion is defective mineralization of intramembranous (not endochondral) bone. Furthermore, the skeletal abnormality appears to be due to high circulating 1,25(OH)2D levels in that crossing this mouse with one lacking the VDR corrects the problem (85). Whether this reflects species differences between mice and other species (most studies demonstrating the role of 24,25(OH)2D in bone and cartilage have used rats and chicks) remains unknown. Chondrocytes from the resting zone of the growth plate of rats tend to be more responsive to 24,25(OH)2D than 1,25(OH)2D, whereas the reverse is true for chondrocytes from the growth zone with respect to stimulation of alkaline phosphatase activity (260), regulation of phospholipase A2 (stimulation by 1,25(OH)2D, inhibition by 24,25(OH)2D) (261), changes in membrane fluidity (increased by 1,25(OH)2D, decreased by 24,25(OH)2D) (262), and stimulation of protein kinase C activity (263). These actions of 1,25(OH)2D and 24,25(OH)2D do not require the VDR and are non-genomic in that they take place with isolated matrix vesicles and membrane preparations from these cells (260). As discussed earlier membrane receptors for these vitamin D metabolites have been found in chondrocytes that may mediate these non-genomic actions (264). Osteoblasts also differ in their response to 1,25(OH)2D depending on their degree of maturation (265). In the latter stages of differentiation, rat osteoblasts respond to 1,25(OH)2D with an increase in osteocalcin production (266), but do not respond to 1,25(OH)2D in the early stages. Mice, however, differ from rats in that 1,25(OH)2D inhibits osteocalcin expression (266). Similarly, the effects of 1,25(OH)2D on alkaline phosphatase (267) and type I collagen (268) are inhibitory in the early stages of osteoblast differentiation but stimulatory in the latter stages (265). Osteopontin is better stimulated by 1,25(OH)2D in the early stages than the late stages of differentiation (265,269). Osteocalcin and osteopontin in human and rat cells have well described VDREs in their promoters (270-272) (the mouse does not) (273). However, alkaline phosphatase and the COL1A1 and COL1A2 genes producing type I collagen do not have clearly defined VDREs, so it remains unclear how these genes are regulated by 1,25(OH)2D. These maturation dependent effects of 1,25(OH)2D on bone cell function may explain the surprising ability of excess 1,25(OH)2D to block mineralization leading to hyperosteoidosis (274,275) as such doses may prevent the normal maturation of osteoblasts.

In addition to its role in promoting bone formation, 1,25(OH)2D also promotes bone resorption by increasing the number and activity of osteoclasts (276). Whether mature osteoclasts contain the VDR and are regulated directly by 1,25(OH)2D remains controversial (277,278), but the VDR in osteoclast precursors is not required for osteoclastogenesis. Rather, the stimulation of osteoclastogenesis by 1,25(OH)2D is mediated by osteoblasts. Rodan and Martin (279) originally proposed the hypothesis that osteoblasts were required for osteoclastogenesis, and the mechanism has now been elucidated (280). Osteoblasts produce a membrane associated protein known as RANKL (receptor activator of nuclear factor (NF)-kB ligand) that activates RANK on osteoclasts and their hematopoietic precursors. This cell-to-cell contact in combination with m-CSF also produced by osteoblasts stimulates the differentiation of precursors to osteoclasts, and promotes their activity. 1,25(OH)2D regulates this process by inducing RANKL (281) as does PTH, PGE2, and IL-11, all of which stimulate osteoclastogenesis. 1,25(OH)2D requires the VDR in osteoblasts for this purpose, although the other hormones and cytokines do not. Osteoblasts from Vdr knockout mice fail to support 1,25(OH)2D induced osteoclastogenesis, whereas osteoclast precursors from Vdr knockout mice can be induced by 1,25(OH)2D to form osteoclasts in the presence of osteoblasts from wildtype animals (282). 

Kidney

The regulation of calcium and phosphate transport by vitamin D metabolites in the kidney has received less study than that in the intestine, but the two tissues have similar although not identical mechanisms. Eight grams of calcium are filtered by the glomerulus each day, and 98% of that is reabsorbed. Most is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. This is a paracellular, sodium dependent process with little or no regulation by PTH and 1,25(OH)2D. Approximately 20% of calcium is reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, 10-15% in the distal tubule, and 5% in the collecting duct (283). Regulation by vitamin D takes place in the distal tubule where calcium moves against an electrochemical gradient (presumably transcellular) in a sodium independent fashion (284). Phosphate, on the other hand, is approximately 80% reabsorbed in the proximal tubule, and this process is regulated by PTH (285). In parathyroidectomized (PTX) animals Puschett et al. (286-288)) demonstrated acute effects of 25OHD and 1,25(OH)2D on calcium and phosphate reabsorption. Subsequent studies indicated that PTH could enhance or was required for the stimulation of calcium and phosphate reabsorption by vitamin D metabolites (289,290).

The molecules critical for calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule appear to be the VDR, calbindin, TRPV5, and the BLM calcium pump (PMCA1b as in the intestine), a situation similar to the mechanism for calcium transport in the intestine. However, the calbindin in the kidney in most species is 28kDa, whereas the 9kDa form is found in the intestine in most species. The kidney has mostly TRPV5, whereas the intestine is primarily TRPV6. The calcium pump is the same isoform in both tissues (PMCA1b) although other forms of PMCA are also present. Calmodulin and a brush border myosin I like protein are also found in the kidney brush border, but their role in renal calcium transport has not been explored. VDR, calbindin, TRPV5, and PMCA1b colocalize in the distal tubule, but not all distal tubules contain this collection of proteins (201,202,291,292) suggesting that not all distal tubules are involved in calcium transport. 1,25(OH)2D upregulates the VDR (234), an action opposed by PTH (237). Calbindin is also induced by 1,25(OH)2D in the kidney(293,294). The activity of the calcium pump is increased by 1,25(OH)2D (295), but it is not clear that the protein itself is induced. The increased activity may be due to the induction of calbindin that increases its activity. The effect of 1,25(OH)2D on TRPV5 expression is stimulatory (205).

Phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule is mediated at the brush border by sodium dependent phosphate transporters (NaPi-2a and NaPi-2c) that rely on the baso-lateral membrane Na,K ATPase to maintain the sodium gradient that drives the transport process (296). It is not clear whether 1,25(OH)2D regulates the expression or activities of these transporters as it does in the intestine, although PTH clearly does. Like PTH, FGF23 blocks phosphate reabsorption, presumably by blocking NaPi-2a activity. Unlike PTH, FGF23 also blocks the renal production of 1,25(OH)2D, as discussed earlier.  The link between phosphate reabsorption and 1,25(OH)2D production remains unclear.

TARGET TISSUE RESPONSES: NON-CALCIUM TRANSPORTING TISSUES

In addition to the its effects on tissues directly responsible for calcium homeostasis, 1,25(OH)2D regulates the function of a wide number of other tissues. These all contain the VDR. Regulation of differentiation and proliferation is one common theme; regulation of hormone secretion is another; regulation of immune function is the third. In most cases 1,25(OH)2D acts in conjunction with calcium. Selected examples follow.

Regulation of Hormone Secretion

PARATHYROID GLAND (PTH SECRETION)

As previously mentioned, PTH stimulates the production of 1,25(OH)2D. In turn 1,25(OH)2D inhibits the production of PTH (297,298). The regulation occurs at the transcriptional level. Within the promoter of the PTH gene is a region that binds the VDR and mediates the suppression of the PTH promoter by 1,25(OH)2D (162,293,299-303). However, there is substantial controversy about whether this site is a single half site (299) or a more classic DR3 (292), whether one VDRE is involved or two (300), whether only VDR binds (299,303), whether VDR/RXR heterodimers bind (162,300), or whether VDR partners with a different protein (301). Some of the differences may reflect different species, but the nature of PTH gene suppression by 1,25(OH)2D remains incompletely understood. Calcium alters the ability of 1,25(OH)2D to regulate PTH gene expression. Calcium is a potent inhibitor of PTH production and secretion, acting through the calcium sensing receptor (CaSR) on the plasma membrane of the parathyroid cell. 1,25(OH)2D induces the CaSR in the parathyroid gland making it more sensitive to calcium (304). Animals placed on a low calcium diet have an increase in PTH and 1,25(OH)2D levels indicating that the low calcium overrides the inhibition by 1,25(OH)2D on PTH secretion (305,306). One possible explanation involves the protein calreticulin that binds to nuclear hormone receptors including VDR at KXGFFKR sequences, and inhibits their activity (307,308). Low dietary calcium has been shown to increase calreticulin levels in the parathyroid gland (309). The ability of 1,25(OH)2D to inhibit PTH production and secretion has been exploited clinically in that 1,25(OH)2D and several of its analogs are used to prevent and/or treat secondary hyperparathyroidism associated with renal failure. The parathyroid gland also expresses CYP27B1 and so can produce its own 1,25(OH)2D that may act in an autocrine or paracrine fashion to regulate PTH production (310). As noted earlier, the parathyroid gland is one of several tissues expressing the megalin/cubilin complex potentially enabling it to take up 25OHD and other D metabolites still bound to DBP.

PANCREATIC BETA CELLS (INSULIN SECRETION) 

1,25(OH)2D stimulates insulin secretion, although the mechanism is not well defined (311,312). VDR, CYP27B1 and calbindin-D28k are found in pancreatic beta cells (313-315), and  studies using calbindin-D28k null mice have suggested that calbindin-D28k, by regulating intracellular calcium, can modulate depolarization-stimulated insulin release (316).  Furthermore, calbindin-D28k, by buffering calcium, can protect against cytokine mediated destruction of beta cells (317).  A number of mostly case control and observational studies have suggested that vitamin D deficiency contributes to increased risk for type 2 diabetes mellitus (318). Moreover, several randomized clinical trials evaluating the ability of vitamin D supplementation to prevent the progression of prediabetes to diabetes indicate that vitamin D has a modest protective effect especially in vitamin D deficient subjects (319,320).

FIBROBLAST GROWTH FACTOR (FGF23)

 FGF23 is produced primarily by bone, and in particular by osteoblasts and osteocytes. 1,25(OH)2D3 stimulates this process, but the mechanism is not clear (322). Inasmuch as FGF23 inhibits 1,25(OH)2D production by the kidney, this feedback loop like that for PTH secretion maintains a balance in the levels of these important hormones. Mutations in the Phosphate regulating gene with Homologies to Endopeptidases on the X chromosome (PHEX) or FGF23 itself (which prevent its proteolysis) or conditions such as McCune-Albright disease and tumor induced osteomalacia in which FGF23 is overexpressed in the involved tissue led to hypophosphatemia and inappropriately low 1,25(OH)2D accompanied by osteomalacia. The role of PHEX, which was originally thought to cleave FGF23, in regulating FGF23 levels is not clear.  In contrast mutations in UDP-N-acetyl-α-D galactosamine:polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase (GALNT3), which glycosylates FGF23, or in FGF23 which blocks this glycosylation result in inhibited FGF23 secretion leading to hyperphosphatemia, increased 1,25(OH)2D, and tumoral calcinosis (323).

Regulation of Proliferation and Differentiation 

CANCER

 1,25(OH)2D has been evaluated for its potential anticancer activity in animal and cell studies for nearly 40 years (324). The list of malignant cells that express VDR is now quite extensive, and the list of those same cells that express CYP27B1 is growing. The accepted basis for the promise of 1,25(OH)2D in the prevention and treatment of malignancy includes its antiproliferative, pro-differentiating effects on most cell types. The list of mechanisms proposed for these actions is extensive, and to some extent cell specific (325). Among these mechanisms 1,25(OH)2D has been shown to stimulate the expression of cell cycle inhibitors p21 and p27 (326) and the expression of the cell adhesion molecule E-cadherin (150), while inhibiting the transcriptional activity of β-catenin (150,327,328). In keratinocytes, 1,25(OH)2D has been shown to promote the repair of DNA damage induced by ultraviolet radiation (UVR) (329) (330), reduce apoptosis while increasing survival after UVR (331), and increase p53 (332).  Epidemiologic evidence supporting the importance of adequate vitamin D nutrition (including sunlight exposure) for the prevention of a number of cancers (333-337) is extensive. Although numerous types of cancers show reduction (338), most attention has been paid to cancers of the breast, colon, and prostate. I (339) recently reviewed a number of meta-analyses of epidemiologic studies evaluating the association of vitamin D intake and/or 25OHD levels and the risk of developing these cancers.  The data supporting a reduction in risk for developing colorectal cancer and breast cancer in premenopausal females with higher vitamin D intake or higher serum 25OHD levels were considerably stronger than that for the prevention of prostate cancer. Prospective randomized controlled trial data are limited. In a prospective 4 yr. trial with 1100iu vitamin D and 1400-1500 mg calcium originally designed to look at osteoporosis the authors showed a 77% reduction in cancers after excluding the initial year of study (340), including a reduction in both breast and colon cancers. In this study, vitamin D supplementation raised the 25OHD levels from a mean of 28.8ng/ml to 38.4ng/ml with no changes in the placebo or calcium only arms of the study. However, this was a relatively small study in which cancer prevention was not the primary outcome variable. A substantially larger trial involving over 25,000 subjects treated in a two by two design with vitamin D and/or omega 3 fatty acid did not find a benefit of vitamin supplementation with respect to cancer incidence but appears to have shown a beneficial effect on mortality (341). Trials of 1,25(OH)2D and its analogs for the treatment of cancer have been disappointing. In a small study involving 7 subjects with prostate cancer treated with doses of 1,25(OH)2D up to 2.5µg for 6-15 months, 6/7 showed a decrease in the rise of prostate specific antigen (PSA), a marker of tumor progression (342), and one patient showed a decline. However, hypercalciuria was common and limiting. A preliminary report of a larger study involving 250 patients with prostate cancer using 45µg 1,25(OH)2D  weekly in combination with docetaxel demonstrated a non-significant decline in PSA, although survival was significantly improved (HR 0.67) (343). A larger follow-up study did not show increased survival (344).  The incidence of either hypercalcemia or hypercalciuria was not reported. Most likely until an analog of 1,25(OH)2D is developed which is both efficacious and truly non hypercalcemic, treatment of cancer with vitamin D metabolites will remain problematic.

SKIN 

 Epidermal keratinocytes are the only cells in the body with the entire vitamin D metabolic pathway. As described earlier, production of vitamin D3 from 7-dehydrocholesterol takes place in the epidermis. However, the epidermis also contains CYP27A1 (345), the mitochondrial enzyme that 25-hydroxylates vitamin D, and CYP27B1 (40,47), the enzyme that produces 1,25(OH)2D from 25OHD. The CYP27B1 in keratinocytes is differently regulated than CYP27B1 in renal cells. Although PTH stimulates CYP27B1 activity in the keratinocyte, the mechanism appears to be independent of cAMP (346). Cytokines such as tumor necrosis factor-α and interferon-γ stimulate CYP27B1 activity (347,348). 1,25(OH)2D does not exert a direct effect on CYP27B1 expression in keratinocytes, but regulates 1,25(OH)2D levels by inducing CYP24A1 thus initiating the catabolism of 1,25(OH)2D (79). CYP27B1 is expressed primarily in the basal cells of the epidermis (50); as the cells differentiate the mRNA and protein levels of CYP27B1and its activity decline (349).

1,25(OH)2D regulates keratinocyte differentiation in part by modulating the ability of calcium to do likewise (350). Therefore, it is important to understand the actions of calcium on this cell prior to examining the influence of 1,25(OH)2D (351-356)(357). If keratinocytes are grown at calcium concentrations below 0.07mM, they continue to proliferate but either fail or are slow to develop intercellular contacts, stratify little if at all, and fail or are slow to form cornified envelopes. Acutely increasing the extracellular calcium concentration (Cao) above 0.1mM (calcium switch) leads to the rapid redistribution of desmoplakin, cadherins, integrins, catenins, plakoglobulin, vinculin, and actinin from the cytosol to the membrane where they participate in the formation of intercellular contacts. Calcium also stimulates the redistribution to the membrane of protein kinase Cα (PKCα) (358,359) and the tyrosine-phosphorylated p62 associated protein of ras GAP (360,361) where they further the calcium signaling process. These early events are accompanied by a rearrangement of actin filaments from a perinuclear to a radial pattern which if disrupted blocks the redistribution of these proteins and blocks the differentiation process. Within hours of the calcium switch keratinocytes switch from making the basal keratins K5 and K14 and begin making keratins K1 and K10 (356) followed, subsequently, by increased levels of profilaggrin (the precursor of filaggrin, an intermediate filament associated protein), involucrin and loricrin (precursors for the cornified envelope) (362,363). Loricrin, involucrin and other proteins (364) are cross linked into the insoluble cornified envelope by the calcium sensitive, membrane bound form of transglutaminase (365,366), which like involucrin and loricrin increases within 24 hours after the calcium switch (367). Within 1-2 days of the calcium switch cornified envelope formation is apparent (355,368), paralleling transglutaminase activation (369). The induction of these proteins represents a genomic action (likely indirect) of calcium as indicated by a calcium induced increase in mRNA levels and transcription rates (356,363,369,370). The relevance of calcium induced differentiation in vitro to the in vivo situation is indicated by the steep gradient of calcium within the epidermis, with the highest levels in the uppermost (most differentiated) nucleated layers (371). Current evidence for the importance of calcium in epidermal function is that barrier disruption, which results in increased proliferation, is associated with loss of the calcium gradient, whereas increasing the calcium concentration in the epidermis with sonophoresis stimulates lamellar body secretion (372-376).

The keratinocyte senses calcium via a seven transmembrane domain, G protein coupled receptor (CaSR) (377) originally cloned from the parathyroid cell by Brown et al (378,379). Knocking out the CaSR blocks calcium induced differentiation in vitro (380,381) and in vivo (382). However, keratinocytes also produce an alternatively spliced variant of the CaSR as they differentiate (383). This variant CaSR lacks exon 5 and so would be missing residues 461-537 in the extracellular domain. A mouse model in which the full length CaSR has been knocked out continues to produce the alternatively spliced form of CaSR, but its epidermis contains lower levels of the terminal differentiation markers loricrin and profilaggrin, and keratinocytes from these mice fail to respond normally to calcium (383) consistent with the results when the full length calcium receptor was deleted in vitro (380,381). We have produced a conditional knockout of the CaSR allowing us to delete CaSR in the tissue of choice using cell specific cre recombinases that avoids the problem with the original global knockout (384). When the CaSR is deleted specifically in the keratinocyte, this mouse has a reduction in epidermal differentiation and barrier repair (382), but unlike the global knockout does not have abnormalities in overall calcium homeostasis, and rather than showing an increased calcium gradient in the epidermis has a blunted one. The conditional knockout mouse also lacks the alternatively spliced CaSR.

Inositol 1,4,5 tris phosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol levels increase within seconds to minutes after the calcium switch implicating activation of the phospholipase C (PLC) pathway (385,386). Similar to intracellular calcium levels (Cai), the levels of inositol phosphates (IPs) remain elevated for hours after the calcium switch. The prolonged increase in IPs after the calcium switch may contribute to the plateau phase of Cai elevation and a prolonged elevation of diacylglycerol (DG) that would stimulate the protein kinase C (PKC) pathway. This prolonged increase in IPs appears to be due to calcium induction and activation of PLC (154,386,387), especially PLC-γ1.  Activation of PLC-γ1 by calcium involves a chain of events involving src kinase activation of phosphatidyl inositol 3 kinase and phosphatidyl inositol 4 phosphate 5  kinase 1α within the context of a membrane complex with E-cadherin leading to the formation of phosphatidyl inositol tris phosphate in the membrane which activates PLC-γ1 via its PH domain (388).  Phosphorylation of PLC-γ1 is not part of its activation by calcium unlike its activation by EGF (389). Knocking out Plcg1 blocks the ability of calcium to increase Cai and to induce involucrin and transglutaminase (387). Thus, like CaSR, PLC-γ1 is critical for the ability of calcium to regulate keratinocyte differentiation.

Phorbol esters, which bind to and activate PKC, are well known tumor promoters in skin However, the initial effects of phorbol esters in vitro are to promote differentiation in cells grown in low calcium (358,390,391), effects which are potentiated by calcium (383). Phorbol esters stimulate PKC, and PKC inhibitors block the ability of both calcium and phorbol esters to promote differentiation (391). Phorbol esters as well as calcium stimulate the expression of both keratin 1 and involucrin gene constructs each of which contains an AP-1 site within the calcium response element (CaRE) of the promoter for these genes (392,393). If the AP-1 site within the CaRE is mutated, neither calcium nor phorbol esters are effective (392,393). These CaREs also contain VDREs (DR3), which at least in the involucrin gene has been shown to mediate 1,25(OH)2D regulation of this gene (394). Phorbol esters do not reproduce all the actions of calcium on the keratinocyte, and vice versa, but cross talk between their signaling pathways is clearly present.

The observation that 1,25(OH)2D induces keratinocyte differentiation was first made by Hosomi et al. (395) and provided a rationale for the previous and unexpected finding of 1,25(OH)2D receptors in the epidermis (396). 1,25(OH)2D increases the mRNA and protein levels for involucrin and transglutaminase, and promotes CE formation at subnanomolar concentrations in preconfluent keratinocytes (370,397-399). Calcium affects the ability of 1,25(OH)2D to stimulate keratinocyte differentiation, and vice versa. Calcium in the absence of 1,25(OH)2D and 1,25(OH)2D at low (0.03mM) calcium raise the mRNA levels for involucrin and transglutaminase in a dose dependent fashion by stimulating gene expression. The stimulation of mRNA levels by calcium and 1,25(OH)2D is synergistic at early time points; however, longer periods of incubation lead to a paradoxical fall in the mRNA levels for these proteins. This is due to the fact that although transcription is increased by calcium and 1,25(OH)2D, stability of the mRNA is reduced in cells incubated with calcium and 1,25(OH)2D.

The transcriptional regulation by 1,25(OH)2D is both direct and indirect. Several genes contain VDREs (e.g. involucrin), but VDREs have not been found in all genes that are regulated by 1,25(OH)2D. Inhibition of PKC activity or mutation of the AP-1 site in the CaRE of the involucrin gene also blocks the ability of 1,25(OH)2D to regulate expression of involucrin (394). The ability of 1,25(OH)2D to increase intracellular calcium (Cai) (298) accounts for at least part of the ability of 1,25(OH)2D to induce differentiation. A rapid (presumably nongenomic) effect of 1,25(OH)2D on Cai has been described (400), although this response is controversial (398). Our studies indicate that the ability of 1,25(OH)2D to increase Cai requires time and gene transcription. 1,25(OH)2D increases CaSR mRNA levels and prevents their fall in cells grown in 0.03mM calcium (401). This results in an enhanced Cai response to extracellular calcium (Cao). 1,25(OH)2D also induces the family of PLCs (402). PLC-γ1 contains a VDRE in its promoter (154), which unlike the usual VDRE is a DR6 which binds VDR/RAR rather than VDR/RXR. Knocking out PLCG1 blocks 1,25(OH)2D induced differentiation (403) as well as calcium induced differentiation mentioned earlier. The other PLCs have not been studied as extensively, but are likely to show similar means of regulation by 1,25(OH)2D.

Our current working model for the mechanisms by which calcium and 1,25(OH)2D regulate keratinocyte differentiation is shown in figure 8. The keratinocyte expresses a CaSR that by coupling to and activating PLC controls the production of two important second messengers, IP3 and DG. PLC-β is likely to be activated acutely by CaSR via a G protein coupled mechanism, whereas PLC-γ1 is activated acutely by calcium stimulated non receptor tyrosine kinases and subsequently by PIP3 in the membrane. Both PLCs are induced by calcium and 1,25(OH)2D. IP3 stimulates the release of calcium from intracellular stores thus raising Cai. The initial release of calcium from these stores activates the Stim1/Orai1 channel in the membrane (404) that may stimulate proliferation of the basal keratinocytes and initiate their movement out of the basal layer. The increase in Cai and DG stimulates the activation of critical PKCs and their translocation to membrane receptors (RACK). PKC-α appears to be the most critical PKC for the subsequent events triggered by calcium in the keratinocyte, although PKCδ has also been implicated.  Activated PKC leads to the induction and activation of AP-1 transcription factors which regulate the transcription of a number of genes including keratin 1, transglutaminase, involucrin, loricrin, and profilaggrin required for the differentiation process. Activation of the CaSR also activates the RhoA kinase leading to activation of src kinases which by phosphorylating various catenins leads to the formation of the Ecadherin/catenin complex in the membrane (405). This complex recruits both PI3K and PIP5K1α required to maintain the PIP2 and PIP3 levels in the membrane (357). PIP3 activates PLC-γ, that is in turn activates the TRPC channels in the membrane to enable the prolonged increase in Cai required for differentiation (406). 1,25(OH)2D, which is produced by the keratinocyte in a highly regulated fashion, modulates calcium regulated differentiation at several steps. First, 1,25(OH)2D increases CaSR expression, thus making the cell more responsive to calcium. Secondly, 1,25(OH)2D induces all the PLCs again increasing the responsiveness of the cell to calcium. Finally, 1,25(OH)2D has a direct effect on the transcription of the genes such as involucrin. The net result is that both calcium and 1,25(OH)2D promote keratinocyte differentiation through interactive mechanisms.

Figure 8. A model of 1,25(OH)2D and calcium regulated keratinocyte differentiation. The G-protein coupled calcium receptor (CaSR) when activated by extracellular calcium activates Gα as described in the legend to figure 6. Gα stimulates PLC mediated hydrolysis of PIP2 to IP3 and DG. IP3 releases Cai from intracellular stores, and DG activates PKC. Depletion of intracellular calcium stores leads to influx of calcium across store operated calcium channels. PKC stimulation leads to activation of AP-1 transcription factors which along with calcium and 1,25(OH)2D activated transcription factors stimulate the expression of genes essential for the differentiation process. 1,25(OH)2D regulates this process by inducing CaSR and PLC as well as genes essential for cornified envelope formation such as involucrin and transglutaminase.

The VDR is also critical for hair follicle (HF) cycling. Unlike epidermal differentiation, hair follicle cycling is not dependent on 1,25(OH)2D. Alopecia is a well described characteristic of mice and humans lacking VDR (125,126,407) due to failure to regenerate the cycling lower portion of the HF after the initial developmental cycle is completed. Deletion of CYP27B1 (408) and CaSR (382) do not result in alopecia. Cianferotti et al. (409) attributed the loss of HF cycling in VDR null mice to a gradual loss of the proliferative potential in the stem cells of the HF bulge region. However, this conclusion has been challenged by Palmer et al. (410), who attributed the failure of HF cycling in the VDR null mouse in part to a failure of the progeny of these stem cells to migrate out of the bulge rather than their loss of proliferative potential suggesting a loss of activation. The role of VDR in the stem cells that regulate both HF cycling and epidermal regeneration is also important in the skin wound healing process. When the skin is wounded the progeny of stem cells from all regions of the HF and interfollicular epidermis (IFE) contribute at least initially (411,412), although the stem cells in the IFE make the most lasting contribution. Tian et al. (413) observed that topical 1,25(OH)2D enhanced wound healing, suggesting that unlike HF cycling, the wound repair required this VDR ligand. Luderer et al. (414) observed that in the global VDRKO, there was a reduction in TGFβ signaling in the dermis, and subsequently demonstrated that the VDR in macrophages but not in keratinocytes was responsible for macrophage recruitment during the inflammatory phase of cutaneous wound healing (415). Our studies have focused on the VDR in epidermal keratinocytes.  We have observed that re-epithelialization by the keratinocytes over the wound is impaired when the deletion of VDR from keratinocytes is accompanied by either a low calcium diet or a deletion of the CaSR (416). Thus like the role of calcium and CaSR in vitamin D regulated keratinocyte differentiation so a similar synergism is seen in wound healing. These results are consistent with the loss of E-cadherin/catenin complex formation in the VDRKO keratinocyte, a complex that maintains stem cells in their niches (417), regulates when stem cell division is symmetric (to maintain stem cell numbers) or asymmetric (initiating differentiation) (418), and is essential for the ability of keratinocytes to migrate as a sheet to re-epithelialize the wound (419). As noted previously calcium and the CaSR along with 1,25(OH)2D and VDR are required for E-cadherin/catenin complex formation during the differentiation process and so are involved in enabling its role in wound healing (420).

Immune System

The potential role for vitamin D and its active metabolite 1,25(OH)2D3 in modulating the immune response has long been recognized since the discovery of vitamin D receptors (VDR) in macrophages, dendritic cells (DC), and activated T and B lymphocytes, the ability of macrophages and DC as well as activated T and B cells to express CYP27B1, and the ability of 1,25(OH)2D3 to regulate the proliferation and function of these cells. While these are the key cells mediating the adaptive immune response, 1,25(OH)2D, VDR, and CYP27B1 are also expressed in a large number of epithelial cells which along with the aforementioned members of the adaptive immune response contribute to host defense by their innate immune response. The totality of the immune response involves both types of responses in complex interactions involving numerous cytokines. The regulation of these different responses and their interactions by 1,25(OH)2D3 is nuanced. In general, 1,25(OH)2D3 enhances the innate immune response primarily via its ability to stimulate cathelicidin, an antimicrobial peptide important in defense against invading organisms, whereas it inhibits the adaptive immune response primarily by inhibiting the maturation of dendritic cells (DC) important for antigen presentation, reducing T cell proliferation, and shifting the balance of T cell differentiation from the Th1 and Th17 pathways to Th2 and Treg pathways. Inflammatory autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, and psoriasis involve Th17 activation, a cell that expresses RANKL, and so can drive osteoclastogenesis leading to bone loss.     

ADAPTIVE IMMUNE RESPONSE

The adaptive immune response is initiated by cells specialized in antigen presentation, DC and macrophages in particular, activating the cells responsible for subsequent antigen recognition, T and B lymphocytes. These cells are capable of a wide repertoire of responses that ultimately determine the nature and duration of the immune response. Activation of T and B cells occurs after a priming period in tissues of the body, e.g., lymph nodes, distant from the site of the initial exposure to the antigenic substance, and is marked by proliferation of the activated T and B cells accompanied by post translational modifications of immunoglobulin production that enable the cellular response to adapt specifically to the antigen presented. Importantly, the type of T cell activated, CD4 or CD8, or within the helper T cell class Th1, Th2, Th17, Treg, and subtle variations of those, is dependent on the context of the antigen presented by which cell and in what environment. Systemic factors such as vitamin D influence this process. Vitamin D in general exerts an inhibitory action on the adaptive immune system. 1,25(OH)2D3 decreases the maturation of DC as marked by inhibited expression of the costimulatory molecules HLA-DR, CD40, CD80, and CD86, decreasing their ability to present antigen and so activate T cells (421). Furthermore, by suppressing IL-12 production, important for Th1 development, and IL-23 and IL-6 production important for Th17 development and function, 1,25(OH)2D3 inhibits the development of Th1 cells capable of producing IFN- and IL-2, and Th17 cells producing IL-17 (422). These actions prevent further antigen presentation to and recruitment of T lymphocytes (role of IFN-γ), and T lymphocyte proliferation (role of IL-2).  Suppression of IL-12 increases the development of Th2 cells leading to increased IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13 production, which further suppresses Th1 development shifting the balance to a Th2 cell phenotype. Treatment of DCs with 1,25(OH)2D3 can also induce CD4+/CD25+ regulatory T cells (Treg) cells (423) as shown by increased FoxP3 expression, critical for Treg development.  These cells produce IL-10, which suppresses the development of the other Th subclasses. Treg are critical for the induction of immune tolerance (424).  In addition, 1,25(OH)2D3 alters the homing of properties of T cells for example by inducing expression of CCR10, the receptor for CCL27, a keratinocyte specific cytokine, while suppressing that of CCR9, a gut homing receptor (425). The actions of 1,25(OH)2D3 on B cells have received less attention, but recent studies have demonstrated a reduction in proliferation, maturation to plasma cells and immunoglobulin production (426). 

 

1,25(OH)2D3 has both direct and indirect effects on regulation of a number of cytokines involved with the immune response (review in (427)). TNF has a VDRE in its promoter to which the VDR/RXR complex binds.  1,25(OH)2D3 both blocks the activation of NFκB via an increase in IκBα expression and impedes its binding to its response elements in the genes such as IL-8 and IL-12 that it regulates. 1,25(OH)2D3 has also been shown to bring an inhibitor complex containing histone deacetylase 3 (HDAC3) to the promoter of rel B, one of the members of the NFκB family, thus suppressing gene expression. Thus, TNF/NFkB activity is markedly impaired by 1,25(OH)2D3 at multiple levels. In VDR null fibroblasts, NFκB activity is enhanced. Furthermore, 1,25(OH)2D3 suppresses IFNγ, and a negative VDRE has been found in the IFNγ promoter. GM-CSF is regulated by VDR monomers binding to a repressive complex in the promoter of this gene, competing with nuclear factor of T cells 1(NFAT1) for binding to the promoter.

The ability of 1,25(OH)2D3 to suppress the adaptive immune system appears to be beneficial for a number of conditions in which the immune system is directed at self—i.e. autoimmunity (review in (428)). In a number of experimental models including inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, autoimmune diabetes (e.g., NOD mice), systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE), experimental allergic encephalitis (EAE) (a model for multiple sclerosis), inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), prostatitis, and thyroiditis VDR agonist administration has prevented and/or treated the disease process. As will be discussed later, a number of these conditions are associated with bone loss either directly (e.g., inflammatory arthritis) or indirectly presumably via increased serum levels of inflammatory cytokines. These actions of 1,25(OH)2D3 were originally ascribed to inhibition of Th1 function, but Th17 cells have also been shown to play important roles in a number of these conditions including psoriasis (321),  experimental colitis (422), and rheumatoid arthritis (429), conditions that respond to 1,25(OH)2D3 and its analogs. Although few prospective, randomized, placebo-controlled trials in humans have been performed, epidemiologic and case control studies indicate that a number of these diseases in humans are favorably impacted by adequate vitamin D levels. For example, the incidence of multiple sclerosis correlates inversely with 25OHD levels and vitamin D intake, and early studies suggested benefit in the treatment of patients with rheumatoid arthritis and multiple sclerosis with VDR agonists (427,428). Similarly, IBD is associated with low vitamin D levels (430). Children who are vitamin D deficient have a higher risk of developing type 1 diabetes mellitus, and supplementation with vitamin D during early childhood reduces the risk of developing type 1 diabetes (review in (421)).  In VDR null mice myelopoiesis and the composition of lymphoid organs are normal, although a number of abnormalities in the immune response have been found.  Some of the abnormalities in macrophage function and T cell proliferation in response to anti-CD3 stimulation in these animals could be reversed by placing the animals on a high calcium diet to normalize serum calcium (431), indicating the important role of calcium in vitamin D regulated immune function as in skeletal development and maintenance, hormone regulation, and keratinocyte differentiation. Other studies have noted an increased number of mature DCs in the lymph nodes of VDR null mice, which would be expected to promote the adaptive immune response (432). Somewhat surprisingly, RANKL also increases the number and retention of DCs in lymph nodes (433) suggesting that at least this mechanism is not mediated via the RANKL/RANK system in VDR null mice, which I will discuss at length subsequently.  In contrast to these inhibitory actions of 1,25(OH)2D3, Th2 function as indicated by increased IgE stimulated histamine from mast cells is increased in VDR null mice (434). The IL-10 null mouse model of IBD shows an accelerated disease profile when bred with the VDR null mouse with increased expression of Th1 cytokines (435). Surprisingly, despite a reduction in natural killer T cells and Treg cells and a decreased number of mature DCs, VDR null mice bred with NOD mice do not show accelerated development of diabetes (436). Part of the difference in tissue response in VDR null mice may relate to differences in the ability of 1,25(OH)2D3 to alter the homing of T cells to the different tissues (425).  In allergic airway disease (asthma) Th2 cells, not Th1 cells, dominate the inflammatory response. 1,25(OH)2D3 administration to normal mice protected these mice from experimentally induced asthma in one study, blocking eosinophil infiltration, IL-4 production, and limiting histologic evidence of inflammation (437).  However, a study with VDR null mice using a comparable method of inducing asthma showed that lack of VDR also protected the mice from an inflammatory response in their lungs (438). In an extension of this study the investigators showed that wildtype (WT) splenocytes were only minimally successful at restoring experimental airway inflammation to VDR null mice, whereas splenocytes from these mice were able to transfer experimental airway inflammation to the unprimed WT host (439). Thus, the impact of vitamin D signaling on adaptive immunity depends on the specifics of the immune response being evaluated. 

Inhibition of the adaptive immune response may also have benefit in transplantation procedures (440).  In experimental allograft models of the aorta, bone, bone marrow, heart, kidney, liver, pancreatic islets, skin, and small bowel VDR agonists have shown benefit generally in combination with other immunosuppressive agents such as cyclosporine, tacrolimus, sirolimus, and glucocorticoids (440). Much of the effect could be attributed to a reduction in infiltration of Th1 cells, macrophages and DC into the grafted tissue associated with a reduction in chemokines such as CXCL10, CXCL9, CCL2, and CCL5.  CXCL10, the ligand for CXCR3, may be of particular importance for acute rejection in a number of tissues, whereas CXCL9 as well as CXCL10 (both CXCR3 ligands) may be more important for chronic rejection at least in the heart and kidney, respectively. Although there are no prospective trials of the use of VDR agonists in transplant patients, several retrospective studies in patients with renal transplants treated with 1,25(OH)2D3 have suggested benefit with respect to prolonged graft survival and reduced numbers of acute rejection episodes.

Suppression of the adaptive immune system may not be without a price. Several publications have demonstrated that for some infections including Leishmania major (441) and toxoplasmosis (442), 1,25(OH)2D3 promotes the infection (442), while the mouse null for VDR is protected (441). This may be due at least in part to loss of IFNγ stimulation of ROS and NO production required for macrophage antimicrobial activity (441). Furthermore, atopic dermatitis, a disease associated with increased Th2 activity (443), and allergic airway disease, likewise associated with increased Th2 activity, (437-439), may be aggravated by 1,25(OH)2D3 and less severe in animals null for VDR.

THE INNATE IMMUNE RESPONSE

The innate immune response involves the activation of toll-like receptors (TLRs) in polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs), monocytes and macrophages as well as in a number of epithelial cells including those of the epidermis, gingiva, intestine, vagina, bladder and lungs (review in (444)). There are 10 functional TLRs in human cells (of 11 known mammalian TLRs). TLRs are an extended family of host noncatalytic transmembrane pathogen-recognition receptors that interact with specific membrane patterns (PAMP) shed by infectious agents that trigger the innate immune response in the host. A number of these TLRs signal through adapter molecules such as myeloid differentiation factor-88 (MyD88) and the TIR-domain containing adapter inducing IFN-β (TRIF).  MyD88 signaling includes translocation of NFkB to the nucleus, leading to the production and secretion of a number of inflammatory cytokines. TRIF signaling leads to the activation of interferon regulatory factor-3 (IRF-3) and the induction of type 1 interferons such as IFNβ.  MyD88 mediates signaling from TLRs 2, 4, 5, 7 and 9, whereas TRIF mediates signaling from TLR 3 and 4. TLR1/2, TLR4, TLR5, TLR2/6 respond to bacterial ligands, whereas, TLR3, TLR7, and TLR 8 respond to viral ligands. The TLR response to fungi is less well defined. CD14 serves as a coreceptor for a number of these TLRs. Activation of TLRs leads to the induction of antimicrobial peptides (AMPs) and reactive oxygen species, which kill the organism. Among these AMPs is cathelicidin. Cathelicidin plays a number of roles in the innate immune response. The precursor protein, hCAP18, must be cleaved to its major peptide LL-37 to be active. In addition to its antimicrobial properties, LL-37 can stimulate the release of cytokines such as IL-6 and IL-10 through G protein coupled receptors, and IL-18 through ERK/P38 pathways, stimulate the EGF receptor leading to activation of STAT1 and 3, induce the chemotaxis of neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, and T cells into the skin, and promote keratinocyte proliferation and migration (445). The expression of this antimicrobial peptide is induced by 1,25(OH)2D3 in both myeloid and epithelial cells (446,447).  In addition, 1,25(OH)2D3 induces the coreceptor CD14 in keratinocytes(448). Stimulation of TLR2 by infectious organisms like tuberculosis in macrophages (449) or stimulation of TLR2 in keratinocytes by wounding the epidermis (448) results in increased expression of CYP27B1, which in the presence of adequate substrate (25OHD) stimulates the expression of cathelicidin.  Lack of substrate (25OHD) or lack of CYP27B1 blunts the ability of these cells to respond to a challenge with respect to cathelicidin and/or CD14 production (447-449). In diseases such as atopic dermatitis, the production of cathelicidin and other antimicrobial peptides (AMPs) is reduced, predisposing these patients to microbial superinfections (450). Th2 cytokines such as IL-4 and 13 suppress the induction of AMPs(451). Since 1,25(OH)2D3 stimulates the differentiation of Th2 cells, in this disease 1,25(OH)2D3 administration may be harmful.  An important role of these AMPs besides their antimicrobial properties is to help link the innate and adaptive immune response. This interplay is well demonstrated in SARS-CoV-19 infections in which a dysfunctional and/or delayed innate immune response can lead to an unchecked adaptive immune response resulting in a massive release of proinflammatory cytokines, the “cytokine storm”, leading to destruction of the lungs and death (452). Patients with vitamin D deficiency appear to be more vulnerable to this infection (453).

Although many cells are capable of the innate immune response including bone cells, most studies have focused on the macrophage and the keratinocyte. Vitamin D regulation of the innate immune response in these two cell types is comparable, but differences exist.

Macrophages

The importance of adequate vitamin D nutrition for resistance to infection has long been appreciated but poorly understood. This has been especially true for tuberculosis. Indeed, prior to the development of specific drugs for the treatment of tuberculosis, getting out of the city into fresh air and sunlight was the treatment of choice. In a recent survey of patients with tuberculosis in London (454) 56% had undetectable 25OHD levels, and an additional 20% had detectable levels but below 9 ng/ml (22 nM).  In 1986 Rook et al. (455) demonstrated that 1,25(OH)2D3 could inhibit the growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.  The mechanism for this remained unclear until the publication by Liu et al. (449) of their results in macrophages. They observed that activation of the Toll-like receptor TLR2/1 by a lipoprotein extracted from M. tuberculosis reduced the viability of intracellular M. tuberculosis in human monocytes and macrophages concomitant with increased expression of the VDR and of CYP27B1 in these cells. Killing of M. tuberculosis occurred only when the serum in which the cells were cultured contained adequate levels of 25OHD, the substrate for CYP27B1. This provided clear evidence for the importance of vitamin D nutrition (as manifested by adequate serum levels of 25OHD) in preventing and treating this disease, and demonstrated the critical role for endogenous production of 1,25(OH)2D3 by the macrophage to enable its antimycobacterial capacity.  Activation of TLR2/1 or directly treating these cells with 1,25(OH)2D3 induced the antimicrobial peptide cathelicidin, which is toxic for M. tuberculosis. If induction of cathelicidin is blocked as with siRNA, the ability of 1,25(OH)2D3 to enhance the killing of M. tuberculosis is prevented (456). Furthermore, 1,25(OH)2D3 also induces the production of reactive oxygen species which if blocked likewise prevents the anti-mycobacterial activity of 1,25(OH)2D3 treated macrophages (457). The murine cathelicidin gene lacks a known VDR response element in its promoter, and so might not be expected to be induced by 1,25(OH)2D3 in mouse cells, yet 1,25(OH)2D3 stimulates antimycobacterial activity in murine macrophages. Murine macrophages, unlike human macrophages, utilize inducible nitric oxide synthase (iNOS) for their TLR and 1,25(OH)2D3 mediated killing of M. tuberculosis (457,458). Clinical trials attempting to treat tuberculosis patients with high levels of vitamin D have shown mixed results (459)(460).

Keratinocytes

Cathelicidiin and CD14 expression in epidermal keratinocytes is induced by 1,25(OH)2D3 (445,448).  In these cells butyrate, which by itself has little effect, potentiates the ability of 1,25(OH)2D3 to induce cathelicidin (461).  Keratinocytes treated with 1,25(OH)2D3 are substantially more effective in killing Staphyococcus aureus than are untreated keratinocytes. Wounding the epidermis induces the expression of TLR2 and that of its co-receptor CD14 and cathelicidin (448). This does not occur in mice lacking CYP27B1 (448). Unlike macrophages, 1,25(OH)2D3 stimulates TLR2 expression in keratinocytes as well as in the epidermis when applied topically (448) providing a feed forward loop to amplify the innate immune response. Wounding also increases the expression of CYP27B1.  This may occur as a result of increased levels of cytokines such as TNF-α and IFN-γ, both of which we have shown stimulate 1,25(OH)2D3 production, as well as by TGF-β and the TLR2 ligand Malp-2 (448). When the levels of VDR or one of its principal coactivators, SRC3, are reduced using siRNA technology, the ability of 1,25(OH)2D3 to induce cathelicidin and CD14 expression in human keratinocytes is markedly blunted (461).

Other Tissues

The VDR is widespread (127,462) (reviews). In some of these tissues the functional significance of the VDR and/or the effect of 1,25(OH)2D are unclear. Since several of the functions regulated by 1,25(OH)2D in some of these tissues may have clinical relevance, this section will focus on a select number of these tissues. 

HEART

A reduction in contractility has been observed in vitamin D deficient animals (463). This may be due to lack of vitamin D or the accompanying hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia. However, in vitro 1,25(OH)2D stimulates calcium uptake by cardiac muscle cells (464,465). In addition, 1,25(OH)2D inhibits the expression of atrial naturetic factor, one of the few genes with a negative VDRE in its promoter (466).  Deletion of the VDR specifically in cardiac muscle leads to hypertrophy and fibrosis (467). Low circulating levels of 25OHD are associated with increased risk of myocardial infarction in men [436]. However, a large randomized clinical trial failed to show a protective effective of vitamin D supplementation to individuals with normal levels of 25OHD with respect to cardiovascular disease (341) 

SKELETAL MUSCLE 

Proximal muscle weakness is a hallmark of vitamin D deficiency, and reduced high energy substrates (ATP, creatinine phosphate) have been observed in that condition (468). Myoblasts contain VDR, although the expression of VDR in mature muscle cells is controversial. Muscle weakness may reflect the lower levels of calcium and phosphate rather than a reduction in 1,25(OH)2D. However, evidence for a direct role of 1,25(OH)2D and VDR in muscle function is increasing (469). Moreover, 1,25(OH)2D may have actions on muscle that do not require the VDR, at least the genomic functions of VDR. The Boland laboratory (470) has demonstrated acute effects of 1,25(OH)2D on calcium uptake, PLC, PLA2, PLD, PKC, and adenylate cyclase activities, all of which may alter muscle function.

PITUITARY

VDR have been found primarily in thyrotropes in vivo and in GH and prolactin secreting cell lines in vitro (471,472). 1,25(OH)2D increases TRH stimulated TSH secretion by a mechanism involving increased Cai and IP3 production (473,474), suggesting that induction of PLC by 1,25(OH)2D may be involved. 

BREAST

The breast contains VDR (475), and vitamin D plays a role in normal breast development (476). Moreover, breast cancer cells also contain VDR (477), and 1,25(OH)2D and its analogs reduce their proliferation in vivo and in vitro (478,479). This has obvious clinical implications for the treatment of breast cancer.

LIVER

Low levels of VDR have been found in the liver, particularly in stellate cells (480,481). Hepatic regeneration is impaired in vitamin D deficient animals, even when the serum calcium is normalized by a high calcium diet (482), suggesting a role for 1,25(OH)2D in hepatic cell growth and in the prevention of hepatic fibrosis (481).

LUNG 

VDR have been found in type II epithelial pneumocytes (483). 1,25(OH)2D stimulates their maturation including increased phospholipid production and surfactant release [437].These results are consistent with the abnormal alveolar development observed in pups born to vitamin D deficient mothers (484). In addition 1,25(OH)2D stimulates the innate immune response in bronchial epithelial cells and may provide protection in patients with cystic fibrosis with recurrent lung infections as well as in patient with Covid-19 infections (452,485) as discussed previously.

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Diabetes Mellitus in People with Cancer

ABSTRACT

 

There is increasing evidence of an association between cancer and diabetes mellitus. Patients with type II diabetes are at increased risk of malignancy due to shared risk factors between the two conditions, and people with a diagnosis of cancer may develop new onset diabetes or impaired glycemic control, partly as a result of the systemic anti-cancer treatments (SACT) they receive. Many newer targeted anti-cancer treatments can have off-target metabolic toxicities not seen with conventional chemotherapy agents. Early recognition of diabetes or hyperglycemia in people with cancer can improve outcomes. This chapter aims to summarize these associations, provide an overview of how different SACT modalities can impact on glycemic control, and highlight key recommendations for the management of this complex patient group.

 

INTRODUCTION

 

Diabetes mellitus (DM) is a rising global public health emergency, with recent estimates suggesting that over 780 million people globally will be affected by 2045 (1). DM is typically classified into broad categories including type 1 (T1DM), type 2 (T2DM), gestational, monogenic, pharmacologically-induced, endocrinopathy-driven and DM due to pancreatic disease/deficiency (sometimes referred to as type 3c) (2, 3). T2DM is regarded as the most common subtype and is reported to account for over 85% of cases (1). All types of DM can lead to multisystem microvascular (nephropathy, retinopathy, neuropathy) and macrovascular (ischemic heart disease, stroke and peripheral vascular disease) complications, with management of these complications placing a strain upon many health services.

 

People with a diagnosis of DM are also at higher risk for developing several cancers (4), with reasons for this in part due to shared risk factors between the two, including age, obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and diet (5,6). A recent umbrella review of meta-analyses found that risks of developing most cancers were higher in people with DM compared to those without, with the most convincing evidence seen in breast cancer, intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma, colorectal cancer, and endometrial cancer. One exception in this study was prostate cancer, where the risk appeared lower in individuals with DM (4). In view of this increased cancer risk in people with DM, some groups even advocate that regular screening for underlying cancer should be part of routine DM assessments (7).

 

It is estimated that approximately 20% of people with cancer have concurrent diabetes (8). Individuals with cancer are also at an increased risk of developing new onset DM or hyperglycemia, independent of an underlying diagnosis of diabetes, whilst cancer patients with concurrent DM often experience worsening glycemic control (9). Reasons for poor glycemic control in these individuals include complications from systemic anticancer treatments (SACT) along with supportive medications to treat treatment side effects, and symptoms of the underlying malignancy. This chapter aims to summarize the complex relationship between malignancy and DM, particularly the effects of SACT on glycemic control and risk of DM, as well as outlining management guidelines for DM in people with cancer.

 

DIABETES/HYPERGLYCEMIA AND CANCER OUTCOMES                       

 

A number of observational studies have demonstrated that hyperglycemia is associated with poorer overall survival (OS) and increased risk of disease recurrence in a number of malignancies, solid and hematological (10-17), with a number of individual studies, and larger meta-analyses supporting this. One meta-analysis reviewed 12 studies comprising 9,872 people with a diagnosis of cancer without known diabetes. Individuals with hyperglycemia were found to have significantly worse disease-free survival (DFS) (hazard ratio (HR) 1.98, 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.20-3.27) compared to those without, as well as worse OS (HR 2.05, 95% CI 1.67-2.551) (18). A further meta-analysis of 4,241 patients with pancreatic cancer suggested that those individuals with concurrent DM (1,034) have poorer OS (HR 1.16, 95% CI 1.08-1.25) and a higher risk of on-treatment death than those without concurrent DM (19). Furthermore, in a meta-analysis of 8 studies in breast cancer, concurrent DM was found to confer a greater risk of death, and a later stage at presentation, as well as impact on the treatment given (20). People with DM also have a higher prevalence of oral cancers, as well as a higher mortality from these cancers (21).

 

In addition to this, a number of preclinical studies have suggested that hyperglycemia may specifically attenuate the efficacy of chemotherapy in people with cancer with or without diabetes, which could in part account for these observations (22). For example, hyperglycemia may attenuate chemotherapy-induced reactive oxygen species (ROS) production, which in-turn can diminish the efficacy of treatment (23). In vivo, there are some small series that have demonstrated an association between hyperglycemia and resistance to chemotherapy. A clinical study of 88 people with estrogen-receptor positive breast cancer demonstrated impaired glucose tolerance significantly correlated with disease progression in those patients receiving chemotherapy (24). Furthermore, high blood glucose levels irrespective of an underlying DM diagnosis, were shown to significantly enhance oxaliplatin resistance in individuals with stage III colorectal cancer receiving adjuvant chemotherapy (22). Studies such as these highlight the importance of adequate glycemic control during treatment for cancer to potentially improve outcomes, although these data are mainly from observational studies, with interventional studies lacking.

 

EFFECT OF DIABETES OR HYPERGLYCEMIA ON QUALITY OF LIFE IN PEOPLE WITH CANCER

 

Cancer-related symptoms and SACT side effects, such as fatigue, nausea, anorexia and pain can be debilitating to patients. When confounded by symptoms of hyperglycemia, the impact upon an individuals’ quality of life can be significant (25). Furthermore, the impact of a cancer diagnosis, as well as treatment and cancer-related symptoms can have major negative impacts on diabetes self-care (26), with data suggesting that adherence to glucose lowering drugs often decreases in individuals following a cancer diagnosis (27). A cancer diagnosis can also have financial and social impacts upon individuals, affecting access to healthy food and outpatient diabetes services, resulting in lower quality of life and a higher symptom burden (28). A systematic review of 10 studies, demonstrated poorer patient reported outcomes (PROs) in those diagnosed with both cancer and DM compared to having either one of these diseases alone (29).

 

 

People with DM are known to be at higher risk from infections, and undergoing SACT can exacerbate this, resulting in higher rates of infection and hospitalization observed in those with cancer and DM (30, 31). This in turn leads to higher rates of chemotherapy dose reductions and early treatment cessation (28, 32-34). A meta-analysis of 10 observational studies involving 8,688 cases found that the likelihood of developing chemotherapy-induced neutropenia was higher amongst individuals with DM/hyperglycemia than those without (odds ratio (OR) 1.32, 95% CI 1.06-1.64) (31). Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia poses a significant risk for infection and hospitalization in all people with cancer, with an associated rate of morbidity and mortality which is higher in those with raised blood glucose levels (30). In addition to severe hematological toxicity, more severe rates of non-hematological toxicity have also been associated with hyperglycemia during chemotherapy in people with prostate cancer and lymphoma (35). A single-center retrospective analysis found that individuals with cancer and DM who had good glycemic control had no increased risk of treatment-related complications compared with individuals without DM (36), suggesting that optimal glycemic control during SACT could improve tolerability, thereby reducing rates of admission and dose-limiting toxicity.

 

Conceivably, people with DM may be more prone to neuro- and nephrotoxic agents due to their underlying predisposition conferred by the DM. Indeed, a previous report suggested that taxane-based chemotherapy regimens resulted in a significantly higher rates of peripheral neuropathy in those with DM compared to those without (74.4% vs. 58.5%) (37). There are no convincing data to suggest that a concurrent cancer diagnosis accelerates the risk of diabetic nephropathy or retinopathy.

 

EFFECTS OF SYSTEMIC ANTICANCER THERAPIES ON GLYCEMIA  

 

Systemic anti-cancer therapies (SACT) encompass a wide range of treatments including cytotoxic chemotherapy, hormone therapy, targeted therapy, and immunotherapy, many of which can impact upon glycemic control directly or as a result of toxicity management or supportive medications which are given alongside treatment. Several anti-cancer agents have been demonstrated to increase the risk of hyperglycemia as summarized in Table 1, and many can do this even in those without a known diagnosis of DM. People receiving SACT are also at risk of developing a new diagnosis of diabetes. One study demonstrated that 11% of people (15/134) undergoing routine chemotherapy met the criteria for a new diagnosis of diabetes (using the diagnostic criteria as per guidelines from the UK National Institute for Clinical and Healthcare Excellence (NICE) and without a previous known diagnosis) based upon HbA1cmeasurements). The majority of these individuals (73%) had been receiving short course steroids with chemotherapy, and 40% were being treated in the curative/adjuvant setting (38). A second prospective cohort study in 90 people taking glucocorticoids as part of therapy protocols for primary brain tumor or metastases, lymphoma, or for bone marrow transplant, found non-DM range hyperglycemia in 58% and DM-range hyperglycemia in 18.9% (39). These individuals with hyperglycemia are also more likely to present with an emergency admission during cancer therapy than those with normoglycemia (40).

 

Table 1. SACT used in the Treatment of Cancer Demonstrated to be Associated with Worsening Glycemic Control

Type of SACT

Drug Examples

Risk of Diabetes/Hyperglycemia (Range of any grade)

Type of diabetes most likely to develop

Targeted therapy

 

mTOR inhibitors

Everolimus (41, 42)

12-50%

T2DM

Temsirolimus (42)

26%

PI3K inhibitors

Alpelisib (43)

37%

T2DM

Idelialisib (44)

28/30%

EGFR inhibitor

Osimertinib (45)

2%

T2DM

Panitumumab (46, 47)

1-10%

Multikinase inhibitor

Sunitinib (48-50)

0-8%

Risk of hypoglycemia

Reverses T1/T2DM, but also causes hyperglycemia

Pazopanib (50)

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI)

Nilotinib (51)

6%

T2DM

Ponatinib (52)

3%

ALK Inhibitor

Ceritinib (53)

49%

T2DM

FLT3 inhibitor

Midostaurin (54, 55)

7-20%

T2DM

Gilteritinib (56)

13%

Monoclonal antibody

Gemtuzumab (anti-CD33) *inpatient use (57)

10%

T2DM

Somatostatin Analogues

Octreotide, Lanreotide (58)

Up to 30%

T2DM, but risk of hypoglycemia

Chemotherapy

 

Anti-metabolite

5-fluorouracil (59, 60)

Up to 10%

T2DM

Pemetrexed (61, 62)

4%

Decitadine/Azacitidine (63)

6-33%

Alkylating agents

Busulfan (64)

66-67%

Platinum based

Oxaliplatin (65, 66)

4%

Anthracyclines

Doxorubicin (60, 67)

Up to 10%

Other

Arsenic trioxide (ATO) (68)

45%

 

Immune Checkpoint Inhibitors

 

PD-1

Nivolumab (69)

<1%

T1DM

Pembrolizumab (70)

1-2.2%

CTLA-4

Ipilumumab (69)

<1%

 

Combination ICP (71)

4%

Hormone Therapy

 

Hormone Treatment

ADT (44, 72)

Risk ratio 1.39 (95% CI 1.27-1.53) n=65,595 cases

T2DM

Tamoxifen (73)

Diabetes risk adj. odds ratio 1.24 (95% CI 1.08-1.42)

Abbreviations: ADT = androgen deprivation therapy; ALK – anaplastic lymphoma kinase; ATO – arsenic trioxide; CTLA-4 – cytotoxic T-lymphocyte protein-4; EGFR – epidermal growth factor receptor; FLT3 – FMS-like tyrosine kinase-3; ICP – immune checkpoint inhibitor; TKI – tyrosine kinase inhibitor; mTOR – mechanistic target of rapamycin; PI3K – phosphoinositide-3 kinase; PD-1 – programmed cell death protein-1; T1DM – type 1 diabetes mellitus; T2DM – type 2 diabetes mellitus

 

Cytotoxic Chemotherapy

 

Hyperglycemia occurs in between 10 and 30% of people undergoing cytotoxic chemotherapy for malignancy (74), and although often transient during treatment, can persist, or even lead to DM in some people. Poor glycemic control can increase the risk of infections and hospitalization (28, 34), as previously discussed, leading to treatment interruptions and dose reductions, as well as significant morbidity, and even mortality (33). A number of cytotoxic chemotherapy regimens are reported to cause hyperglycemia in people without diabetes, including commonly used drugs such as 5-fluorouracil (5-FU), platinum-based drugs (oxaliplatin, carboplatin, cisplatin) and anthracyclines (doxorubicin, epirubicin) (75). In one cohort study of 422 people receiving 5FU-based chemotherapy regimens for the treatment of early or advanced colorectal cancer, 11.6% (42 people) developed diabetes and a further 11.3% developed impaired fasting blood glucose (FBG) levels. Of the 42 people who developed diabetes, 7 required no treatment, 13 received diet control and physiotherapy only, and 22 received antidiabetic medication (75). In a second cohort of 185 people with head and neck cancer treated with platinum-containing regimens, 3.8% developed type 2 DM, with 3 presenting with hyperglycemic crises (DKA, HHS) (65). One possible contributing factor for developing impaired FBG levels and/or type 2 DM is the concurrent use of corticosteroids in highly emetogenic chemotherapy regimens, but an analysis of type 2 DM following anthracycline use in 3,147 lymphoma patients suggested that the use of these drugs independently increases the risk of T2DM, when data was adjusted for corticosteroid use, comorbidities, age, and gender. A threshold doxorubicin dose of 253mg was identified, below which there was no increased risk of developing T2DM (76). Risk of diabetes from cytotoxic chemotherapy may also increase with age, with one pediatric study suggesting that the risk was higher in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) patients aged > 10, compared with those < 10 years old (77).

 

Exact mechanisms of how and why some cytotoxic chemotherapies can lead to hyperglycemia or T2DM remain unclear. Proposed mechanisms include the induction of an inflammatory state which predisposes to hyperglycemia (78) or direct metabolic effects on tissues vital to glucose homeostasis such as skeletal muscles (79).

 

Oral Targeted Anticancer Agents

 

Many new targeted cancer therapies inhibit various points in the insulin receptor signaling pathway including the commonly used class of tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) (80). Reported effects of targeted TKIs on blood glucose metabolism range from the development of metabolic syndrome and diabetes via the blocking of insulin signaling (80), as well as erratic glycemic control and even hypoglycemia in those with pre-existing type 1 or type 2 DM49, (81, 82). In contrast some TKIs may improve glycemic control suggesting that management of these individuals needs to be individualized with no one-size-fits-all management algorithm. Reversibility of these effects is also unclear, with reported improvements in glycemic control and HbA1c levels following dose reductions or treatment termination (83).

 

Inhibitors of mTOR (everolimus, temsirolimus or ridaforolimus) have also been shown to impact glycemic control since mTOR is a protein kinase that plays a key role in regulating cell growth as well as lipid and glucose metabolism (84, 85). Meta-analyses looking into these effects have demonstrated significantly higher rates of hyperglycemia, hypercholesterolemia, and hypertriglyceridemia compared with controls (86, 87) In isolated cases, the effects have been severe enough to precipitate DKA (88). To date, studies have not demonstrated either positive or negative associations between treatment response rates and incidence of metabolic complications (89).

 

As novel targeted agents continue to be introduced to manage a range of cancers, it is expected that metabolic toxicities continue to be reported given the homeostatic function of many of these druggable targets. Whilst some of these agents will provide meaningful benefit in terms of survival for people with advanced cancers, such as the PI3Kainhibitor alpelisib for PI3KA-mutated metastatic breast cancer (43), glycemic control needs to be at the forefront of the prescriber’s mind at initiation, to ensure adequate management of toxicities.

 

Hormone Therapy

 

ANDROGEN DEPRIVATION THERAPY

 

Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) is recognized as a risk factor for development of diabetes, metabolic syndrome, and cardiovascular disease (72, 90, 91). In a large observational study of over 35,000 men treated for prostate cancer, ADT in the form of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists, oral antiandrogens, a combination of the two, or orchiectomy was associated with a significantly increased risk of diabetes, coronary heart disease, myocardial infarction, and sudden cardiac death (90). These findings are supported by other studies, including a meta-analysis of over 150,000 men with prostate cancer receiving ADT (72), with association observed with all forms of ADT, with the weakest association with anti-androgen therapy alone.

 

ESTROGEN TARGETED THERAPY

 

Studies examining the effect of estrogen-targeted therapies on the development of diabetes in women with breast cancer are less clear cut. Whilst one retrospective cohort analysis failed to demonstrate a link between tamoxifen use and the development of DM (92), two large population-based studies demonstrated a significant association between tamoxifen use and the development of diabetes in women diagnosed with breast cancer (73, 93); The first of these studies included almost 15,000 Canadian women aged 65 years or older diagnosed with early breast cancer, whilst the second included over 22,000 women in Taiwan aged 20 years and over. Whilst tamoxifen appears to increase the risk of developing DM, aromatase inhibitor therapy does not, with no link found in any of these three studies.

 

Immune Checkpoint Inhibitors

 

Immune checkpoint inhibitors (ICPi), including cytotoxic T-lymphocyte associated protein 4 (CTLA-4) and programmed cell death protein 1/programmed cell death ligand 1 (PD-1/PDL-1) inhibitors are a sub-class of monoclonal antibody treatments that have revolutionized cancer treatment over the last decade. First approved for use in the treatment of melanoma, ICPi are now recognized as providing a survival benefit across a number of cancers, and are increasingly used in early-stage cancers in the adjuvant setting and also in combination with chemotherapy (94). Whilst clinically effective, ICPi can lead to a spectrum of immune-related adverse events (IRAEs). Endocrine IRAEs include hypophysitis, thyroiditis, adrenalitis and de novo diabetes. The risk of developing de novo diabetes is low, occurring in 0.2-4% of ICPi treated individuals depending on the immunotherapy given (69). The immune checkpoint PD-1 and its ligand PD-L1 have been shown to have an important immune homeostatic function in the pancreas by promoting beta cell maturation and preventing immune-mediated beta cell destruction (95). To date, there is no convincing evidence for a physiological role for CTLA-4 within the pancreas. PD-1 inhibitors, PD-L1 inhibitors, and combination CTLA-4/PD-1 therapy have been demonstrated to precipitate diabetes more commonly than CTLA-4 inhibitors alone. The underlying clinical presentation is akin to type 1 diabetes (70) and believed to be precipitated by inappropriate activation of self-reactive T-cells and destruction of insulin-producing pancreatic islet β-cells. ICP-induced insulin deficiency may lead to new-onset insulin-dependent diabetes or worsening pre-existing type 2 diabetes. Up to 75% of people who develop ICP-induced hyperglycemia/diabetes present with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) (96-98). Presentations are frequently acute with a precipitous increase in blood glucose (99). Therefore ICP-induced diabetes can be discriminated from ‘standard’ type 1 diabetes mellitus, by its tendency towards a faster onset, apparently fulminant course, and high degree of antibody negativity (99). The nomenclature of the condition in the published literature varies mainly between ‘type 1 like’ to ‘fulminant’ with there being differences between the presentation of ICPi-induced diabetes and type 1 and fulminant diabetes. Kyriacou and colleagues compared the characteristics of 75 published cases and concluded that there is some overlap with type 1 DM and fulminant DM. However, this was felt to be insufficient overlap for ICPi diabetes to be wholly classified as either type 1 like or fulminant (100). Nevertheless, the recognition that these agents can precipitate rapid beta cell destruction which results in an unusually high number of emergency presentations is key. Treatment of non-endocrine IRAEs is typically with high dose steroids, often for prolonged periods of time. At present, steroids are used in up to a third of people receiving ICPs, further increasing the risk of hyperglycemia, and steroid induced T2DM.

 

An analysis of the World Health Organizations (WHO) pharmacovigilance database over a 4-year period detected 283 cases of ICP-induced diabetes mellitus, 50.2% of which presented with DKA, and 6% of whom were on concurrent steroids at diagnosis (101). There was a wide variability in duration of ICP treatment, and timing of DM onset, occurring even up to 8 months after cessation of ICP treatment. A systematic review of 90 cases, demonstrated a diagnosis of DM on average after 4.5 cycles of ICP (102). C-peptide levels were usually low or undetectable at diagnosis, islet autoantibodies were positive in 53%, with a predominance of glutamic acid decarboxylase antibodies, and susceptible HLA genotypes present in 65% (102). HbA1c levels were relatively low, consistent with the observed rapid onset of beta cell inflammation. Importantly, an elegant albeit small single-center study, used radiological and biochemical phenotyping to demonstrate that ICPi DM is irreversible (103). This has important clinical implications such that any individual diagnosed with ICPi-induced DM should be counselled around an expected life-long requirement of insulin.

 

Glucocorticoid (Steroid) Treatment

 

Glucocorticoids (GC) increase insulin resistance and glucose production and inhibit the production and secretion of insulin by pancreatic beta cells, as well as acting centrally to counteract the appetite-reducing effects of insulin (104). As such they are commonly associated with the development of hyperglycemia and diabetes. GCs have a direct hyperglycemic effect which starts very early after ingestion (105, 106). They typically cause an increase in blood glucose levels 4-8 hours after ingestion leading to a peak blood glucose level between midday meal and evening meal (106, 107). One in ten people not known to have diabetes develop GC-induced diabetes (108) an effect which is dose dependent (109). The incidence of glucocorticoid-induced hyperglycemia has been shown to occur in up to 30% of individuals without diabetes (110), but could be as high as 50%. The consequences of missing it can lead to significant harm, including the development of Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS), hospitalization, and in extreme circumstances, death. In a single center UK prevalence study 12.8% (120/940) of inpatients were found to be on glucocorticoids, however only 20.5% of these individuals (25/120) had their blood glucose levels measured during admission, demonstrating how infrequently glucose is measured in hospital (111). It is important to ensure that if glucocorticoid (steroid) induced hyperglycemia does occur, it is picked up early.

 

The use of GCs, is common in advanced cancer, to reduce peri-lesional edema, relieve pain, control nausea, combat fatigue, or boost appetite. For oncological emergencies such as cerebral metastases, superior vena-cava obstruction (SVCO), or metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC), high dose GC treatment is integral to patient management. Furthermore, GC treatments are the backbone of many hematological cancer treatment regimens, and are often used as supportive anti-emetic medications, or to prevent allergic reactions, in many solid tumor regimens (105), and, as discussed above, the main first-line treatment for the management of ICP toxicity. In one study, the incidence of glucocorticoid-induced diabetes was 20% in those with newly diagnosed gastrointestinal cancer following at least 3 cycles of highly or moderately emetogenic chemotherapy, including dexamethasone as a supportive medication. Furthermore, almost 60% of people in the study exhibited signs of insulin resistance and multivariate analysis showed a significant association between the cumulative dose of dexamethasone and the incidence of corticosteroid-induced diabetes (112). In a separate smaller study of 16 women without diabetes with ovarian or endometrial cancer receiving carboplatin/paclitaxel chemotherapy with dexamethasone as supportive care, almost all experienced elevated interstitial glucose levels with diurnal variation during the first five days of treatment (113). For those who receive prednisolone as part of a treatment regimen for hematological malignancies, rates of steroid-induced diabetes and hyperglycemia have been reported to be as high as 32.5% and 47% respectively, highlighting the scale of this issue (114, 115).

 

Supra-physiological doses of glucocorticoids approximate to a dose of prednisolone greater than 5mg per day – or an equivalent dose of the alternative synthetic GC (Table 2). With increasing dose of GC, the risk of potential hyperglycemia increases, and in people without pre-existing diabetes, a glucocorticoid dose equivalent of >12mg dexamethasone and longer acting steroids are associated with a greater degree of hyperglycemia (116). As duration of GC treatment increases, it becomes increasingly likely that hyperglycemia may not resolve once the GCs are withdrawn, with those groups at particular risk of developing glucocorticoid induced diabetes, shown in Table 3.

 

Table 2. Glucocorticoid Dose Equivalent

Glucocorticoid (steroid)

Potency (equivalent doses)

Duration of action (half-life, in hours)

Hydrocortisone

20 mg

8

Prednisolone

5 mg

16-36

Methylprednisolone

4 mg

18-40

Dexamethasone

0.8 mg

36-54

Betamethasone

0.8 mg

26-54

 

Table 3. Risk Factors for Glucocorticoid-Inducted Diabetes

Pre-existing type 1 or type 2 diabetes

Family history of diabetes

Increasing age

Obesity

Ethnic minorities

Impaired fasting glucose or impaired glucose tolerance

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Previous gestational diabetes

Previous development of hyperglycemia on glucocorticoid therapy

Concurrent cytotoxic therapy known to cause hyperglycemia

 

HYPOGYCEMIA IN PEOPLE ON SACT

 

Although anti-cancer therapies and glucocorticoid use lead predominantly to hyperglycemia, there are risks of hypoglycemia that require consideration. People at risk of hypoglycemia should be counselled on the signs and symptoms to be aware of, and of the requirement to inform the driver and vehicle licensing agency should they experience any episodes of hypoglycemia requiring third party assistance.

 

Poor oral intake and nausea/vomiting from the underlying cancer or treatments put individuals at increased risk of hypoglycemia. Poor glycemic control can cause weight loss and precipitate nutrition impact symptoms (NIS) such as nausea, poor appetite, and altered bowel movements, further increasing the risks of hypoglycemia, particularly when dietary intake has been poor for some time. People with diabetes on an insulin secretagogue (sulfonylureas or meglitinides), or those on insulin, are also at higher risk of hypoglycemia.

 

In patients with end-stage metastatic disease, and shortened life expectancy, tight glucose control is not indicated, potentially placing individuals at unnecessary risk for hypoglycemia, particularly in those with a poor performance status >2. Individual risk for hypoglycemia and prognosis should be considered and recommended glycemic measurement targets are between 6.0 mmol/L – 15 mmol/L (108 – 225 mg/dl) (117).

 

People with new onset ICPi-induced insulin deficiency often have labile glucose control (99). More relaxed glucose targets may be required to avoid hypoglycemia wherever possible. Immune checkpoint inhibitors can also induce hypopituitarism leading to secondary adrenal insufficiency. This may lead to hypoglycemia (together with any of the following - hyponatremia, hyperkalemia and hypotension). Adrenalitis leading to primary adrenal insufficiency is very rare. Presentation of adrenal insufficiency ranges from asymptomatic laboratory alterations to the acutely unwell, with management depending on the severity (118). Other causes of adrenal or pituitary deficiency leading to hypoglycemia include metastases at these sites, surgery, irradiation, azole class of anti-fungal medication, and inappropriate abrupt cessation of glucocorticoid medication.

 

In oncology patients being weaned from long-term steroids, glucose monitoring will need to be continued after glucocorticoid cessation, with doses of anti-diabetic treatments adjusted accordingly, and individuals advised on risks of hypoglycemia. Caution is also required whilst using certain hematological anti-cancer therapies, including lenalidomide (119) and bortezomib (120), which can precipitate hypoglycemia, particularly in people with an underlying diagnosis of diabetes.

 

All cancer patients at risk from hypoglycemia should receive advice regarding appropriate treatment with 15–20 g of fast-acting carbohydrate, taken immediately (121). Comprehensive guidelines from the Joint British Diabetes Societies for Inpatient Care on the management of hypoglycemia can be found at this reference (122).

 

MANAGEMENT RECOMMENDATIONS  

 

Despite the effects of hyper- and hypoglycemia in people with diabetes (PWD) and those without known diabetes in cancer, there is a sparsity of guidance on the specific management considerations of these individuals. To address this, collaborative guidelines have recently been produced by the UK Chemotherapy Board (UKCB) and Joint British Diabetes Society for Inpatient Care (JBDS) (123, 124). The scope of these guidelines are to provide advice for the oncology/hemato-oncology and diabetes multidisciplinary teams to manage people with diabetes, commencing anti-cancer/ steroid therapy, as well as identifying individuals without a known diagnosis of diabetes who are at risk of developing hyperglycemia and new onset diabetes. These guidelines are intended for the outpatient management of people with cancer, particularly in the setting of the oncology/hemato-oncology clinic, and provision of advice for individuals at home, but where necessary, may be applied to inpatients as well. Whilst covering these guidelines in detail is beyond the scope of this chapter, key management considerations are summarized in tables 4-9.

 

Table 4. At Baseline

·       HbA1c and venous plasma glucose should be checked in all people with cancer at baseline clinic visit

·       Provide high risk individuals with capillary blood glucose (CBG) meter and glucose testing strips, or if baseline plasma glucose is ≥12 mmol/L (216 mg/dl)

·       Individuals with raised baseline HbA1c (>47 mmol/mol [6.5%]) should be referred to primary care for management of hyperglycemia prior to next follow up visit

·       When initiating SACT/glucocorticoids individuals must be informed of the risk of developing hyperglycemia/diabetes and potential symptoms to expect

·       The recommended glucose target level is 6.0-10.0 mmol/L (108 – 180 mg/dl), allowing a range of 6.0-12.0 mmol/L (108 – 216 mg/dl)

·       There are differences in opinion at where the threshold for intervention should be drawn - 12.0 mmol/L (216 mg/dl) is a pragmatic threshold

 

Table 5. Commencing Glucocorticoids (GC) /Systemic Anti-Cancer Therapy

·       Check baseline HbA1c and random venous plasma glucose before starting therapy

·       Monitor random plasma glucose at each treatment visit

·       Educate patients in symptoms of hyperglycemia

·       Consider commencing gliclazide 40mg if raised blood glucose ≥12mmol/L (216 mg/dl) on two occasions

·       Gliclazide may require frequent and significant increases in dose to reduce glucose levels, particularly on high dose steroids

·       Inform diabetes care provider if persistently raised blood glucose

·       If blood glucose is ≥20mmol/L (360 mg/dl), rule out DKA/HHS

 

Table 6. Commencing Immune Checkpoint Inhibitors (ICP)

·       Educate patients to be aware of symptoms of hyperglycemia

·       Rule out DKA or HHS which often occurs precipitously

·       Withhold ICP if evidence of ICP-induced diabetes emergency. Once patient has been regulated with insulin substitution, consider restarting ICP

·       Almost all patients require insulin therapy – refer urgently to diabetes team

 

Table 7. Managing Nausea and Vomiting

·       People with diabetes should be made aware of likely exacerbation of hyperglycemia whilst on anti-emetic therapy

·       People with diabetes receiving emetogenic chemotherapy should be offered an NK1 antagonist (e.g., aprepitant) with a long acting 5HT3 inhibitor (e.g., ondansetron)

·       Consider the use of a GC in the first cycle and reduce doses or withdraw completely based on the PWD’s emetic control and on blood glucose management

 

Table 8. For Non-Insulin-Treated Individuals with Type 2 Diabetes

·       Check baseline HbA1c and random venous plasma glucose before starting therapy

·       Monitor random plasma glucose at each treatment visit

·       Educate patients in symptoms of hyperglycemia

·       If plasma glucose is ≥12 mmol/L (216 mg/dl) on two occasions, screen for symptoms of hyperglycemia and ketonuria/ketonemia

·       In individuals already on a sulphonyurea such as gliclazide or meglitinides, up-titrate morning dose of gliclazide to a maximum doses of 240 mg. Evening dose of gliclazide may be initiated to achieve a maximum daily dose of 320 mg

·       Insulin therapy may be required

·       In individuals on a diet-controlled regimen, or on other non-sulfonylurea treatments (e.g., metformin, DPP4 inhibitors, pioglitazone, SGLT2 inhibitors) commence gliclazide 40 mg, and up-titrate

 

Table 9. For Insulin-Treated Individuals with Type 2 Diabetes

·       Check baseline HbA1c and random venous plasma glucose before starting therapy

·       Monitor random plasma glucose at each treatment visit

·       If plasma glucose is ≥12 mmol/L (216 mg/dl) on two occasions, screen for symptoms of hyperglycemia and ketonuria/ketonemia

·       Contact usual diabetes team for support in titrating insulin

·       Consider titrating insulin by 10-20% of the original dose daily

·       Individuals should be made aware of ‘sick day rules’ with insulin administration

 

Full management guidelines can be found at the UK Chemotherapy Board (UKCB) and Joint British Diabetes Society for Inpatient Care (JBDS) websites.

 

ADDITIONAL MANAGEMENT CONSIDERATIONS: CHOICE OF DIABETES THERAPEUTIC AGENT

 

Special consideration should also be given to the non-glycemic effects of hypoglycemic agents, including specific side effects and the impact on weight. Although weight reduction is associated with improvement in glycemic and metabolic profile in people with type 2 diabetes and is a key consideration in the choice of therapy, significant weight loss would usually be an unwanted effect in the oncology population. Indeed, weight gain is often used as a metric of improving nutritional state, especially in cancer related cachexia. This also has implications when counselling people with cancer about dietary choices when there is an additional cancer diagnosis. It is imperative that personalized advice is offered by healthcare professionals considering the global impact on the individual of any dietary or even lifestyle advice. SGLT2 inhibitors and GLP-1 agonists, for their potential weight reduction effects, are therefore less attractive options in the oncology setting. Insulin and sulfonylureas, on the other hand, offer an anabolic effect and therefore may be more desirable. Gastrointestinal side effects are common among hypoglycemic agents including metformin, DPP4 inhibitors, and GLP-1 agonists, and have the potential to complicate issues with nausea, vomiting, and oral intake from the underlying cancer and its treatment. Similarly, poor oral intake and nephrotoxic effects of certain SACT, added to a potential osmotic diuretic effect of SGLT2

inhibitors, could also increase the risk of acute kidney injury. The associated risk of genital tract infections with SGLT2 inhibitors would also be an additional consideration especially within an immunocompromised population (125). The impact and significance of these non-glycemic effects in the oncology population clearly differ to that of the general population, therefore highlighting the importance of a personalized approach with regular review of patients’ diabetes treatment through their oncology journey. 

 

CONCLUSIONS

 

It is common practice in oncology to initiate systemic anti-cancer therapy (including chemotherapy, targeted treatment, immunotherapy and steroids) in people with pre-existing diabetes. Diabetes, or risk of developing diabetes are by no means a contraindication to treatment but treating clinicians should be aware of the risks to patients, and counsel them appropriately. As more sophisticated anti-cancer treatments become licensed for use, the metabolic effects of these treatments will become better understood, and oncology teams should utilize and collaborate with endocrinology and primary care services to minimize the risks to individuals from poor glycemic control and diabetes. The recent publication of specific guidelines should act as a reference aid for clinicians and wider healthcare professionals to aid in risk recognition, diagnostic and screening for treatment induced diabetes, and provide the tools to appropriately manage these individuals and reduce the risks of complications.

 

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